FP511 Module 6 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

Microeconomics

A

Microeconomics is the study of how individuals and companies make decisions to allocate scarce resources, which helps in understanding how individuals and companies prioritize their wants.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Macroeconomics

A

Macroeconomics is the study of an economy as a whole. For example, macroeconomics examines factors that affect a country’s economic growth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Supply/Demand Curve with Equilibrium Point (image)

A

View image.

Test Tip: Whenever you are presented with a problem relating to the supply and demand or price and quantity relationship, you should immediately draw a freehand version of Figure 6.1. A seemingly complex problem can be made relatively simple if this approach is used. Price increases as you go up the price axis (y-axis), and quantity increases as you go to the right on the quantity axis (x-axis).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Price elasticity

A

Price elasticity is the responsiveness of the quantity of a good demanded to changes in price, all other economic forces remaining constant.

What you are trying to do with elasticity is determine how many units of quantity are changed for every unit of price change.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

inelastic good

A

Demand for necessities, such as food or gasoline, responds relatively little to price changes; therefore, those types of goods are said to be inelastic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Elastic good or price elasticity

A

the demand for luxuries, such as a new motorboat, responds relatively more to price changes; therefore, those types of goods are said to be elastic or demonstrate a great deal of price elasticity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

gross domestic product (GDP)

A

total monetary value of all goods and services produced within the domestic United States over the course of a given year, including income generated domestically by a foreign firm (e.g., Toyota Motor Corp.)

Measured in constant non-inflation dollars which can be transferred to real GDP after accounting for inflation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

GDP equation (4 components)

A

The four components are Consumption, Investment, Government spending, and Net exports (CIGNE)
GDP = C + I + G + NE
C = consumption (generally spending by individuals on durable and nondurable goods and services)
Typically about 2/3s the full GDP for USA
I = investment (generally business spending on inventory, plants, and equipment, but including new housing purchases by consumers)
G = government spending, including federal, state, and local
NE = net exports (total exports less total imports)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Gross National Product (GNP)

A

measures activity by ownership and takes into account any production by a company both in-and outside the home country, it is not as widely followed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Fiscal policy (2 tools)

A

Congress and the president make policy desicions.

The power to tax - changes in the rate of government taxation will affect the amount of corporate earnings, the amount of consumer disposable income, and the incentives for individual workers to produce. IF they raise taxes, people have less money to spend, That will put pressure on increasing interest rates and dampen the economy

The power to spend - Changes in the rate of government spending will affect corporate earnings as well as consumer demand.
If they spend on services, infrastructure, more people are at work, money supply is up, downward pressure on interest rate and economic activity is spurred

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Monetary policy (3 tools)

A

The Fed manages monetary policy.

(1) reserve requirements how much of their overall cash deposits need to be kept at the bank (10% for recent years)
The money not reserved at the bank is loaned out, invested or utilized in other ways for the bank to make profit
Impact: If they raise the requirement, banks have less money to lend out, upward pressure on interest rates and it is going to mean economic activity will be contracted

(2) discount rate
The rate at which banks can borrow from any of the Federal Reserve Banks
The only rate the FED has direct control over
When the Fed raises the discount rate, it increases the cost of borrowing and discourages member banks from borrowing funds, resulting in a contraction of the money supply/economy.
The Fed will lower the discount rate when it wants to increase the money supply. When banks are able to borrow funds at lower rates and lend more money, they increase the supply of money in circulation and this stimulates demand.
Spurs economic activity

(3) open-market operations
Most important and most frequently practiced (buying and selling government securities
They are exchanging cash for those government securities (thus they are injecting money into the environment)
Depending on the intended economic outcome, the Fed can either sell government securities to banks and market makers or buy back government securities in the open market.
If the Fed wants to expand economic activity, it will buy government securities in exchange for money, thereby increasing the money supply and driving down overall interest rates and bolstering the economy.
If the Fed wants to contract economic activity, it will sell government securities from its existing inventory, thereby decreasing the money supply, driving up overall interest rates, and reducing prices.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

federal funds rate

A

Indirectly controlled by the Fed.

The federal funds rate is the interest rate charged on short-term borrowing (often overnight to fulfill reserve requirements) between banks; the Fed targets, but does not directly control, this rate in all of its interest rate decisions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

prime rate

A

The prime rate is the rate of interest charged by commercial banks to their best business and personal customers. This rate is set directly by commercial banks; however, it normally is about 3% higher than the federal funds rate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

business cycle

A

The business cycle reflects movements in economic activity and illustrates the concepts of supply and demand.
The economy is a dynamic, rather than static, system.
Usually, the economy is either in an expansion or contraction phase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Business cycle peak

A

by analyzing the characteristics of past economic conditions, economists can pinpoint when the expansion phase has reached its top or maximum, otherwise known as a peak, and when the contraction phase has reached its bottom, otherwise known as a trough.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Business cycle trough

A

by analyzing the characteristics of past economic conditions, economists can pinpoint when the expansion phase has reached its top or maximum, otherwise known as a peak, and when the contraction phase has reached its bottom, otherwise known as a trough.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Economic expansion / contraction & peak/trough indicators

A

Think of this chart as the early stages of expansion or contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

recession

A

occurs when the GDP has experienced a decrease in real terms for two consecutive quarters or a minimum of six months from a baseline of zero.
Characterized by high unemployment, reduction in manufacturing, increases in inventory of durable goods, a decline in GDP, contractions in corporate profits and lower consumer spending

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Depression

A

the GDP has experienced a decrease in real terms for six consecutive quarters or a minimum of 18 months from a baseline of zero.

20
Q

Three types of economic indicators

A

(1) Leading indicators - tend to precede actual economic change
Housing starts
New claims for unemployment
Bond yields
Indexes of stock prices (S&P 500)
Orders for durable goods
Changes in investor sentiment

(2) Coincident indicators - occur simultaneously during the business cycle and confirm the stage that the economy is currently experiencing
Industrial production
Level of personal income
Amount of corporate profits

(3) Lagging or confirming indicators - usually change after the economy has passed through one business cycle and allow confirmation of a previous economic environment
Prime interest rates
Changes in consumer price index CPI (particularly for services)
Amount of business and consumer loans outstanding
Average duration of unemployment
Unemployment rate

21
Q

Inflation

A

rise in the average level of prices of goods and services. The two most common measures of inflation are the

Consumer Price Index (CPI)
CPI program produces monthly data on changes in the prices paid by urban consumers for a representative basket of goods and services

Producer Price Index (PPI).
PPI program measures the average change over time in the selling prices received by domestic producers for their output

22
Q

Consumer Price Index (CPI)

A

CPI program produces monthly data on changes in the prices paid by urban consumers for a representative basket of goods and services

23
Q

Producer Price Index (PPI)

A

PPI program measures the average change over time in the selling prices received by domestic producers for their output

24
Q

Deflation

A

when prices are falling in absolute terms

In general, a deflationary period is one where preservation of capital should be of primary concern; investments should center on very high-quality debt instruments.
Lower-quality bonds should be avoided because the likelihood of default increases during a deflationary period.
High-quality bonds, especially U.S. Treasury obligations, can be a good investment because interest rates fall significantly in this period.

Bond prices rise and purchasing power increases during deflation

25
Q

Disinflation

A

when prices are still rising but at a declining rate

26
Q

Stagflation

A

combination of “stagnation” and “inflation.” High unemployment and high inflation

27
Q

Chapter 7

A

Chapter 7 - The individual is permitted to keep certain assets, but all others are relinquished to satisfy the costs of bankruptcy and the claims of creditors.

Not required to give up certain payments received like Social Security benefits, pension benefits, unemployment compensation, and alimony.

The debtor can also retain all or a portion of their life insurance and annuities in most states

End of bankruptcy proceedings - most debts are discharged completely aka the debtor is no longer responsible for their repayment
NOT DISCHARGEABLE
(1) Child support, alimony debts
(3) student/gov loans
(4) recent federal income taxes due
(4) 401K loans

state law exemptions - things you can keep or are not impacted by bankruptcy
an exemption for one’s homestead
some limited amount of personal property,
pension and retirement plan rights (ERISA plans)
the existing cash value of any life insurance policies
the proceeds of any annuity contracts
disability income benefits
property that is held as tenants by the entirety (see 106 Estate Planning for more details).

Federal law exemptions
federal Civil Service retirement benefits
railroad pensions
veterans’ benefits.

28
Q

Chapter 13

A

A plan is created under which the debtor will repay outstanding debts within a specified time period (typically 3-5 years)

The amount owed is reduced so that payments are manageable

More favorable for creditors because they receive at least some portion of what is owed

Chapter 13 is only available for those whose debts total less than certain amounts and who have regular income

Debtor is generally not required to relinquish assets to discharge debts

29
Q

Bankruptcy Abuse Prevention & Consumer Protection Act of 2005

A

Individuals who have the ability to pay their debts (as defined in the act) are required to file under Chapter 13 of the Federal Bankruptcy Code. This is in substitution for having their debts canceled entirely under a Chapter 7 filing.

Consumer use of Chapter 7 filing is limited to the liquidation of credit card bills or loans that are not secured by a house or other asset.

Debtors who want to file for Chapter 7 are required to submit to credit counseling before doing so.

Lenders are required to provide consumer information about the financial dangers of paying only minimum balances on credit card debts.

If the individual can pay at least $100 a month to creditors AND if it is likely for repayments to reach $10,000 over five-year period, the judge will probably not allow a chapter 7 filing.

30
Q

Chapter 11 Bankruptcy (Reorganization)

A

Any individual, business, or corporate debtor who is eligible for Chapter 7 liquidation (except stockbrokers, commodities brokers, and railroads) is also eligible for Chapter 11 bankruptcy (reorganization).

Payments are typically restructured/reduced to be more manageable for the debtor
The debtor is not usually required to relinquish assets to pay creditors

The debtor remains in possession and may continue to operate the debtor’s business.

Certain retirement income assets, such as those from a qualified pension, individual retirement account, Roth IRA, profit sharing, stock bonus plan, annuity, deferred compensation plan for state and local governments and tax-exempt organizations, and trusts, may not have to be included as property in the bankruptcy filing (i.e., the individual should be able to retain such assets).

Many states have unlimited homestead exemption as long as they have lived there for at least 40 months

Additionally, funds held in education savings accounts may be retained (dollar limits apply based on when the contributions were made). A $5,000 limit per beneficiary may be applied for deposits made between one and two years prior to filing for bankruptcy.

31
Q

Consumer Credit Protection Act (aka Truth in Lending Act)

A

The purpose of this act was to have lenders make certain uniform disclosures, enabling the consumer to evaluate credit terms.

One provision was establishing a standard method of calculating and reporting interest - the annual percentage rate (APR)

In addition, the act requires disclosure of all pertinent credit terms including when payments begin, charges for late payments, info for prepayments and the amount financed.

These are defined under Regulation Z

32
Q

Regulation Z

A

part of the consumer credit protection act. the act requires disclosure of all pertinent credit terms including when payments begin, charges for late payments, info for prepayments and the amount financed.

Disclosures retired under Regulation Z
The dollar amount of finance charges
APR
When payments begin
Charges for late payments
Prepayment information
Amount financed
Right of rescission (right to cancel the contract)

33
Q

Fair Credit Reporting Act (FCRA)

A

One major right established under this act involves access to information

If a consumer is denied credit, the consumer is owed the knowledge of which credit reporting agency denied them and allows them to see their credit file information for 30 days

Whenever adverse information is entered into an individual’s credit file, it may be maintained for 7 years, and bankruptcy information may be retained for up to 10 years.

34
Q

Fair Credit Billing Act

A

requires consumers to notify the creditor in writing of any billing errors within 60 days of the date they receive the billing statement. Creditors then have 30 days to respond to the consumer with respect to the possible billing error and 90 days to resolve the complaint.

35
Q

Equal Credit Opportunity Act

A

prohibits credit discrimination on the basis of

race, color, religion, national origin, gender, marital status, age, or sexual orientation (provided the applicant has the capacity to contract);

the fact that all or part of the applicant’s income derives from a public assistance program; or

the fact that the applicant has in good faith exercised any right under the Consumer Credit Protection Act.

36
Q

Electronic Fund Transfer Act

A

provides for recovery by those who suffer losses due to a financial institution failing to follow the provisions of the act.

37
Q

Consumer Credit Reporting Reform Act

A

requires credit bureau reports to include accurate, relevant, and recent information about the financial situation of credit applicants. The act also restricts access to credit files only to bona fide users of financial information. Finally, under the act, applicants who are denied credit must be advised why and must be given the name and address of the reporting credit agency.

38
Q

Fair Debt Collection Practices Act

A

prohibits debt collectors from engaging in certain practices, such as contacting a debtor at his place of employment if the employer objects, harassing or intimidating the debtor, or using false and misleading practices. A state court may issue an order for garnishment of a portion of a debtor’s wages in order to satisfy a legal judgment that was obtained by a creditor.

39
Q

Credit Card Accountability Responsibility and Disclosure Act of 2009 (CARD Act)

A

enacted to establish fair practices and to enable consumers to better understand their credit transactions.

40
Q

Service members Civil Relief Act (SCRA)

A

designed to ease financial burdens on servicemembers during periods of military service. The act applies to active duty members, reserve members recalled to active duty, and National Guard members called into federal service for periods of more than 30 days. Among several other benefits, this act caps interest charged on debts at 6% for those debts incurred prior to active duty service.

41
Q

Privacy Act of 1974

A

established a code of fair information practices that regulates the types of personal information the federal government can collect and how this information can be used. Written consent from an individual must be given before personal information may be disclosed unless the disclosure falls under 1 of 12 statutory exceptions.

42
Q

Consumer Credit Reporting Reform Act

A

credit reporting agencies must follow reasonable procedures to protect the confidentiality, accuracy, and relevance of credit information.

43
Q

Fair and Accurate Credit Transaction Act of 2003 (FACTA)

A

added new sections to the federal FCRA that gives consumers greater protection against the growing crime of identity theft.

Under FACTA, consumers can obtain a free credit report every 12 months from each of the three national credit reporting agencies—Equifax, TransUnion, and Experian.

FACTA also requires that consumer information be disposed of in a secure manner.

44
Q

Phishing

A

posing as a financial institution or company and sending spam over the internet to entice an individual to provide personal information

45
Q

Skimming

A

the stealing of credit or debit card information by using a special storage device when processing these types of cards.