Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Preeti: SA Surgery > Fracture Objectives > Flashcards

Fracture Objectives Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 4 A’s of radiographic fracture evaluation?

A

Apposition

Alignment

Apparatus

Activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What radiographic change indicates implant loosening?

A

Lucency around pin or screw

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the 2 types of non-union fractures?

A

Viable and non- viable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the differences between viable and non-viable

non-union fractures?

A

Viable: fibrous tissue between fracture ends

Non-viable: fracture ends are sclerotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the treatment for non-union fractures?

A

surgery to remove fibrous/sclerotic ends

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the pathogenesis of quadriceps contracture?

A

muscle fibers replaces by fibrous tissue→

adhesions between muscle and bone→

severe decreased limb mobility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the risk factors for quadriceps contracture?

A

Distal femoral fracture

Young (<6 months)

Prolonged immobilization in non weight-bearing position

Extensive muscle or soft tissue trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What treatment options are available for quadriceps contracture?

A

Treatment rarely successful but options include:

Z-plasty of quadriceps muscles

Stifle arthrodesis

Limb amputation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the prognosis for quadriceps contracture?

A

Poor for full function

Guarded for partial function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What conditions are associated with overly rigid fixation or immobilization?

A

Joint stiffness

Muscle contracture

Disuse osteoporosis

Ligamentous laxity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What radiographic changes are seen with aggressive neoplastic

bone lesions?

A

cortical lysis

periosteal rxn

mineralization of soft tissues

loss of trabecular pattern

lack of distinct border

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What differentials are associated with the following radiographic changes?

cortical lysis

periosteal rxn

mineralization of soft tissues

loss of trabecular pattern

lack of distinct border

A

Osteomyelitis

Osteosarcoma

Chondrosarcoma

Fibrosarcoma

Hemangiosarcoma

Lymphoma

Bone Cyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What treatment for Osteosarcoma has the longest MST?

A

Amputation + Chemotherapy

(MST = 9 - 12 months)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the purpose of amputation in osteosarcoma if there is

no effect on survival time?

A

High complication rates if trying to spare limb:

infection

implant failure

local reccurrence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the most common sites for metastatic lesions of Osteosarcoma?

A

Lungs

Other bones

Lymph nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What staging is recommended for Osteosarcoma?

A

Thoracic CT

LN aspiration

CBC/Chem/UA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the GOLD STANDARD for diagnosis of bone lesions?

A

BIOPSY!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What bone tumor locations are amenable to limb sparing tx?

A

Distal radial bone lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Other than osteosarcoma, what primary bone tumors are diagnosed

in small animals?

A

Chondrosarcoma (CSA)

Fibrosarcoma (FSA)

Hemangiosarcoma (HAS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What bone tumors are specific to the digits?

A

Dogs: SCC, Melanoma

Cats: SCC, FSA, Adenocarcinoma, OSA, HAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What nerve needs to be avoided in internal fixation of scapular

neck fractures?

A

Suprascapular nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What type of bone plate is used for unstable

scapular body fractures?

A

Locking plates

23
Q

What condition seen most commonly in spa​niel breeds predisposes them to humeral condylar fractures?

A

IOHC

(Incomplete Ossification of Humeral Condyle)

24
Q

Which aspect of the humeral condyle fractures most often and why?

A

Lateral aspect because of:

Increased weight bearing and

Smaller epicondylar crest

25
Q

How is a lateral or medial humeral condylar fracture repaired?

How about a T or Y fracture?

A

Lateral or Medial: Lag screw + anti-rotational wire

T or Y: Plate application

26
Q

Why are distal radius/ulna fractures in small breed dogs more likely to experience healing complications?

A

Inherently unstable fractures

Poor blood supply to bone

Minimal soft tissue coverage

Limited intraosseous circulation

27
Q

Under what conditions should metacarpal or metatarsal fractures be surgically stabilized?

A

All 4 MC bones are fractured

More than one MC is fractured and there is severe displacement

MCs 3 and 4 are fractured

28
Q

What other injuries might one expect to see in a patient with pelvic fractures?

A

Pelvic fractures are usually caused by trauma, so usually see more

than one fracture and other HBC injuries like diaphragmatic hernia, etc.

29
Q

Why is a thorough neurologic evaluation so important in pelvic fracture cases?

A

Need to assess:

Pelvic limb function

Anal tone and sensation

Urinary continence (LMN)

Tail sensation

Gives info about location of injuries and how to treat

30
Q

Surgical stabilization of pelvic fractures should always be recommended in certain cases. What are these fracture types or clinical scenarios?

A

Cranial acetabulum fracture

Ilium fracture

Sacroiliac luxations

Hip instability

(weight bearing functions)

31
Q

When is conservative management recommended for pelvic fractures?

A

Stable, minimally displaced fractures

Fractures that do not disrupt continuity of pelvic canal

Fractures that do not affect weight bearing

32
Q

What are the risks associated with conservative management of pelvic fractures in which surgical repair is recommended?

A

Malunion with pelvic canal narrowing→ constipation, dystocia

Entrapment of sciatic nerve in callus

Non-union

33
Q

Why is deep pain sensation necessary to assess when evaluating a patient with spinal trauma?

A

If no deep pain, must euthanize

34
Q

What are the 2 main goals of surgical repair of spinal fractures/luxations?

A

Decompression of spinal cord

Stabilization of vertebral column

35
Q

What are the benefits of CT vs MRI with regards to imaging of the spine and providing information to help achieve these surgical goals for

spinal fractures/luxations?

A

CT is best modality for bony lesion detection

MRI is best for assessment of spinal cord and changes within the canal

Most sensitive method for overall evaluation is BOTH CT and MRI!

36
Q

When is it appropriate to recommend conservative management of a spinal fracture?

A

If animal is ambulatory, fracture is stable, and there is no neuronal deterioration

(or if there is intact nociception, but the owner is not willing or able to pay)

37
Q

Name the condition that can occur when a young animal’s comminuted

femoral fracture is treated with rigid immobilization for an extended period of time

A

Quadriceps contraction

38
Q

Of the 4 A’s that are evaluated in post-op fracture repair rads,

which term relates to the positioning of joints?

A

Alignment

39
Q

What Abx is the best first choice for tx of an open fracture?

A

Cefazolin

40
Q

What specific lesion can be seen with chronic osteomyelitis?

A

Sequestrum

41
Q

What is the average healing time for fractures?

A

6 - 8 weeks

42
Q

T/F:

Quadriceps contracture is usually reversible

A

FALSE! usually irreversible

43
Q

How is Quadriceps contracture prevented?

A

In distal femoral fractures, only use

internal or external fixation

(NEVER use coaptation for femoral fractures!)

ROM exercises and NSAIDs

immediately to prevent mm. atrophy and scarring

44
Q

What animals are predisposed to osteosarcoma?

A

Large and Giant breed dogs

Either 18-24 months old or around 7 years old (bimodal age distribution)

45
Q

What are the predilection sites for osteosarcoma?

A

AWAY from Elbow, TOWARDS the Knee

  • Proximal humerus
  • Distal radius or ulna
  • Proximal tibia
  • Distal femur
46
Q

What CBC/Chem/UA change is associated with poorer prognosis

in cases of osteosarcoma?

A

Increased ALKP

47
Q

What are biphosphonates and how are they used in the treatment

of osteosarcoma?

A

Biphosphonates can be used for PALLIATIVE tx of OSA

They are osteoclast inhibitors which decrease rate of lysis and improve pain scores

48
Q

______% of skeletal tumors in canines are Osteosarcomas

A

85%

49
Q

What type of scapular fracture can be treated conservatively?

A

STABLE extra-articular fractures

50
Q

How is a glenoid tubercle (attachment of the biceps brachii) avulsion

treated?

A

Lag screw or

Pin and tension band

51
Q

Fracture of the ulna with dislocation of the radial head

is known as this type of fracture

A

Monteggia Fracture

Type 1 most common

52
Q

What is the recommended treatment for ALL

complete distal radius/ulna fractures in small breed dogs?

A

SURGERY! Not external coaptation!!

53
Q

What are the most common sites for spinal fractures and luxations?

A

T3 - L3

and

L4 - L7

54
Q

What 2 types of salter harris fractures might go

undiagnosed on initial rads?

A

Type 1 or Type 5 (go across physis)

Preeti: SA Surgery (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions