Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Orthopaedics r > Fractures generally & ankle > Flashcards

Fractures generally & ankle Flashcards

1
Q

what is a transverse fracture

A

a straight break through a bone at a right angle, caused by a force applied directly to the site of the fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is a spiral fracture

A

a corkscrew type fracture due to a rotational injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is an oblique fracture

A

a rare fractrue; straight break through the bone but at an angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is subluxation

A

malalignment of the joint surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is a greenstick fracture

A

fracture that occurs in children due to the soft bone making it flexible; bone bends without fracturing across the cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

name the nerve affected in the following fractures

  • midshaft humerus
  • supracondylar fracture
  • shoulder dislocation
  • hip dislocation
  • fibula neck fracture
A
  • radial nerve
  • median nerve
  • axillary nerve
  • sciatic nerve
  • common peroneal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

name 5 causes of pathological fractures

A
  • osteoporosis
  • osteopaenia
  • tumours
  • infection
  • metabolic bone disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

when should stabilisation be achieved by in a traumatic fracture in a and e

A

within 24 hours on a daytime trauma list

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

which opioid out of; morphine, fentanyl and pethidine is preferred in known renal failure, and why?

A

fentanyl

because it is shorter acting so therefore prevents accumulation of active metabolites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is the clinical presentation of a hip fracture?

A

hip shortened and externally rotated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what are the 3 steps in managing a fracture?

A
  1. Reduce
  2. Stabilise
  3. Rehabilitation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is reduction of a fracture?

A

surgical procedure to correct the alignment of the bone so that the fracture can heal with minimal deformity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what are the 2 types of reduction?

A

open and closed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is open reduction of a fracture?

A

fracture segments are exposed surgically by dissecting the tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is closed reduction of a fracture?

A

manipulation of the bone fragments without surgical exposure of the fragments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

how is a reduced fracture maintained?

A

either internal or external fixation

17
Q

what is external fixation?

A

stabilising frames, metal pins or screws placed into the bone through small incisions into the skin and muscle

18
Q

what is internal fixation?

A

plates, screws, nails, rods, wires, pins

19
Q

what is ORIF?

A

open reduction internal fixation

open surgery, fixation with screws/plates/intramedullary bone nails

20
Q

what is closed reduction infernal fixation

A

reduction without surgery

21
Q

what do you do if manipulation and external mobilisation devices are unsuccessful in managing a trauma fracture

A

surgical reduction of internal fixation

22
Q

what prophylaxis should be given for open wounds?

A

tetanus

23
Q

when should open fractures be debrided and lavaged by?

A

by 6 hours of the injury

24
Q

what is delayed union defined as?

A

failure to reach bony union @ 6 months post injury

25
Q

what is compartment syndrome?

A

when the pressure within the fascial compartment exceeds the perfusion pressure within the compartment resulting in ischaemia of the tissues within that compartment

26
Q

what are the early signs of compartment syndrome? (3)

A
  • does not respond to analgesia
  • associated with skin mottling
  • severe pain on passive stretch
27
Q

late signs of compartment syndrome?

A
  • pulselessness

- paraesthesia

28
Q

what are the indications for an ankle x-ray?

A

Pain in the malleolar zone & one of following

  • bony tenderness at lateral malleolar zone
  • bony tenderness at medial malleolar zone
  • inability to walk 4 weight bearing steps immediately after the injury & in ED
29
Q

name of classification of ankle fractures

A

weber

30
Q

What is weber classification A & typical mechanism of injury

A

fracture of fibula below the level of syndemosis

typically from an inversion injury

31
Q

What is weber classification B & typical mechanism of injury

A

fracture at level of syndesmosis & extends proximally in oblique fashion

typically eversion injury

32
Q

What is weber classification C & typical mechanism of injury

A

fracture above the syndesmosis

may be associated wtih an avulsion fracture or rupture of deltoid ligament

always unstable - requiring fixation

33
Q

what type of bacteria is staph aureus

A

gram positive cocci

34
Q

1st and 2nd most common isolated organisms of most series

A
  • strep pyrogens

- group B strep

35
Q

name 2 gram negative rods

A
  • E.coli

- Klebsiella

36
Q

which organism is most commonly seen in septic arthritis in IVDU?

A

Pseudonomas aeruginosa

37
Q

abx course duration in septic arthritis

A

6 weeks

38
Q

abx of choice for gonococcal arthritis

A

ceftriaxone

39
Q

what causes tibial plateau fractures?

A
  • high energy trauma in young

- low energy falls in elderly

Orthopaedics r (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions