from 8 Feb '25 Flashcards

1
Q

the Ministry of Defence (MoD) signed defence contracts worth Rs 10,147 crore to enhance the ______ firepower. These deals focus on the procurement of advanced ammunition for the PINAKA Multiple Launch Rocket System (MLRS) and upgrades to critical software systems.

A

Indian Army’s (IA)

  • The PINAKA system, developed by Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO), has evolved
    significantly since its deployment in the 1999 Kargil War. Capable of firing 12 rockets in quick succession with a range of up to 60 kilometer (km), its guided version ensures precision targeting. Future upgrades aim to extend its range beyond 120 km, countering regional adversaries effectively
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2
Q

Muthuvel Karunanidhi (M.K.) Stalin, Chief Minister (CM) of Tamil Nadu (TN), formally
inaugurated the _____ of Tata Power Solar Systems Limited (TPSSL), a wholly-owned subsidiary of Tata Power Renewable Energy Limited (TPREL). This facility is India’s largest single-location solar manufacturing plant.

A

4.3 Giga Watt (GW) solar cell and module manufacturing facility

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3
Q

the Indian Army’s (IA) Eastern Headquarters, Fort William in Kolkata, West Bengal (WB) was renamed as ______ to eliminate colonial influences. The fort was built by the British in 1781, originally named after King William III of England.

A

‘Vijay Durg’

The new name draws inspiration from an ancient Vijaydurg fort in Maharashtra, that was a key naval base for the Marathas under Chhatrapati Shivaji.
* The fort, covering over 170 acres has 6 gates including Chowringhee, Plassey, Calcutta (now
Kolkata), Water Gate, St. George’s, and Treasury Gate.
* Fort William became the Eastern Army Command’s headquarters in 1963 after the Sino (China) -
India War

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4
Q

Washington D.C. (the United States of America, USA) - based United States Green Building
Council (USGBC) released its latest ‘Annual list of Top 10 countries and Regions for Leadership in Energy and Environment Design (LEED) in 2024’. India has retained its ____ spot globally on the list, with 370 LEED-certified projects, covering 8.50 million Gross Square Meters (GSM) or 91.5 million square feet (sq.
ft.) area

A

3rd

  • India has consistently ranked among the top 3 countries on USGBC’s annual list, reflecting its
    commitment to achieve the United Nations (UN)’s Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) for 2030.
  • Chinese Mainland (or China) topped the list with 1,860 LEED-certified projects, covering over
    25 million GSM, followed by Canada ranked at 2nd position with 300 projects, covering 10 million GSM.
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5
Q

India signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with ____ for the 1st time to implement Quick Impact Projects (QIP) in the country.

A

Panama

  • The MoU aims to provide tangible benefits to Panama’s local communities and improve socio-economic infrastructure
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6
Q

_____, Inspector General (IG) Headquarters, National Security Guard (NSG), has been bestowed with the prestigious “CA in Public Service” Award by the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI) for his outstanding contributions to public service, particularly in law
enforcement and national security

A

Deepak Kumar Kedia

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7
Q

the Ministry of Culture (MoC) announced that the late ______ has been selected for the Sahitya Akademi Award 2024 in the Dogri language for his short story book ‘Ik Hor Ashwthama’(Short Stories)

A

Chaman Arora

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8
Q

_____, an aerospace and defence company has completed the delivery of
its latest disposable Anti-tank 4 (AT4) weapons, enhancing the advanced weaponry capabilities of the Indian Armed Forces

A

Sweden based Saab AB

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9
Q

the _____ crew aboard China’s Tiangong space station (located in Low Earth Orbit, LEO) successfully produced Oxygen (O2) and Rocket Fuel ingredients through Artificial Photosynthesis (AP).

A

Shenzhou-19

  • The Shenzhou-19 crew’s experiment is the first-ever in-orbit application of this method, aligning
    with China’s ambition to achieve a crewed moon landing by 2030
  • Artificial Photosynthesis is a chemical process that mimics natural photosynthesis, to produce
    hydrogen from water by using solar energy.
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10
Q

____ commissioned its 1st drone carrier warship, the ‘Shahid Bagheri’ also known as Shahid Bahman Bagheri or Shahid Bakri, into the Islamic Revolutionary Guard Corps (IRGC) Navy during
a ceremony held in the Persian Gulf.

A

Iran

  • It aims to strengthen Iran’s maritime presence and operational capabilities, enhancing Iran’s defensive and deterrent power.
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11
Q

Karnataka Governor Thaawar Chand Gehlot launched a Braille-enabled version of
the Indian Constitution in Bengaluru (Karnataka) to mark the ____ anniversary of the Constitution

A

75th

  • This initiative, a collaboration between Sankara Eye Hospital, Bengaluru and Confederation of
    Indian Industry (CII) Young Indians (Yi), Bengaluru aimed at empowering individuals who are
    blind or have low vision by enabling them to read and understand their rights and responsibilities
    as citizens.

i. The Braille version of the Constitution will be distributed across key institutions to ensure broader access.
ii. This project strives to create a more inclusive society by making foundational national knowledge accessible to all, regardless of their vision ability.
iii. This launch signifies a monumental shift in providing visually impaired citizens the opportunity to
independently engage with their rights and responsibilities.

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12
Q

the Union Cabinet, chaired by Prime Minister (PM) Narendra Modi, has approved the following:

i. A new Income Tax (IT) Bill 2025 to simplify tax laws, and reduce legal complexities.

ii. Extension of the tenure of ______ for 3 years beyond 31.03.2025 upto 31.03.2028.

iii. Continuation and Restructuring of _____.

iv. Revision of divisional jurisdiction under the proposed South Coast Railway (SCoR) zone at
Visakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh (AP)

A
  • National Commission for Safai Karamcharis (NCSK)

Objectives of the Extension:
* Facilitate the socio economic upliftment of sanitation workers.
* Improve working conditions in the sanitation sector.
* Achieve Zero Fatalities (ZFs) during hazardous cleaning operations

  • Skill India Programme (SIP)
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13
Q

The Union Cabinet has approved a new Income Tax (IT) Bill 2025 to simplify and modernise India’s tax system.

Effective from the Financial Year (FY) 2025-26, the bill aims to simplify tax laws, reduce legal complexities, ease compliance for taxpayers, and cut the law’s length by 50% without introducing new taxes.

  • The bill will replace the Income Tax Act of 1961 and will apply to taxpayers from the Assessment Year (AY) _____.
A

2026-27

Key Features of the Bill:
i. The new Bill will have shorter sentences, reduced provisos, and easier language for better understanding.

ii. It aims to unify multiple tax structures for various taxpayers, including individuals, companies, Hindu Undivided Family (HUF) Association of Persons (AOPs) Body Of Individuals (BOIs), cooperative societies, etc.

iii. The new Bill will converge to a single tax regime to reduce the overall compliance burden and provide tax certainty.

iv. It will streamline provisions to minimise disputes and legal challenges.

v. The Bill may introduce lower penalties for certain offences, making compliance taxpayer friendly.

vi. The removal of obsolete/redundant laws will enhance clarity and precision.

vii. The new Bill may also mention the expectations of anti-abuse provisions and a simplification and rationalisation of withholding tax rules.

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14
Q

The Union Cabinet has approved the continuation and restructuring of the Central Sector Scheme - Skill India Programme (SIP) until 2026, with an outlay of Rs 8,800 crore from _____.

A

2022-23 to 2025-26

  • This initiative aims to develop a skilled, future-ready workforce across India that meets evolving industry needs and global standards through industry-aligned, technology-driven skill training.
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15
Q

Union Minister Nirmala Sitharaman, Ministry of Finance (MoF) presented her 8th Union Budget 2025-26, highlighting a focus on nuclear energy.

Key focus is on developing indigenous
nuclear technology, encouraging private sector participation, and making key investments in nuclear infrastructure.
* India has set an ambitious target of _____ of nuclear power by 2047 as part of its long-term energy strategy.
* This goal, highlighted in the Union Budget 2025-26, aims to strengthen energy security, reduce
dependence on fossil fuels, and support the vision of Viksit Bharat (Developed India)

A

100 Gigawatt (GW)

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16
Q

The Nuclear Energy Mission for Viksit Bharat is a major initiative to promote research and innovation in nuclear power,

i. To support this, the government has allocated ______ to develop five
indigenous Small Modular Reactors (SMRs) by 2033.

ii. The Government of India (GoI) plans to collaborate with the private sector to:
* Establish Bharat Small Reactors (BSRs)
* Support research and development (R&D) of Bharat Small Modular Reactors (BSMRs)
* Advance new technologies in the nuclear energy sector

A

Rs 20,000 crore (USD 2.6 billion)

  • Bharat Small Modular Reactors (SMRs): SMRs are compact nuclear reactors that generate between 30 Megawatt-electric (MWe) and 300+ MWe of power.
  • Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC) based in Mumbai, Maharashtra develops indigenous SMRs to replace coal-based power plants and supporting clean energy goals.
  • Bharat Small Reactors (BSRs): The government is also developing Bharat Small Reactors (BSRs), which are 220 MW Pressurized Heavy Water Reactors (PHWRs) with a proven safety record.
  • Modified for land efficiency, ideal for steel, aluminum, and metal industries.
  • Private sector participation: Companies provide land, water, and capital, while Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited (NPCIL) based in Mumbai manages design and operation.
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17
Q

i. The Government of India plan is to expand nuclear capacity from 8,180 MW in 2024 to _____ by 2031-32 by:
* Constructing 10 new reactors (totaling 8,000 MW) in Gujarat, Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu (TN), Haryana, Karnataka, and Madhya Pradesh (MP).
* Starting pre-project work for 10 more reactors, which will be completed by 2031-32.
* Partnering with the United States of America (USA) to build a 6 x 1208 MW nuclear plant at Kovvada, Srikakulam district of Andhra Pradesh (AP).

ii. Supports India’s target of 500 GW non-fossil fuel energy by 2030, with 50% from renewables.

Iii. DAE (Department of Atomic Energy), under the Prime Minister’s direct charge, plans to develop advanced nuclear reactors, including high temperature gas-cooled reactors for hydrogen production and molten salt reactors.

iv. Amendments to the Atomic Energy Act 1962 and the Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act 2010 will be proposed to enable private sector participation in nuclear power projects

A

22,480 MW

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18
Q

Key Advancements in India’s Nuclear Sector:

  • RAPP-7 Criticality Achieved: Rajasthan Atomic Power Project Unit-7 (RAPP-7) achieved
    criticality (controlled nuclear reaction) on September 19, 2024.
  • Kakrapar PHWRs Operational: Two 700 MWe PHWRs (KAPS-3 & 4) at Kakrapar, Gujarat, began commercial operations in FY 2023-24.
  • India’s first Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (PFBR) – 500 MWe made major progress in 2024,
    including primary sodium filling, purification, and sodium pump commissioning. Core loading started on March 4, 2024.
  • India’s closed fuel cycle strategy, enhancing the efficiency and sustainability of its nuclear power program.
  • India’s Largest Nuclear Plant: _____, Tamil Nadu,
    remains India’s largest nuclear facility, with each unit generating 1,000 MWe.
  • First uranium mine in India: Discovered in Jaduguda Uranium Mines, Jharkhand. It was the first
    uranium mine in India.
  • NPCIL-NTPC Joint Venture (ASHVINI): NPCIL and National Thermal Power Corporation Limited (NTPC) based in New Delhi (Delhi) formed a joint venture (JV) named ASHVINI to develop nuclear power plants under the Atomic Energy Act 1962 (amended in 2015).
A

Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant (KKNPP)

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19
Q

the Directorate of Futuristic Technology Management (DFTM), a part of Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) under the Ministry of Defence (MoD) unveiled the redefined and augmented Research Verticals & Thrust Areas across DRDO Industry Academia – Centres of Excellence (DIA-CoEs) at DRDO headquarters in New Delhi (Delhi).

A
  • The initiative aims to streamline and enhance the focus on future technology needs in Directed Research (DR) across the DIA-CoEs, while introducing cutting-edge deep technologies to improve overall research outcomes.
  • The 65 existing Research Verticals across 15 DIA-CoEs have been restructured into 82 Research Verticals.
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20
Q

About Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO):

Chairman – Dr. Samir Vankatapati Kamat
Headquarters – New Delhi (Delhi)
Formed –

A

1958

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21
Q

Union Minister of State (MoS) (Independent Charge, I/C) Jayant Chaudhary, Ministry of
Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE) and MoS, Ministry of Education(MoE) virtually launched______, a woman entrepreneurship programme in 9 colleges and universities of 3 North East (NE) states: Assam, Meghalaya and Mizoram.

  • The programme aimed to empower female students in select Higher Education Institutions (HEIs) in the NE region by providing them with the necessary entrepreneurial mindset, resources and mentorship.
A

‘Swavalambini’

This for the 1st time MSDE through Guwahati (Assam)-based Indian Institute of Entrepreneurship (IIE), and in coordination with National Institution for Transforming India (NITI) Aayog introduced a structured stage-wise entrepreneurial process from awareness to development, mentorship and funding support.

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22
Q

the Indian Army (IA) participated in a major training exercise named ______, focusing on special airborne operations.

  • The exercise demonstrated high operational readiness and showcased the integration between the IA and the Indian Air Force (IAF).
A

Ex Winged Raider

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23
Q

______, Noida, Uttar Pradesh (UP) under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY), signed a Letter of Intent (LoI) with the Creative Play Lab (CPL) a specialised department of The LEGO Group (Denmark), to support the
growth of the Indian electronic toy industry.

  • The partnership focuses on the project titled “Development of Electronics and Information Technology (IT)-based Control and Automation Solutions for Consumer Electronic Goods (Toy Industry)”.
A

The Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (CDAC)

i. The aim is to nurture young engineers, from under-represented communities such as Scheduled Castes (SC), Scheduled Tribes (ST), and the North Eastern Region (NER), by providing them with hands-on experience in toy innovation.

ii. The program is divided into two phases: 6-month Toy Lab Training at CDAC Noida, UP where participants will learn to design and develop electronic toys and 6-month Industry Internship, offering specialized training to create market-ready toy prototypes

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24
Q

the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) approved the voluntary merger of two Urban Cooperative Banks (UCBs) in India. The merger of Vasco-Da-Gama (Goa)-based Citizen Co-operative Bank Limited (CCB) with Thane (Maharashtra)-based TJSB Sahakari Bank Limited.

  • Also, the merger of Satara (Maharashtra)-based Pune Commercial Co-operative Bank (PCC Bank) with Pune (Maharashtra)-based Pimpri Chinchwad Sahakari (PCS Bank).
  • The RBI sanctioned the Scheme of Amalgamations of above mentioned banks in exercise of the powers conferred under Sub-Section (4) of Section 44A read with Section _____ of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949. The merger of these banks came into force on February 10, 2025.
A

56

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25
Q

the Board of Directors (BoD) of Mumbai (Maharashtra)-based General Insurance Corporation of India (GIC Re) has approved the setting-up of a wholly-owned subsidiary i.e. GIC Re, India Service Company in the ______.

A

United Kingdom (UK)

i. The company will seek final approval from the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of
India (IRDAI) before making the investment.

ii. Also, the company will comply with the directives issued under Foreign Exchange Management (Overseas Investment) Directions, 2022.

Note: (GIC Re) is a 100% Government of India (GoI) -owned Public Sector Undertaking (PSU) company. It has branch offices in London (the UK) and Kuala Lumpur (Malaysia).

  • There is no minimum capital requirement for the company and can be set up with a capital of Great Britain Pound (GBP) 1, equivalent to USD 1.24.
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26
Q

Bengaluru (Karnataka)-based Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) successfully
carried out the ignition trial of the indigenous built ____ cryogenic engine powering the upper stage of Launch Vehicle Mark-3 (LVM3). The engine was developed by Liquid Propulsion Systems Centre (LPSC) of ISRO.

A

‘CE20’

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27
Q

_____, the fiery freedom fighter who led Namibia to independence from apartheid South Africa in 1990 and served as its 1st President for 15 years, passed away at the age of 95 in Windhoek, Namibia. He was born on May 12, 1929 in Ongandjera, Ovamboland, South West Africa (now Omusati Region, Namibia)

A

Samuel Shafiishuna Daniel Nujoma

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28
Q

February 10

A
  1. The United Nations (UN’s) World Pulses Day (WPD) is observed annually on February 10 across the globe to highlight the importance of pulse crops, such as chickpeas, dry beans, and lentils, in the world’s food systems.
    - The theme of WPD 2025 is “Pulses: Bringing diversity to agrifood systems” underscores the
    vital role of pulses in promoting diversity, both above and below the ground. The slogan of WPD 2025 is “Love pulses for a healthy diet and planet”
  2. International Epilepsy Day is observed annually on the 2nd Monday of February across the globe to raise awareness about epilepsy, a neurological disorder, as well as its symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment.
    * The day serves as a platform to educate the public, dispels myths, and tackles stigma, aiming to
    reduce discrimination, social exclusion, and barriers to services for millions living with epilepsy
    worldwide, promoting inclusivity and support.
    * International Epilepsy Day 2025 is observed on February 10, 2025.
    * International Epilepsy Day 2024 was observed on February 12 2024 and in 2026 it will be observed on February 9, 2026
    i. Lavender, the international flower for epilepsy, represents the isolation and loneliness often experienced by those with the condition.
    ii. The color purple is widely recognized as the symbol for epilepsy awareness.
  3. National Deworming Day (NDD) is organized biannually across all states and Union Territories (UTs) of India to combat intestinal worms, also known as Soil-Transmitted Helminths (STH), among all preschool and school-age children, both enrolled and unenrolled, between the ages of 1-19 years. The first round takes place in February, and the second round in August.
    * In 2025, the first round of NDD will be observed on February 10,2025 with a mop-up day (MUD) scheduled on February 17 2025, or as determined by the respective state governments.
    NDD is a flagship program of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoH&FW), launched in 2015.
    * The first-ever NDD was observed on February 10, 2015.
  4. The United Nations (UN’s) International Day of the Arabian Leopard is observed annually on February 10 worldwide to raise awareness for the conservation of the critically endangered Arabian leopard
    (Panthera pardus nimr).
    * 10 February 2025 marks the 2nd observance of International Day of the Arabian Leopard
    * The UN aims to restore the Arabian leopard as a flagship species for conservation and sustainability in its native region, emphasizing the importance of biodiversity for maintaining healthy and resilient ecosystems.
    - The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) has classified the Arabian leopard as Critically Endangered on its Red List
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29
Q

i. The FAO and the Peruvian Ministry of Agricultural Development and Irrigation (MIDAGRI) are worked together to organize World Pulses Day 2025 celebration in Lima, Peru.
* For the first time, the celebration will take place outside the FAO Headquarters.

ii. The celebration includes a high-level ceremony, an exhibition and a gastronomic presentation featuring
tarwi, a native pulse from Peru.

About Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO):
Director-General (DG)– Qu Dongyu
Headquarters– Rome, Italy
Established-

A

1945

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30
Q

The 3rd edition of the India-Egypt joint military exercise _____ commenced at the Maharajan Field Range, Rajasthan, aiming to enhance defence cooperation and improve special forces interoperability in desert conditions. The exercise will run for 14 days from February 10-23, 2025.

A

‘Cyclone 2025’

  • Exercise ‘Cyclone 2025’ also aims to improve cooperation between the two armies and strengthen their relationship by holding discussions and practicing military drills together.

i. Exercise Cyclone is a joint military exercise conducted between India and Egypt since 2023.
ii. This exercise is aligned with Chapter VII of the United Nations (UN) Charter.
iii. The 2nd edition of the exercise was conducted at Anshas, Egypt from 22nd January to 1st February 2024.

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31
Q

Union Minister Pralhad Joshi, Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE)
announced that India has achieved a historic milestone of surpassing _____ installed solar energy capacity. With this, India consolidates its position as a global leader in Renewable Energy (RE).

A

100 Giga Watt (GW)

  • This achievement reflects India’s commitment to a cleaner, greener future and marks a major step toward realizing its ambitious target of 500 GW of non-fossil fuel-based energy capacity by 2030 set by the Prime Minister (PM) Narendra Modi.
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32
Q

Key Progress made in Solar Sector:

i. As per MNRE, India’s solar power sector has witnessed an exponential increase of _____ in capacity over the last 10 years, increasing from 2.82 GW (in 2014) to 100 GW (in 2025).

ii. As of January 31, 2025, total installed solar energy capacity of India stands at 100.33 GW, with 84.10 GW under implementation and an additional 47.49 GW under tendering.
* Also, India’s hybrid and Round-the-Clock (RTC) RE projects are making significant progress, with
64.67 GW under implementation and tendered. Thus, combined total of solar and hybrid projects in India stands at 296.59 GW.

iii. Solar energy emerged as the key contributor to India’s RE growth, representing ____of the total installed RE capacity.
* As per MNRE, 24.5 GW of solar capacity was added in 2024, which is more than two-fold increase in solar
installations compared to 2023.
* The year 2024 also witnessed the installation of 18.5 GW of utility-scale solar capacity, nearly 2.8 times increase compared to 2023.
* Top 5 performing Indian states, contributing
significantly to India’s total utility-scale solar
installations are: ______.

iv. India’s rooftop solar sector saw remarkable growth in 2024, with 4.59 GW of new installed capacity, registering an increase of 53% compared to 2023.

  • This growth is mainly driven by Prime Minister-Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana (PMSGMBY),
    launched in 2024, which is nearing 9 lakh rooftop installations, which enables households across India to adopt clean energy solutions.
A

3450%

47%

Rajasthan, Gujarat, Tamil Nadu (TN), Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh (MP)

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33
Q

Union Minister Nirmala Sitharaman, Minister of Finance (MoF) proposed an amendment to the Customs Tariff Act to assign _____ codes to Geographical Indication (GI) recognized rice varieties during the Union Budget for the financial year 2025-26 (FY26). The HSN code is a numerical classification used in global trade.

A

Harmonized System of Nomenclature (HSN)

  • This amendment introduces specific Harmonized System (HS) codes for the export of rice varieties recognised under the GI registry.
  • This marks the first instance globally of assigning HS codes to GI-tagged rice, aiming to streamline exports and ensure traceability.
  • The newly introduced HS codes are:1006-30-11 for Parboiled rice and 1006-30-91 for White rice.
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34
Q

the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare (MoA&FW) has revised guidelines for the Market Intervention Scheme (MIS). As per the revised norms, the Government of India (GoI) has made MIS, a component of the integrated scheme of ______.

A

Pradhan Mantri Annadata Aay SanraksHan Abhiyan (PMAASHA)

  • The MIS is implemented on the request of states or Union Territories (UTs) government for procurement of various perishable agricultural commodities such as tomato, onion, potato, among others, and there is reduction of minimum 10% in market prices in state/UTs as compared to the rates of the last normal season.

The PM AASHA was launched in 2018 with an aim to Provide price assurance for pulses, oilseeds and copra, ensuring financial stability for farmers. In 2024, the Government of India (GoI) extended the PMAASHA scheme until 2025-26, with an allocation of Rs.35,000 crore.

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35
Q

About Market Intervention Scheme (MIS):

i. It is an ad-hoc scheme which includes horticultural
commodities and other agricultural commodities, which are perishable in nature and are covered by the Minimum Support
Price (MSP) scheme.

ii. The scheme aims to protect the growers of these horticultural/ agricultural commodities from making distress
sales in the event of increased production of crops during the
peak harvest period.
* The scheme is being implemented by the
Department of Agriculture & Cooperation (DoA&C),
MoA&FW.

iii. Under MIS, losses suffered are shared between the Central
Government and the concerned State government in the ratio
of _____.
* For North-East (NE) states, losses suffered are shared between the Central Government and the concerned State government in the ratio of 75:25, respectively.

A

50:50

Key Changes:
i. It has been mandated that MIS will be implemented only when there is minimum reduction of 10% in the
existing market price as compared to the last normal year.

ii. As per the revised guidelines, procurement limit of crops under MIS has been increased from the existing 20% to 25%.

iii. Now, state governments have been given the option to directly pay the difference between the Market Intervention Price (MIP) and the Selling Price (SP) into the bank accounts of the farmers instead of physical procurement.

iv. Central Nodal Agencies (CNAs) like: National Agricultural Co-operative Marketing Federation of India Limited (NAFED) and National Cooperative Consumers’ Federation of India Limited (NCCF), will reimburse the operational cost incurred in storage and transportation of crops from the producing state to other consuming states, where there is a difference in the price of TOP crops (Tomato, Onion and Potato) between the producing and consuming states.

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36
Q

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) met from February 5 to 7, 2025 and released the 6th bi-monthly monetary policy for the financial year 2024-25 (FY 2025). This was the first meeting chaired by Sanjay Malhotra after assuming charge as RBI Governor on December 11, 2024. This session marked the 53rd meeting of the MPC and was the last one for FY 25.
- The six-member committee revised the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) growth projection for FY 2025-26 (FY 26) to ____, up from the earlier estimate of 6.6% for FY 25.
* The meeting was attended by MPC members Nagesh Kumar, Saugata Bhattacharya, Prof. Ram Singh, Rajiv Ranjan, and M. Rajeshwar Rao.

A

6.7%

Key Highlights:
i. The committee unanimously decided to:
Reduce the policy repo rate under the Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) by 25 basis points to 6.25%, from 6.5 % effective immediately.

ii. Consequently, the Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) rate was adjusted to 6.00%, while the Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) rate and the Bank Rate were set at 6.50%.

iii. RBI projected real GDP growth for FY 26 for Quarter 1 (Q1 April-June 2025) expected at 6.7%, Q2 (July-September 2025) at 7.0% and Q3 and Q4 at 6.5% each.

iv. RBI decided to maintain a neutral monetary policy stance and remain focused on ensuring inflation aligns with the target while fostering economic growth.

v. The next MPC meeting is scheduled to take place from April 7 to 9, 2025.

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37
Q

The RBI has projected retail inflation at ____ for the financial year 2025-26, while maintaining its forecast for 2024-25 at 4.8%.

i. Target for Consumer Price Index (CPI) inflation is 4% within a band of +/- 2%. CPI inflation for FY 25 remains at 4.8%, with the fourth quarter (Q4) estimated at 4.4%.

ii. For the FY26, assuming a normal monsoon, the RBI expects inflation to be 4.2%, with quarterly estimates as follows: Q1: 4.5%, Q2 : 4.0%, Q3 : 3.8%,Q4 : 4.2%.

iii. Retail inflation, measured by CPI, fell to 5.22% in December 2024, marking a four-month low due to a decline in food prices, particularly vegetables. In November, inflation stood at 5.48%.

A

4.2%

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38
Q

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has announced the launch of exclusive internet domains, ‘bank.in’ and ‘fin.in’, to strengthen cybersecurity in the financial sector.

  • This move aims to counter rising cyber threats, particularly phishing attacks and fraudulent activities in digital transactions.
  • The Institute for Development and Research in Banking Technology (IDRBT) based in Hyderabad, Telangana will serve as the official registrar for these domains.
A

i. The ‘bank.in’ domain will be exclusively assigned to Indian banks, offering them a secure and easily
identifiable online presence. The registration process for ‘bank.in’ is expected to begin in April 2025.

ii. The fin.in’ will be introduced as a dedicated domain for non-banking financial entities. This initiative aims to further enhance security and a more reliable digital ecosystem.

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39
Q

The RBI has announced plans to implement Additional Factor of Authentication (AFA) for cross-border _____ transactions.

A

Card Not Present (CNP)

i. Unlike domestic transactions, where AFA is already mandatory, international online payments have so far
lacked this additional security check. This has left Indian consumers vulnerable when making purchases from overseas merchants.

ii. To bridge this gap, RBI has proposed extending AFA to international CNP transactions, ensuring the same level of security as domestic payments.

iii. This step aims to bring international online payments made with Indian-issued cards under the same security framework as domestic transactions by introducing an extra layer of authentication, such as a One Time Password (OTP) or biometric verification, to reduce the risk of fraud

40
Q

The RBI has announced that non-bank brokers registered with the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) headquartered in Mumbai, Maharashtra can now directly access the _____.

  • This will enable them to execute secondary market transactions in government securities on
    behalf of their clients.
A

Negotiated Dealing System – Order Matching (NDS-OM) platform

i. The RBI has established a nine-member working group to conduct a comprehensive review of trading and settlement timings for financial markets under its regulation.

ii. The panel is led by RBI Executive Director (ED) Radha Shyam Ratho and is expected to submit its
findings by April 30, 2025.

Note: Currently, NDS-OM access is limited to regulated entities, banks, and standalone primary dealers.

SEBI-registered brokers can participate in the platform, subject to guidelines set by the central bank

41
Q

RBI has announced plans to allow trading in_____, a financial instrument expected to strengthen an existing USD 12 billion.

A

bond forwards

i. Bond forwards will enable long-term investors, such as insurance companies and pension funds, to hedge
interest rate risks over different interest rate cycles.

ii. These contracts allow investors to agree on purchasing government bonds at a predetermined future date and price, offering a structured way to manage market volatility.

iii. From March 2024 to January 2025, the notional value of bond forward rate agreements (FRA)
transactions cleared through the official clearing house stood at Rs 1.1 trillion (USD 12.2 billion).

42
Q

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has decided to postpone the implementation of the proposed Liquidity
Coverage Ratio (LCR) norms and project financing guidelines by a year
, with the new deadline set for no
earlier than ______.

A

March 31, 2026

i. This decision was made to provide sufficient time for adaptation, as the earlier timeline of April 2025 was considered too short for a smooth transition.

ii. The move aims to prevent disruptions in the financial system and ensure a stable adjustment to regulatory
changes.

iii. As part of the LCR framework, banks were instructed to allocate an additional 5% as a run-off
factor for retail deposits linked to internet and mobile banking (IMB). Stable retail deposits with IMB would carry a 10% run-off factor, while less stable IMB-enabled deposits would have a 15% run-off factor.

iv. LCR requires banks to maintain sufficient high-quality liquid assets (HQLAs), primarily government securities, to manage liquidity.

43
Q

The RBI has decided to postpone the implementation of new guidelines requiring banks to allocate additional funds for digitally-linked deposits. Initially planned for an earlier rollout, these norms will now take effect no sooner than ______

A

March 2026

44
Q

Infibeam Avenues Limited, a leading Indian fintech company headquartered in Gandhinagar(Gujarat), has announced that its subsidiary, Rediff.com India Ltd., has obtained a Third-Party Application Provider (TPAP) license from the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) for its digital
payment platform, RediffPay.

A
  • This approval enables RediffPay to offer Unified Payments Interface (UPI) services, positioning Infibeam as a new entrant in India’s consumer-facing digital payments sector.

i. Axis Bank as Payment System Provider (PSP) : Axis Bank Limited will serve as the PSP bank for
RediffPay, facilitating UPI-based transactions. This partnership aims to ensure secure, real-time inter-bank payments, leveraging Axis Bank’s infrastructure and Infibeam’s fintech expertise
ii. Strategic Acquisition of Rediff.com: The license follows Infibeam’s acquisition of a 54% stake in Rediff.com in August 2024 for Rs.500 million (USD 5.7 million).

45
Q

About National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI):

The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) is the umbrella organization for operating retail payments and settlement systems in India.

Regulated by: Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and ______

Ownership: NPCI is a non-profit organization owned by a consortium of major Indian banks, including
public sector, private sector, and foreign banks.

Managing Director(MD) &
Chief Executive Officer (CEO)- Dilip Asbe Headquarters – Mumbai, Maharashtra
Founded – ____

A

Indian Banks’ Association (IBA)

2008

46
Q

the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has imposed monetary penalties totaling Rs.35.60 lakh on ____ and ____for non-compliance with specific regulatory directions.

A

Federal Bank Limited and Karur Vysya Bank Limited

47
Q

the Space and Upper Atmosphere Research Commission (SUPARCO) of Pakistan and the China National Space Administration (CNSA), China signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) to
include Pakistan’s first lunar rover in China’s _____ mission, scheduled for 2028.

A

Chang’e-8

  • The Chang’e-8 mission aims to explore the Moon’s south pole, a region of scientific interest due to
    its potential resources and unique environment.
  • This mission is a precursor to the International Lunar Research Station (ILRS) project, which China plans to establish in the 2030s
48
Q

India concluded its participation in the ‘2025 Para Archery Asia Cup’ in Bangkok, Thailand with an
outstanding performance of securing ___Gold Medals and topping the medal tally.

A

6

  • India’s Para-Archers bagged a total of 12 medals in the competition: 6 Gold, 3 Silver and 3 Bronze
  • India’s Para Archery contingent, consisting of 27 members, participated in the Asia Para Cup –
    World Ranking Archery Tournament 2025 features 11 events which was held from February 2-11, 2025.
49
Q

February 11

A
  1. The United Nations (UN’s) International Day of Women and Girls in Science (IDWGIS) is observed annually on February 11 across the globe to highlight the importance of promoting equal access and participation for women and girls in Science, Technology, Engineering, and Mathematics (STEM). The day also emphasizes gender equality and the empowerment of women and girls within the scientific community.
    * February 11 2025 marks the 10th anniversary of the IDWGIS and the 30th anniversary of the Beijing Declaration and Platform for Action
  2. World Unani Day is observed annually on February 11 across the globe to commemorate the birth anniversary of Mohammad Ajmal Khan, also known as Hakim Ajmal Khan, a prominent social reformer and renowned Unani scholar. He is widely recognized as the pioneer of Unani medicine in India.
    * This day serves to promote the Unani system of medicine, highlighting its unique principles and strengths.
    * The theme for World Unani Day 2025 is “Innovations in Unani Medicine for Integrative
    Health Solutions-A Way Forward”
    .
  3. Safer Internet Day (SID) is celebrated globally on the second Tuesday of February to raise awareness and promote safe and responsible use of the internet, especially for children and young people. The day also aims to raise awareness about emerging online issues and current concerns.
    * SID 2025 is observed on 11th February 2025, marks the 22nd edition of SID
    * In 2024, SID was observed on 6th February 2024 and in 2026, SID will be observed on 10th February 2026.
    SID 2025 Theme:
    * The theme of SID 2025 is “Too good to be true? Protecting yourself and others from scams online.”
    - The 2025 edition of SID introduces a new mascot, ‘Ally’ which was created in collaboration with young people to make the campaign more relatable and engaging for them.
50
Q

______topped the Digital Well-Being Index (DWBI), for the third consecutive year, released by the United States of America (USA) based Snap Inc., ahead of SID 2025

A

India

  • India emerged as the leader in digital well-being, securing the highest score of 67.
  • India ranks first in online satisfaction, with 58% of respondents expressing contentment with
    their digital experiences, surpassing the USA (53%) and the United Kingdom(UK) (42%).
51
Q

Union Minister Mansukh Mandaviya, Ministry of Youth Affairs & Sports, (MoYA&S) inaugurated the first-ever ______ in Gandhinagar, Gujarat.

A

Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC) Youth Summit

  • The three-day event, held from February 7 to 11, 2025, brings together young leaders from
    across the region to discuss key challenges and opportunities.
  • The summit is jointly organized by the Ministry of Youth Affairs & Sports and the Ministry of
    External Affairs (MEA), with New Delhi (Delhi) based-Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) Young Indians (YI) as the knowledge partner.
  • The theme of summit ‘Youth as a Bridge for Intra-BIMSTEC Exchange’, highlighting the critical role of youth in achieving the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) 2030.
52
Q

Union Minister Manohar Lal Khattar, Ministry of Power (MoP) and Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA); and Ed Miliband, Secretary for the Department of Energy Security and Net Zero (DESNZ) for the United Kingdom (UK), co-chaired the ______.

A

4th India-UK Energy Dialogue in New Delhi (Delhi)

  • During this dialogue, both nations reviewed the progress made in the energy sectors, including
    power and renewable energy (RE), and also reaffirmed their commitment to a sustainable, resilient, and inclusive energy future
53
Q

Union Minister of State(MoS)(Independent Charge, IC) Dr. Jitendra Singh, Ministry of
Science and Technology (MoS&T) and the Ministry of Earth Science (MoES) launched India’s first Indigenous Automated Bio-Medical Waste Treatment Plant(BMWTP) named _____ at All India Institute of Medical
Sciences, New Delhi(AIIMS New Delhi) in Delhi.

A

“Srjanam”

It was developed by Thiruvananthapuram (Kerala) based Council of Scientific & Industrial Research (CSIR) -National Institute for Interdisciplinary Science and Technology (NIIST). It
marks a major step forward in the sustainable handling of biomedical waste.
* It replaces costly and energy-intensive incinerators, besides imparting a pleasant fragrance to these foul-smelling toxic waste.

54
Q

New Delhi (Delhi) based ______ and Muscat (Sultanate of Oman) based National Records and Archives Authority (NRAA) of Oman signed an Executive Programme of Cooperation (EPC) for the period 2025-2028 at the NAI in New Delhi (Delhi).

A

National Archives of India (NAI)

  • The EPC aims to strengthen cultural and historical ties by facilitating the exchange of archival materials, expertise, and technology between two nations.
  • This joint initiative marks a significant milestone in the bilateral relations between India and Oman, paving the way for a robust and enduring cultural exchange that will benefit scholars, researchers, and the general public in both countries
55
Q

The Ministry of Labour & Employment (MoL&E) signed a Memorandum of
Understanding (MoU) with _____, a leading job portal, on June 26, 2024. The collaboration aims to leverage the National Career Service (NCS) Portal to connect job seekers with domestic and international opportunities.

A

FoundIt (formerly Monster)

  • Union Minister of Labour & Employment and Youth Affairs & Sports, Dr. Mansukh Mandaviya emphasized the platform’s role under the government’s ‘Sabka Saath, Sabka Vikas’ vision.
  • NCS Portal, launched in 2015, which has over 3.5 crore registered job seekers and 30 lakh
    employers
56
Q

_______ under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry (MoC&I), Government of India (GoI) has entered into a Memorandum of
Understanding (MoU) with the Korea Transport Institute (KoTI) from the Republic of Korea. The MoU was signed at the Sejong National Research Complex in South Korea by Mr. Youngchan Kim, President of KoTI, and H.E. Amit Kumar, India’s Ambassador to the Republic of Korea.

A

The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT)

  • This collaboration aims to bolster cooperation in logistics and infrastructure development, leveraging KoTI’s expertise to support India’s ambitious infrastructure initiatives.
  • This will help in the development of infrastructure and logistics master plans under the aegis of the prestigious program – PM Gati-Shakti National Master Plan
57
Q

Thiruvananthapuram (Kerala)-based Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) Inertial Systems Unit (IISU) in partnership with Chennai (Tamil Nadu, TN) based Indian Institute of Technology Madras (IIT-M), indigenously designed & developed a semiconductor chip named ______.

A

“Indigenous (Reduced Instruction Set Computer) RISC–V Controller for Space Applications (IRIS)”

  • IRIS has been built on the
    SHAKTI processor baseline
    It is the 3rd SHAKTI-based microprocessor chip, successfully fabricated in India after RIMO (2018) and MOUSHIK (2020).
  • This marks a significant milestone toward self-reliance in space and semiconductor technology,
    reaffirming India’s efforts under the ‘Make in India’ initiative and ‘Atmanirbhar’ initiatives
58
Q

______, Switzerland’s professional tennis player, claimed the singles title of the 4th edition of “Mumbai Open 2025 WTA (Women Tennis Association) 125 Event”, held from February 3 to February 9, 2025 in Mumbai, Maharashtra.

A

Jil Belén Teichmann

  • Singles Title: Jil Belén Teichmann won the singles title by defeating Mananchaya Sawangkaew of Thailand with a straight-set victory of 6-3, 6-4.
  • Doubles Title: Elena Ivanovna Pridankina and Amina Vladikovna Anshba of Russia won the
    Doubles title by defeating Prarthana Thombare of India and her Dutch partner Arianne Hartono
    with a score of 6-7(4), 6-2, 10-7.
59
Q

Vice President Jagdeep Dhankhar unveiled the book ____ , compiled by Gopichand P. Hinduja, Chairman of the Hinduja Group. The launch event took place at the Vice-President’s Enclave in
New Delhi,Delhi.

A

“I Am?”

  • The book was published by the Hinduja Foundation.
  • The book delves into themes of unity, spirituality, and interfaith dialogue, emphasizing the
    importance of harmony in diversity
  • It includes contributions from scholars like Zeenat Shaukat Ali, a former professor at St. Xavier’s College, Mumbai, who contributed to the concluding chapter that focuses on common grounds among religions
60
Q

Lieutenant General Upendra Dwivedi, Chief of Army Staff (COAS) launched the memoir titled _____ authored by Geetika Lidder, wife of late Brigadier Lakhwinder Singh Lidder at the Manekshaw Centre in New Delhi(Delhi). The book was published by Roli Books.

A

“I Am a Soldier’s Wife: The Life and Love of Toni Lidder “

  • The book honors Brigadier Lakhwinder Singh’s life as a soldier, husband, father, and leader and acknowledges the 4 C’s of leadership: Character, Competence, Conduct, and Commitment
61
Q

February 12

A
  1. The United Nations (UN’s) International Day for the Prevention of Violent Extremism (PVE) as and When Conducive to Terrorism is observed annually on 12 February across the globe to raise awareness about the
    threats associated with violent extremism that can lead to terrorism and to enhance international
    cooperation in addressing these challenges.
    * 12 February 2025 marks the observance of the 3rd International Day of PVE.
  2. International Darwin Day is observed annually on 12 February across the globe to commemorate the birth anniversary of Charles Robert Darwin, the 19th-century British Naturalist and Geologist renowned for formulating the “Theory of Evolution by Natural Selection”. The day serves to inspire continued
    advancements in scientific research and understanding.
    * It highlights the importance of evolutionary biology and encourages the pursuit of knowledge
    through scientific inquiry
  3. National Productivity Day, also known as National Productivity Council (NPC) Foundation Day, is observed annually on February 12 in India to promote a culture of productivity, efficiency, and innovation.
    * The day also commemorates the foundation day of the National Productivity Council (NPC) of India.
62
Q

February 12 - 18

A

National Productivity Day is celebrated as part of National Productivity Week which is observed annually
from February 12 to 18 and is organized by NPC of India along with the New Delhi (Delhi) based Delhi
Productivity Council (DPC).

The theme for National Productivity Week 2025: “From Ideas to Impact: Protecting Intellectual
Property for Competitive Startups”

  • It highlights the significance of nurturing a culture of innovation while providing startups with the essential tools, strategies, and resources needed for success
63
Q

The Odisha Cabinet, headed by Chief Minister (CM) Mohan Charan Majhi, has approved the launch of the _____, a housing scheme aimed at providing pucca houses to eligible vulnerable families. An outlay of Rs. 7,550 crores have been allocated for the implementation of the scheme.

A

Antyodaya Gruha Yojana

  • Each beneficiary under this scheme will receive financial assistance of Rs 1.2 lakhs to build a 25-square-meter (sq m) pucca house (excluding the toilet area).
  • Under the scheme, the Odisha government aims to build at least 2,25,000 houses over the next 3
    years.
64
Q

The Maharashtra government has introduced the MAITRI (Maharashtra Industry, Trade, and Investment
Facilitation Cell) 2.0 Portal, an advanced digital platform designed to simplify the investment process. The portal ensures a seamless experience for investors and businesses.

A
  • Chief Minister Devendra Fadnavis officially launched the portal, making it fully operational. Its launch follows Maharashtra’s signing of MoUs worth ₹15.70 lakh crore at the 2025 World Economic Forum’s annual summit in Davos, Switzerland.
  • MAITRI is Maharashtra’s dedicated agency for driving economic growth, fostering innovation,
    and simplifying the investment process in the state. Established by the Government of Maharashtra, it plays a key role in making Maharashtra a preferred destination for investors.
65
Q

National Institution for Transforming India (NITI Aayog) released a policy report titled ‘Expanding Quality Higher Education through States and State Public Universities’, a first-of-its kind policy document in the higher education sector focused specifically on states and State Public Universities (SPUs).
* The report provides detailed quantitative examination on important indicators of Quality,
Funding & Financing, Governance and Employability over the last 10 years across the themes.
* The report is in alignment with targets of the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 and part of Government of India (GoI)’s ‘Viksit Bharat 2047’

A

i. Top Performing States in Gross Enrolment (GER) in Higher Education Institutions (HEIs) in 2021-
22: Tamil Nadu (TN), Himachal Pradesh (HP), Uttarakhand, and Kerala. These states are grouped under the “achievers” category.
* Kerala, Chhattisgarh and HP have higher female enrolment rates than males, serving as models of success for greater access to higher education for women.

ii. Worst Performing States in GER in HEIs in 2021-22: Sikkim, Andhra Pradesh (AP), and Karnataka.
These states are grouped under the ‘front-runners’ category.

iii. Pupil-Teacher Ratio(PTR): The report revealed that PTR was lowest in universities of states like: TN, Goa, and Karnataka.
* While, PTR was highest in universities of states: Jharkhand and Bihar.
* Top 3 Performing States in terms of decadal improvement in PTR (2011-12 compared to 2021-
22): Arunachal Pradesh (AR), Uttarakhand, and West Bengal (WB).

66
Q

the Prime Minister Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana (PMSGMBY), the world’s largest domestic rooftop solar initiative marked its ____ anniversary, celebrating the year of empowering households with affordable solar energy and boosting India’s transition to a sustainable future.

A

1st

The scheme was launched by Prime Minister (PM) Narendra Modi on February 13, 2024. It is
being implemented by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE)

67
Q

the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry (MoC&I) issued the ‘Stainless Steel Pipes and Tubes (Quality Control) Order, 2025’ mandating quality standards for stainless steel seamless pipes and tubes, effective
from _____.

A

August 1, 2025

  • The order aims to prevent the import of sub-standard goods, promote domestic manufacturing, curb unfair trade practices, and ensure the safety of consumers.
68
Q

Berlin (Germany)-based International Non-Governmental Organization (NGO), Transparency International (TI) released its ‘2024 Corruption Perceptions Index (CPI 2024)’ which evaluated the perceived levels of public sector corruption across ____ countries.

A

180

  • According to the 2024 CPI Report, India ranks 96th out of 180 countries with a score of 38, marking a decline from its 2023 position, where India ranked 93rd with a score of 39.
  • Denmark tops the 2024 CPI, for the 7th consecutive time with a score of 90, followed by
    Finland (88) and Singapore (84).
  • India’s score and rank was shared by Gambia and Maldives.
  • The CPI, published annually assesses the perceived levels of public sector corruption in 180 countries, using a scale from 0 (highly corrupt) to 100 (very clean), with no country achieving a perfect score.
  • The first report was released in 1995 and since then every year the report has been released by
    Transparency International.
69
Q

Corruption Perceptions Index 2024(CPI 2024):
Top 5 Countries:

Rank Country
- 1 ______
- 2 Finland
- 3 Singapore
- 4 New Zealand
- 5 Luxembourg, Norway, Switzerland
- 96 India, Gambia, Maldives

A

Denmark

Bottom 3 Countries:

Rank Country
180 South Sudan
179 Somalia
178 Venezuela

70
Q

the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) launched a new digital platform, ‘Mutual Fund Investment Tracing and Retrieval Assistant (MITRA)’. The new platform is designed to help investors in tracking and reclaiming inactive or unclaimed Mutual Fund (MF) folios.

A
  • This platform was introduced through a circular issued by the SEBI in exercise of the powers
    given under Section 11(1) of the SEBI Act 1992, read with provision of Regulation 77 of SEBI
    (Mutual Funds) Regulation, 1996, to protect the interest of the investors in securities and to promote the development of, and to regulate the securities market.
  • The platform will get operationalised within 15 working days of the circular’s issuance, with a
    beta version available for 2 months.
  • As per SEBI circular, the platform will assist with the investments that may have been forgotten,
    lost or left unclaimed due to outdated Know Your Customer (KYC) details or the demise of original investor.
71
Q

About MITRA: _____(full form)

i. The platform will be jointly hosted by two Qualified Registrar and Transfer Agents (QRTAs) i.e. Chennai (Tamil Nadu, TN)-based Computer Age Management Services Limited (CAMS) and Hyderabad (Telangana)-based KFin Technologies Limited. Both these QRTAs will act as agents of Asset Management Companies (AMCs).

  • QRTAs have been entrusted with the responsibility of conducting system audits, cyber security audits, and compliance with SEBI’s Business Continuity Plan (BCP) and Disaster Recovery (DR) guidelines.

ii. Investors can access the platform through the websites of MF central, AMCs, the Association of Mutual Funds in India (AMFI), the two QRTAs, and SEBI.

iii. MITRA platform will comply with the cyber resilience framework of SEBI as set in the regulator’s Master Circular on MFs dated on June 27, 2024

A

Mutual Fund Investment Tracing and Retrieval Assistant

Key Benefits:

MITRA platform aims to empower investors by: helping them to identify overlooked investments made by another person where the investor may be the legal claimant;

  • Updating their KYC as per the latest norms/regulations;
  • Reducing the number of unclaimed MF folios;
  • Reducing fraud risks related to unclaimed or inactive MF folios.

Note: SEBI has revised the responsibilities of the Unit Holder Protection Committee (UHPC) under its Master Circular on MFs. SEBI has now empowered the UHPC to review inactive MF folios alongside unclaimed dividends and redemptions

72
Q

SEBI has mandated SEBI-registered brokers to setup a separate business unit (SBU) to trade in Government Securities (G-secs) through the Negotiated Dealing System Order Matching (NDS-OM).

A
  • This announcement came following Reserve Bank of India (RBI)’s notification on February 7, 2025, allowed the SEBI-registered non-brokers to access the NDS-OM platform to facilitate retail participation.
  • SEBI has directed such SBU will be exclusively engaged in activities of transacting on NDS-OM
    platform only.

Note: NDS-OM is an electronic order-matching platform, which is primarily used for secondary market
trading in G-secs

73
Q

the SEBI notified a new asset class between Portfolio Management Services (PMS) and Mutual Funds (MFs) and referred it as _______.

A

“Specialised Investment Fund (SIF)”

  • As per the SEBI directions, the new asset class will accept investments of Rs 10 lakh or above across all investment strategies. However, accredited investors are exempted from the requirement of minimum investment amount.
  • The notification came following the amendment made to the SEBI (Mutual Funds) Regulations,
    1996
74
Q

______ and Paris (France) based French Development Agency (Agence Française de Développement, AFD) signed a USD 100 million Credit Facility Agreement (CFA) to enhance green finance solutions for India’s Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs).

  • This collaboration aims to support sustainable growth and facilitate the transition towards a low-carbon economy by providing affordable financing.
A

Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh (UP) based Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI)

75
Q

Small Finance Banks (SFBs) received the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) approval ) to provide pre-sanctioned credit lines through the Unified Payments Interface (UPI). This move, effective from _____, aligns with the RBI’s December 2024 announcement during the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) meeting.

A

February 12, 2025

  • UPI, India’s real-time payment system developed by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), previously allowed transactions via savings accounts, overdrafts, prepaid wallets, and credit cards.
  • The RBI has now expanded this to include pre-sanctioned credit lines issued by SFBs, enabling instant access to credit for individuals and small businesses.
  • The Unified Payments Interface (UPI) is a digital payment tool that can help achieve the goals of
    the Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) and promote equitable economic growth.
76
Q

In September 2023, RBI expanded the scope of UPI by enabling pre-sanctioned credit lines to be linked through _____. However, this feature was limited to commercial banks, excluding Payments Banks, Small
Finance Banks (SFBs), and Regional Rural Banks(RRBs).

77
Q

Transparent Credit Access

i. Customers must provide explicit consent before availing credit lines, ensuring transparency. Terms such as credit limits, interest rates, and repayment tenure are determined by individual SFBs under their board approved policies.

ii. The facility aims to serve_____ customers, including farmers, small entrepreneurs, and
rural businesses, reducing reliance on informal lenders charging exorbitant rates.

iii. It is required for customers to review the terms and conditions of the credit lines before opting-in

A

‘new-to-credit’ (NTC)

78
Q

According to New York, United States of America (USA) based Bloomberg Limited Partnership (LP’s) ‘Asia’s Richest Families 2025’ Index, the _____ family of Reliance Industries Limited (RIL) (India) has secured the top position as Asia’s richest family, with a net worth of USD 90.5 billion.

A

Ambani

  • The Chearavanont family (Thailand) ranks 2nd with a net worth of USD 42.6 billion, followed
    by the Hartono family (Indonesia) in 3rd place with a net worth of USD 42.2 billion.
  • Among the prominent 6 Indian families featured in the top 20 rankings list, the Mistry family holds the 4th position, followed by the Jindal family in 7th place, the Birla family ranks 9th, the Bajaj family secures the 13th spot and Hinduja family ranks 18th position.
  • 1 Ambani India Reliance Industries Limited
    (RIL) 90.5
  • 2 Chearavanont Thailand Charoen Pokphand Group (CP Group) 42.6
  • 3 Hartono Indonesia PT Djarum, Bank Central Asia
    (BCA) 42.2
  • 4 Mistry India Shapoorji Pallonji Group 37.5
  • 5 Kwok Hong Kong
    Sun Hung Kai Properties Limited ( SHKP) 35.6
79
Q

______, 52, was elected as Vanuatu’s Prime Minister (PM), receiving 50 votes in
Parliament. He becomes the country’s fifth PM in four years.

A

Jotham Napat

80
Q

February 13

A
  1. The United Nations (UN’s) World Radio Day (WRD) is observed annually on February 13 across the globe to honor radio’s enduring influence as a powerful and accessible medium for communication, education, and entertainment.
    * 13 February 2025 marks the observance of the 14th WRD.
    * The theme for WRD 2025 is “Radio and Climate Change”, highlighting radio’s vital role in
    disseminating information about climate change, amplifying environmental advocacy, and promoting sustainable practices
  2. National Women’s Day is annually observed on 13th February across India to honor the birth anniversary of Sarojini Chattopadhyay Naidu also known as Sarojini Naidu and popularly named as the “Nightingale of
    India” or “Bharat Kokila”.
    * 13 February 2025 marks the 146th birth anniversary of Sarojini Naidu.
81
Q

Union Minister Rajnath Singh, the Ministry of Defence (MoD), inaugurated the _____
edition of Aero India, Asia’s largest aerospace and defence exhibition, at Yelahanka Air Force Station in Bengaluru, Karnataka.

  • The five-day event took place from February 10 to 14, 2025, with the theme “The Runway to a Billion Opportunities.”
  • The event showcased India’s aerial capabilities and defence innovations, bringing together global
    leaders, experts, and stakeholders.

About Aero India:
i. Aero India is a ____ air show and aviation exhibition, organised by the Defence Exhibition Organisation (DEO), Department of Defence Production (DDP), Ministry of Defence (MoD).

ii. The 14th edition of Aero India was held from February 13-17, 2023 in Bengaluru

A

15th;

biennial

82
Q

India and the _____ have taken a significant step in strengthening their defence collaboration with the launch of Defence Partnership – India (DP-I) and multiple agreements signed at Aero India 2025 in Bengaluru.

A

United Kingdom (UK)

  • UK Defence Minister Lord Vernon Coaker inaugurated the UK-India Defence Partnership Pavilion, establishing a programme office within the UK’s Ministry of Defence to facilitate bilateral defence cooperation.
83
Q

_____, a Public Sector Undertaking (PSU) headquartered in Bengaluru, Karnataka, has partnered with Safran Electronics & Defense, a aerospace company, based in France to establish a joint venture (JV) for manufacturing and maintaining Highly Agile Modular Munition Extended Range (HAMMER) weapons in India.

A

Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL)

  • The Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) was signed by K.V. Suresh Kumar, Director (Marketing) of BEL, and Alexandre Ziegler, Executive Vice President of Safran Electronics &
    Defence at Aero India 2025.

i. These precision-guided air-to-ground weapons are used on the Rafale fighter jets of the IAF.
ii. Additionally, BEL and Safran plan to set up a Centre of Excellence (CoE) focused on strengthening India’s defence technology and manufacturing capabilities.

84
Q

The 12th edition of the World Governments Summit (WGS) was held from 11-13 February 2025 in ______ under the theme ‘Shaping Future Governments‘, The 2025 Summit aims to inspire and empower the next generation of governments, brought together governments, international organizations, thought leaders and private sector leaders worldwide to foster international cooperation.

A

Dubai, the United Arab Emirates (UAE)

  • The Summit was led by Mohammad bin Abdullah Al Gergawi, Minister of Cabinet Affairs, Government of UAE, and Chairman of the World Governments Summit Organisation

The 2025 Summit addressed 6 thematic conversations namely:
1. Effective Governance and Accountability;
2. Financing the Future and the Global Economy;
3. Climate, Crisis Mitigation, and Resilient Cities;
4. Human-centric Futures and Capacity Building;
5. Global Health Transformations; and
6. Emerging Frontiers and the Future

85
Q

India and _____ inked a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) to enhance the quality assurance, standardization, and global promotion of traditional medicine systems.

  • This strategic partnership focuses on fostering collaboration in traditional medicine quality assurance, with both parties committing to various forms of cooperation
86
Q

In February 2025, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) approved Pune (Maharashtra) based Easebuzz Private
Limited, a digital payment solution provider to operate as an Online ____ for secure digital payment solutions.

A

Payment Aggregator (PA)

  • It enables Easebuzz to remain an authorized payments platform, enabling it to process online payments for Indian businesses across various sectors, including e-commerce, travel, tourism, education, and real estate.
  • With this, Easebuzz joins companies like Razorpay, MSwipe, Google Pay (GPay), Cashfree, Zomato,
    CC Avenue, and Innoviti Payments, all of which have secured PA licenses from RBI.
87
Q

According to Paris (France)-based International Energy Agency (IEA)’s report titled “India Gas Market
Report: Outlook to 2030”
, India’s natural gas consumption is expected to increase by nearly 60% to 103 billion cubic meters (bcm) annually by ____. This growth will be mainly driven by robust growth in city gas distribution, industrial demand and power generation.

  • While, Liquefied Natural Gas (LNG) imports are projected to more than double between 2023 and
    2030, to 65 bcm annually, driven by steady demand growth and a much slower increase in domestic production.
A

2030

The key findings of the report were released during the India Energy Week (IEW) celebration
held in New Delhi, Delhi.

Note: India aims to increase the share of gas in its energy mix from a slightly over 6% to 15% by 2030.

88
Q

According to the data released by the National Statistics Office (NSO), Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI), India’s Retail Inflation, based on the Consumer Price Index (CPI), dropped to ____ in January 2025, marking a 5-month low. This decline marks a significant reduction from 5.22% in December 2024 and 5.1% in January 2024

  • The decrease in food prices played a major role in lowering inflation. Food inflation stood at ____ in January 2025, down from 8.39% in December 2024.
  • The rural inflation in January 2025 was slightly higher at 4.64% while it was 3.87% in urban
    areas
    .
  • Food inflation with urban areas experienced a 5.5% increase in prices, while rural regions faced a higher inflation rate of ____.
  • Prices of items like vegetables, eggs, pulses, cereals, education, health, and clothing saw a reduction.
A

4.31% ;

6.02% ;

6.3% ;

Note: The NSO has collected the price data from 1114 urban markets and 1181 villages across all States and Union Territories (UTs) on a weekly basis.

89
Q

Maaza, Coca-Cola’s mango-based beverage, achieved a historic milestone in 2024 by surpassing USD 1 billion in annual sales. This marks Maaza as Coca-Cola’s third billion-dollar brand in India, following Thums Up (2021) and Sprite (2022). This positions Maaza as the ____ billion-dollar brand for the beverage globally.

90
Q

Forbes India unveiled its 12th Edition ,Forbes India 30 Under 30 Class of 2025, honoring 30 young professionals and entrepreneurs who have made significant contributions across 19 categories including the newly added Artificial Intelligence.

  • The 2025 list features ____ individuals
  • The 2025 Lists features includes 12 number of Professionals and a 11 Number of Women.
  • ______ was the youngest award winner in the list 2025
A

42 ;

World Chess Champion of 2024, D Gukesh

  • The 2025 list spans various sectors such as technology, healthcare, finance, and entertainment,
    reflecting the multifaceted talents of India’s youth.
91
Q

Sports industry news site Sportico’s released 4th Annual list of 100 Top Highest-Paid Athletes, ____, a Portuguese professional footballer is the world’s highest-paid athlete in 2024 for the 2nd consecutive year, earning USD 260 million, including USD 215 million from Salary/Winnings (from Saudi Pro League club Al Nassr) and USD 45 million from endorsements.

  • Stephen Curry (USD 153.8 million), an American professional basketball player secured 2nd place, and Tyson Fury (USD 147 million), a British former professional boxer
    secured 3rd place on the list.
A

Cristiano Ronaldo

  • Female athletes were absent from the top 100 for the 2nd straight year; The top 100 also doesn’t include a single sportsperson from India.
  • Coco Gauff, an American professional Tennis player was the highest-paid female athlete in 2024 for
    the 2nd consecutive year with USD 30.4 million.
92
Q

former House speaker of Greece, _____ , the candidate from the ruling conservative New Democracy (ND) party, was elected as the President of Greece (Officially Hellenic
Republic) for a five-year term, effective from March 13, 2025, by the Greek Parliament.

A

Konstantinos Tasoulas

93
Q

Chartered Accountant (C.A.) _____ has been elected as 73rd President of Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI), world’s largest accountancy body for the term 2025-26 during the
26th ICAI Council meeting held in New Delhi, Delhi. He has succeeded CA Ranjeet Kumar Agarwal.

A

Charanjot Singh Nanda

94
Q

Indo-Russian Rifles Private Limited (IRRPL), a Joint Venture (JV) between India and Russia, delivered 40,000 Avtomat Kalashnikova (AK)-203 assault rifles to the _____.

A

Indian Army (IA)

  • These rifles were produced at the Korwa Ordnance Factory in Amethi, Uttar Pradesh (UP).
  • The rifles are being produced with complete technology transfer from Russia, with the goal of
    achieving 100% localization in India.
  • It aligns with India’s “Make in India” and “Atmanirbhar Bharat” initiatives, focusing on achieving self-reliance in defense manufacturing
95
Q

The 2025 Chennai Open ATP Challenger concluded with France’s _____ clinching the men’s singles title and the Japanese duo of Shintaro Mochizuki and Kaito Uesugi securing the doubles crown.

A

Kyrian Jacquet

  • 2025 was the 5th edition of Chennai Open, part of the 2025 ATP Challenger Tour, held from February 3 -9, 2025 at the SDAT Tennis Stadium in Chennai, Tamil Nadu(TN).
  • The Chennai Open offering 100 ranking points and a prize money of USD 22,730 to the singles champion while runner up will receive USD 3350 and will get 50 points
96
Q

renowned folk singer _____ also known as ‘Sukrajji’ passed away at the age of 88 in Bengaluru, Karnataka. She was born in 1937 in Badigeri, Karnataka, into the Halakki Vokkaliga tribe.

  • In 2017, she was honored with Padma Shri award, India’s fourth highest civilian award, for her contribution to the field of Arts (in folk music)
A

Sukri Bommagowda

97
Q

the Karnataka Chief Minister(CM) Siddaramaiah, unveiled a revamped ____ at the Global Investors Meet, Invest Karnataka 2025.

  • The digital-first Platform (https://investkarnataka.co.in/), aims to eliminate bureaucratic hurdles, streamline approvals, and fast-track industrial projects across the state.
A

Single Window System (SWS)

i. Udyog Mitra Assistant (UMA) AI: A generative Artificial intelligence (AI) chatbot providing real-time, multilingual assistance on policies, incentives, and compliance.

ii. GIS-Based Land Management: Investors can use the Geographic Information System(GIS) Industrial Information System to verify zoning compliance and explore land parcels via Karnataka Industrial Areas Development Board (KIADB). This reduces risks in land acquisition.

iii. End-to-End Digital Integration: The SWS integrates over 150 business services from 30+ state departments, including land allotment, environmental clearances, and building plan approvals. Investors
can now apply, amend, and track approvals through a unified portal, replacing the need to navigate multiple
offices.

iv. A Common Application Form (CAF) simplifies district- or state-level in-principle approvals, while APIs ensure seamless data sharing across departments