Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Medical School Anatomy > Foundations of Anatomy Complete > Flashcards

Foundations of Anatomy Complete Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
USMLE® Step 1 flashcards
1
Q

What is vessel number 5?

A

Right Femoral Artery, continues from the external iliac artery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is vessel number 4?

A

Right Common Iliac Artery. Found at the aortic bifurcation. Bifurcates into the internal and external iliac arteries infront of the sacroiliac joint.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is vessel number 3?

A

Right renal artery. Runs from the abdominal aorta, to the kidneys.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is vessel number 2?

A

Ascending Aorta, originating from the left vetrical of the heart, becomes the arch of aorta, and then the descending thoracic aorta.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is vessel number 1?

A

Right Vertebral Artery
Major artery of the neck, passes through transverse section of the cervical vertebrae (C6 to atlas) from the subclavian arteries.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is vessel number 6?

A

Left internal iliac artery, originates at the bifurcation of the common iliac artery. It is shorter, thicker and smaller than the external iliac artery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is vessel number 7?

A

Left external iliac artery, originates from the bifurcation of the common iliac artery. Runs to the femoral artery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is vessel number 8?

A

Decending thoracic aorta. Runs from the aortic arch, to the T12 vertebrae where it becomes the abdominal aorta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is vessel number 9?

A

Left brachial artery, continues from axillary artery, bifurcates to the radial and ulnar artery at around the elbow.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is vessel number 10?

A

Left subclavian artery. Unlike the right subclavian, it comes directly off the aortic arch, becomes the axillary artery after the lateral border of the first rib.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Describe anterior

A

Front of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Describe caudal

A

Pertaining to the tail/coccyx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Describe cranial

A

Pertaining to the head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Describe deep

A

Far from the surface, internal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Describe distal

A

Close to the end of the limb, far from the limb attachment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Describe dorsal

A

Back of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Describe dorsum

A

Upper surface of foot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Describe inferior

A

Lower in the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Describe lateral

A

Far from the middle line of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Describe medial

A

Close to the middle line of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Describe plantar

A

Sole of the foot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Describe posterior

A

Back of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Describe prone position

A

Lying down, face down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Describe proximal

A

Close to the limb attachment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Describe rostral

A

Pertaining to the beak (nose/mouth)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Describe superficial

A

Close to the surface (skin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Describe superior

A

Higher in the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Describe supine

A

Lying down, face up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Describe the anatomical position

A

Standing position, facing forwards. Erect penis. Hands supinated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Describe ventral

A

Front of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Give the location of the aorta.

A

The ascending aorta originates from the left ventricle of the heart, until the upper second costal cartilage. The aortic arch ends between the forth and fifth thoracic vertebrae. The thoracic aorta runs until level with the twelfth thoracic vertebrae. The abdominal aorta runes until its bifurcation into the R+L common iliac arteries.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Give the location of the basilic vein.

A

Superficial vein, originates medial side of the dorsal venous network of the hand. Drains into the axillary vein.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Give the location of the brachial artery.

A

Continues from the axillary artery at the inferior border of the teres major tendon. Bifurcates into the radial and ulnar arteries near the elbow joint.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Give the location of the brachiocephalic vein.

A

Formed from the internal jugular and subclavian artery level with the sternoclavicular joint. R+L brachiocephalic veins merge to form the superior vena cava, posterior to the first right costal cartilage/manubrium sternum junction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Give the location of the cephalic vein.

A

Superficial. Drains blood from the hand and arm, empties into the axillary vein.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Give the location of the common iliac artery.

A

The common iliac arteries (R+L) originate at the bifurcation of the abdominal aorta. They bifurcate in front of the sacroiliac joint, where they become the internal and external iliac arteries.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Give the location of the common iliac vein.

A

Internal and external iliac veins join anteriorly to the sacroiliac joint. R+L join level with the L5 vertebrae to form the inferior vena cava.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Give the location of the external iliac artery.

A

Begins at bifurcation of the common iliac artery. Runs inferiority, anteriorly and laterally towards the lower limb. Becomes the femoral artery behind the inguinal ligament.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Give the location of the external iliac vein.

A

Continues from the femoral vein, at the inferior margin of the inguinal ligament. Joins with the internal iliac vein, anterior to the sacroiliac joint, where they become the common iliac vein.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Give the location of the femoral artery.

A

Begins from the external iliac artery, behind the inguinal ligament. Becomes the popliteal artery as it basses through the adductor hiatus (gap adductor Magnus muscle)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Give the location of the femoral vein.

A

Arises at the adductor hiatus, gap in the adductor Magnus vessel. Ends at the inferior margin of the inguinal ligament, where it becomes the external iliac vein.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Give the location of the inferior vena cava.

A

Formed from the common iliac veins joining, level with the L5 vertebrae. Enters the right atrium of the heart inferior to the superior vena cava.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Give the location of the internal iliac artery.

A

Begins at bifurcation of the common iliac artery. Runs posteromedially towards the greater sciatic foramen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Give the location of the internal iliac vein.

A

Begins in the upper part of the greater sciatic foramen. Joins with the external iliac vein, anterior to the sacroiliac joint, where it becomes the common iliac vein.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Give the location of the internal jugular vein.

A

Collectors blood from the sigmoid sinus and inferior petrosal sinus. Begins in the posterior compartments of the jugular foramen, and merges with the subclavian vein at the root of the neck: becoming the brachiocephalic vein.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Give the location of the renal artery.

A

The renal artery branches off the abdominal aorta and run to the kidneys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Give the location of the renal vein.

A

Takes blood from kidneys to the inferior vena cava.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Give the location of the subclavian artery.

A

Left subclavian artery branches off the aortic arch. Right subclavian artery originates at the bifurcation of the brachiocephalic artery. Both become the axillary artery at the lateral border of the first rib.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Give the location of the superior vena cava.

A

Formed from both brachiocephalic veins merging posterior to the junction between the first right costal cartilage and the manubrium sternum junction. It enters the right atrium of the heart superior to the inferior vena cava.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Give the location of the vertebral artery.

A

Major artery of the neck, passes through transverse section of the cervical vertebrae (C6 to atlas) from the subclavian arteries.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is vein number 4?

A

Inferior vena cava. Runs from the R+L common iliac arteries in front of the L5 vertebrae, and enters the heart at the right atrium.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is vein number 3?

A

Superior vena cava. Formed from the R+L brachiocephalic veins, level with the junction of the first costal cartilage with the manubrium sternum. Enters the heart at the superior, posterior part of the right atrium.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is vein number 2?

A

Right Brachiocephalic vein. Formed from internal jugular vein and subclavian vein (level to sternoclavicular joint).

R+L join to become the superior vena cava at the junction between the first costal cartilage with the manubrium sternum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is vein number 1?

A

Right Internal jugular vein. Formed from inferior petrosal sinus and sigmoid all sinus in the posterior compartment of the jugular foramen. Joins with the subclavian vein at the root of the neck, where they become a brachiocephallic vein.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is vein number 5?

A

Right Renal Vein. Runs from the kidneys to the inferior vena cava

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is vein number 6?

A

Right common iliac vein. Formed from the external and internal iliac veins in front of the sacroiliac joint.

Forms the inferior vena cava, level with the L5 vertebrae.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is vein number 7?

A

Right femoral vein. Begins in adductor hiatus (opening in the adductor Magnus muscle). Becomes the external iliac vein at the inferior margin of the inguinal ligament.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is vein number 8?

A

Left external iliac vein. Continues from the femoral vein at the inferior level of the inguinal ligament. Joins the internal iliac vein to become the common iliac vein at the brim of the pelvis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is vein number 9?

A

Left internal iliac vein. Begins near the upper part of the greater sciatic foramen. Joins the external iliac vein at the brim of the pelvis to become the common iliac vein.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is vein number 11?

A

Left Cephalic vein. Superficial vein. Drains blood from hand and arm. Superficial vein empties into the axillary vein.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is vein number 10?

A

Left basilic vein. Begins medial to ulnar, drains into the axillary vein. Superficial vein.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What does the pectoral girdle include?

A

Clavicles and scapulae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What does the pelvic girdle include?

A

Hipbones and limbs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is a bodily system?

A

A group of organs working together for a particular funcion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is the appendicular skeleton?

A

Pectoral and pelvic girles, plus limbs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is the axial skeleton?

A

Head, neck trunk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is the basic role of the left atria of the heart?

A

Receives oxygenated blood via the pulmonary vein. Pumps into the left ventricle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is the basic role of the left ventricle of the heart?

A

Pumps oxygenated blood to the body, via the ascending aorta.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is the basic role of the right atria of the heart?

A

Receives deoxygenated blood from vena cavae. Pumps into right ventricle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is the basic role of the right ventricle of the heart?

A

Receives deoxygenated blood from the right atrium. Pumps blood to lungs via the pulmonary artery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is the black bone?

A

Trapezoid. Articulates with the scaphoid, trapezium, capitate and 2nd metacarpal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is the blue bone?

A

Lunate. Articulates with the radius, capitate, hamate, scaphoid and triquetrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is the coronal plane?

A

Dissects the anterior and posterior portions of the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is the dark green bone?

A

Capitate. Articulate with the lunate, hamate, trapezoid, scaphoid and 3rd metacarpal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is the flesh coloured bone?

A

Trapezium. Articulates with the 1st and 2nd metacarpal, scaphoid, and trapezoid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What is the green bone?

A

Cuboid bone. Articulates with calcaneus, (sometimes navicular), lateral cuneiform, 4th and 5th metatarsal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is the light green bone?

A

Triquetrum. Articulates with the pisiform, lunate and hamate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What is the purple bone?

A

Hamate. Articulates with the lunate, capitate, triquetum, and 4th/5th metacarpal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is the red bone?

A

Scaphoid. Articulates with the radius, trapezoid, trapezium, capitate and lunate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What is the red bone?

A

The cuneiforms. Articulating with metatarsals, each other, cuboid bone and navicular.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is the sagittal plane?

A

Cuts the mid-line of the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What is the transverse plane?

A

Dissects the superior and inferior portions of the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What is the yellow bone?

A

Pisiform. Articulates with the triquetrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What is the yellow bone?

A

Talus. Ankle bone. Articulates with the tibia, fibula, calcaneus and navicular.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is the blue bone?

A

Navicular. Articualtes with the talus, all three cuneiforms, and the cuboid bone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What is the purple bone?

A

Calcaneus. Heel bone. Articulating with talus and cuboid bone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Descibe a monocyte based on its microscopy.

A

Large kidney shaped nucleus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Describe a basophil based on its microscopy.

A

Bi-lobed nucleus, stain blue with H&E because of granules of histamine and heparin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Describe a eosinophil based on its microscopy.

A

Bi-lobed nucleus, stain pink, granules in cytoplasm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Describe a lymphoctye based on its microscopy.

A

Large circular nucleus,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Describe a neutrophil based on its microscopy.

A

Pink on H&E stain, with 3-5 lobed nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Describe a white blood cell based on its microscopy.

A

Biconcave disc, enucleated, solid black on ECM, pink on H&E staining.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Describe the anterior and posterior sections of a vertebrae.

A

Body, anterior to the foramen.Vertebral arch, circle of bone posterior to foramen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Describe the head of the radius.

A

Cylindrical head, circular smooth face, at proximla radius.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Describe the location and function of the inferior and superior articulating surface.

A

Inferior and superior to the midline of the vertebral arch.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Describe the location of the calcaneus.

A

Tarsal bone of the foot. Forms the heel. Most posterior tarsal bone. Articulates with the talus and cuboid bone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Describe the location of the capitate.

A

Distal row of carpal bones. Articulates with 3rd metacarpal, hamate (medially), trapezoid (laterally), lunate and scaphoid (proximally).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Describe the location of the clavicle.

A

Long bone, anterior superior thorax. Articulates with the scapula and manubrium of the sternum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Describe the location of the cuboid bone.

A

Tarsal bone of the foot. Articulates with the calcaneus (posteriorly), lateral cuneiform (medially), 4th and 5th metatarsal. Rarely articulated with the Navicular. Found anterior medial lateral part of foot.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Describe the location of the femur.

A

Long bone in thigh. Articulates with acetabulum in the hip bone. Articulates with tibia and patella at knee joint.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Describe the location of the fibula.

A

Long bone in lower leg. Articulates with the inferior and superior tibia, and the talus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Describe the location of the hamate.

A

Distal row of carpals, most medial. Articulates with 4th and 5th metacarpals, lunate (proximally), triquetrum (medially), capitate (laterally).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Give the location of the humerus.

A

Long bone in upper arm. Articulates with the scapula at the glenohumeral joint and the radius and ulna at the elbow.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Describe the location of the ilium.

A

Hip flat bone. Largest, most superior section.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Describe the location of the intermediate cuneiform.

A

Tarsal bone of the foot. Articulates with the navicular (posteriorly), the medial and lateral cuneiform, and the 2nd metatarsal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Describe the location of the ischium.

A

Hip flat bone. Inferior, posterior region.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Describe the location of the lateral cuneiform.

A

Tarsal bone of the foot. Articulates with the navicular (posteriorly), cuboid bone (laterally), intermediate cuneiform (medially), 2nd 3rd 4th metatarsal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Describe the location of the lunate.

A

Carpal bone of the wrist. Proximal row, 2nd most lateral.Articulates with the radius (proximally), capitate and hamate (distally), scaphoid (laterally), triquetrum (medially)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Describe the location of the medial cuneiform.

A

Tarsal bone of the foot. Articulates with the navicular (posteriorly), the intermediate cuneiform (laterally), the 1st and 2nd metatarsal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Describe the location of the navicular.

A

Tarsal bone of the foot. Articulates with the talus (posteriorly), the three cuneiform bones (anteriorly), and the cuboid bone (laterally).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Describe the location of the patella.

A

Sesamoid bone, kneecap. Articulates with the femur.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Describe the location of the pisiform.

A

Carpal sesamoid bone of the wrist. Proximal row, most medial, anteriorly.Articulates with the triquetrum (posteriorly).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Describe the location of the pubis.

A

Hip flat bone. Pubic bone. Inferior, anterior region. R+L bind via the pubic symphysis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Describe the location of the scaphoid.

A

Carpal bone of the wrist. Proximal row, most lateral.Articulates with the radius (proximally), the trapezoid and trapezium (distally), and the capitate and lunate (medially).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Describe the location of the scapula.

A

Shoulder blade, flat bone. Articulates with the humerus and the clavicle.Lies between the 2nd and 7th rib.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Describe the location of the talus.

A

Tarsal bone of the foot. Articulate with the tibia, fibula, calcaneus and navicular. Most proximal tarsal bone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Describe the location of the tibia.

A

Long bone in lower leg. Articulates with femur, the inferior and superior fibula, and the talus. It is medial and more anterior than the fibula.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Describe the location of the trapezium.

A

Distal row of carpal bones. Most lateral. Articulates with 1st and 2nd metacarpals, scaphoid (proximally) and trapezoid (medially).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Describe the location of the trapezoid.

A

Distal row of the carpal bones. Second most lateral. Articulates with scaphoid (proximally), trapezium (laterally), capitate (medially) and 2nd metacarpal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Describe the location of the triquetrum.

A

Carpal bone of the wrist. Proximal row, most medial, posteriorly. Articulates with the lunate (laterally), pisiform (anteriorly) and hamate (distally).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Describe the location of the ulna.

A

Long bone in medial forearm. Articulates with the the humerus and the radius at the elbow. Articulates with the radius at the wrist.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Describe the location, and nomenclature of the metacarpals.

A

Long bones, articulates with the lateral carpals to phalanges. Numbered 1 to 5, lateral to medial. (Thumb is number 1).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Describe the location, and nomenclature of the metatarsals.

A

Long bones, articulates with the cuneiforms and cuboid bones to phalanges. Numbered 1 to 5, medial to lateral. (Big toe is number 1).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Describe the location, and nomenclature of the phalanges.

A

Long bones, articulate with the metacarpals. Numbered 1 to 5, thumb and big toe are number 1. There are 2 is digits 1. And 3 in digits 2-5, they are named proximal, intermediate and distal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Describe the sternal angle, and its importance.

A

Landmark formed at the manubriosternal joint, palpable and lies level with second costal cartilage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Describe what happens when you pronate your hands, with regards to the ulnar and radius.

A

The elbow joint is not involved.The distal end of the radius rotates around the ulna.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Give an example of a suture joint.

A

Bones in the cranium.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Give an example of a syndesmoses.

A

Between the tibia and fibula.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

How are the tibia and fibula held together?

A

Syndesmosis at the distal end.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

How are vertebrae numbered?

A

1 - X. Cranial to cordal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

How do they sacral vertebrae differ?

A

Fused. Shorter, flatter spinous processes, laminae, and transverse processes. Rough articular surface laterally, for the sacro-iliac joint.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

How does the atlas connect to the skull?

A

Articulates with the occipital condyles around the foramen magnus. Allows nodding of head, and slight side-to-side nodding.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

How does the spinous process differ in each vertebrae?

A

C1 doesnt have oneC2-6: spinal processes bifurcate. C7 is much longer, and the first palpable. Thoracic: long, angles downwards.Lumbar: short blunt.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Name the 7th vertebrae.

A

Vertebrae prominens.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

What are scoliosis and kyphosis?

A

Kyphosis is an abnormal hunch at the top of the spine.Scoliosis is a medial-lateral curvature.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

What are the attachment sites of erector spinae?

A

Ribs, sacrum, iliac crest, vertebrae processes.Ribs, mastoid process, vertebrae processes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

What are the attachment sites of the deltoid muscle?

A

Clavicle, acromion, spine of the scapulaDeltoid tuberosity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

What are the attachment sites of the external obliques?

A

Ribs (5-12)Xiphoid process, iliac crest, pubic tubercle, linea alba, and anterior superior iliac spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

What are the attachment sites of the internal obliques?

A

Anterior superior iliac spine and iliac crest.Linea alba, superior ramus of pubis, ribs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

What are the attachment sites of the pectoralis major?

A

Clavicle, sternum, costal cartilageIntertubercle groove of humerus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

What are the attachment sites of the rectus abdominus?

A

Pubic crestRibs and xiphoid process.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

What are the attachment sites of the transversus abdominis?

A

Iliac crest, anterior superior iliac spine, costal cartilage.Xiphod process, linea alba, pubic crest, superior ramus of pubis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

What are the attachments of flexor digitorum superficialis?

A

Anterior radius, coronoid process of ulna, medial epicondyl of the humerus (through common flexor tendon)Anterior base of 2nd-5th phalanges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

What are the attachments of the bicep brachii?

A

Long: supraglenoid tubercle of scapulaShort: coracoid process of scapularadial tuberosity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

What are the attachments of the brachialis muscle?

A

Distal, anterior surface of humerusCoronoid process of ulna

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

What are the attachments of the extensor carpi radialis?

A

Longus: lateral supracondylar ridge of humerus2nd metacarpalBrevis: lateral epicondyl of the humerus (through common extensor tendon)base of 3rd metacarpal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

What are the attachments of the extensor carpi ulnaris?

A

Humeral head, lateral epicondyl of humerus (through common extensor tendon), ulnar head, olecranon process, posterior surface of ulna5th metacarpal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

What are the attachments of the extensor digitorum?

A

Lateral epicondyl of the humerus (through common extensor tendon)2nd-5th phalanges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

What are the attachments of the flexor carpi radialis?

A

Medial epicondyl of humerus (through common flexor tendon)2nd and 3rd metacarpals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

What are the attachments of the flexor carpi ulnaris?

A

Olecranon of Ulna, medial epicondyl of humerus (through common flexor tendon).Pisiform, hamate, 5th metacarpal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

What are the attachments of the gluteus maximus?

A

Ilium surface and sacrum.Lateral ridge of linea aspera.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

What are the attachments of the Iliacus?

A

Iliac fossaLesser trochanter of the femur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

What are the attachments of the latissimus dorsi?

A

Spinous processes of vertebrae, iliac crest, ribs, inferior angle of scapula.Intertubercular groove of the humerus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

What are the attachments of the psoas major?

A

VertebraeLesser trochanter of the femur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

What are the attachments of the serratus anterior?

A

Scapula: protraction, anterolateral rotation around the sternoclavicular joint/Accessory to inspiration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

What are the attachments of the tricep brachii?

A

Below glenoid cavity of scapula, posterior surface of humerus.Olecranon of ulna

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

What are the bones in the skull?

A

Occipital, parietal, orbit, temporal, maxilla, mandible, frontal, nasal, zygomatic bone and mastoid process.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

What are the five sections of the spine? (And number)

A

Cervical (7), Thoracic (12), Lumbar (5), Sacral (5 fused), coccygeal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

What are the joints involved with the clavicle?

A

Acromioclavicular (laterally).Sternoclavicular (medially).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

What are the major flexors of the elbow?

A

Bicep Brachii and Brachialis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

What are the muscles in the abdominal wall?

A

Two rectus abdominus, external obliques, internal obliques, transversus abdominus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

What are the muscles that aid movement around the shoulders?

A

Deltoid muscle, pectoralis major, trapezius, latissimus dorsi and serratus anterior.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

What are the roles of the tibia and fibula?

A

Tibia is large and weight bearing.Fibula has muscle attachment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

What are the six types of synovial joint?

A

Hinge, ellipsoid, ball-and-socket, plane, pivot and saddle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

What are the superficial extensors of the wrist?

A

Extensor carpi ulnaris, extensor carpi radialis (longus and brevis), and extensor digitorum,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

What are the superficial flexor muscles of the wrist joint?

A

Flexor carpi ulnarisFlexor carpi radialisFlexor digitorum superficialis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

What are the three types of joint?

A

Fibrous, cartilaginous, and synovial.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

What are the types of bone, structure, and their function?

A

Compact, outer shell and shaft. Resist force.Cancellous, lighter, trabeculae struts form irregular porous structure. Resist force.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

What are the types of cartilage?

A

Hyaline, elastic and fibrocartilage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

What are the types of cartilaginous joints?

A

Primary (synchondrosis) and secondary (symphysis).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

What are the types of connective tissue?

A

Proper, specialised (cartiage, bone, adipose, blood)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

What are the types of fibrous joint?

A

Suture (between flat bones) and syndesmoses (between long bones).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

What bones form the knee joint?

A

Femur, Patella, Tibia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

What does joint stability depend on?

A

Size, shape, form of articular surfacesLigamentsTone of muscle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

What is a joint?

A

A site where two or more bones meet.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

What is a ligament?

A

Join bone to bone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

What is a tendon?

A

Joins bone to muscle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

What is abduction/adduction?

A

Medial-Lateral movement. Abduction is raising.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

What is an aponeurosis?

A

A flattened out tendon. Pearly white in appearance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

What is connective tissue proper?

A

Loose (more cells), supporting functionDense, regular (more fibres, aligned) - strength (ligament/tendon)Dense, irregular (more fibres, not aligned) - strength (dermis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

What is deep fascia?

A

Dense fibrous connective tissue covering skeletal muscle, encloses muscles in compartments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

What is dorsiflexion?

A

Lift toes to shin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

What is flexion/extension?

A

Anterior-posterior movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

What is plantarflexion?

A

Going on tip toes/pressing on pedal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

What is special about the C1 vertebrae?

A

Atlas, is ring shaped as part of a pivot joint with C2. Has foramina in in the transverse process to allow the vertebral artery and vein to pass through.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

What is special about the C2 vertebrae?

A

Axis, has a upwards process (dens) which forms a pivot joint with C1 vertebrae. Has foramina in in the transverse process to allow the vertebral artery and vein to pass through.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

What is superficial fascia?

A

Subcutaneous fatty later under skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

What is the anatomical neck, how does it different from the surgical neck?

A

Grove around the head of the humerus. The surgical neck connects head to shaft, and is more likely to fracture.

189
Q

What is the composition and function of elastic cartilage?

A

Hyaline cartilage with elastin. Highly flexible. Forms epiglottis and ear structure.

190
Q

What is the composition and function of fibrocartilage?

A

Alternating layers of hyaline cartilage and type 1 collagen - tough/strength.Forms secondary cartilaginous joints: invertebral disc and pubic symphysis.

191
Q

What is the composition and function of hyaline cartilage?

A

Most common. Type 2 collagen. Smoothly lines articulating surfaces of synovial joint. Forms fetal skeleton.

192
Q

What is the composition of a ligament?

A

Connective tissue, largely parallel arrays of collagen fibres, with a small amount of elastin.

193
Q

What is the composition of a synchondrosis? Give an example.

A

Hyaline cartilage. Links ribs to costal cartilage.

194
Q

What is the composition of bone (connective tissue)?

A

ECM, synthesised by osteoblast, is hard and rigid. Inorganic: hydroxypatite (calcium phosphate) with fluoride/sodium/magnesium deposits.Organic: type 1 collagen.

195
Q

What is the composition of cartilage?

A

70% water, 20% collagen, 10% proteoglycans. Contains chondroblast.

196
Q

What is the composition of connective tissue?

A

Cells (typically fibroblast), collagen, ground substance

197
Q

What is the composition of of symphysis? Give an example.

A

Bones lined with hyaline cartilage, with a fibrocartilage disc/pad between them. Intevertebral disc, manubriosternal joint and symphysis pubis. Found on mid-line of the body.

198
Q

What is the foramen magnum?

A

Oval hole in base of occipital bone of the skull. Vertebral arteries and spinal cord pass through here.

199
Q

What is the frontal bone?

A

Superior anterior skull.

200
Q

What is the function of a ligament?

A

Provide strength and restrict excessive movement.

201
Q

What is the function of adipose (connective tissue)?

A

Insulation and energy (fat) store.

202
Q

What is the function of cartilage?

A

Resilient, smooth, shock absorbing, low friction on articular surfaces of bones.

203
Q

What is the function of erector spinae?

A

Extension of trunk. Stabilise flexion. Side bending.

204
Q

What is the function of extensor carpi ulnaris?

A

Extend and adduct wrist

205
Q

What is the function of external oblique?

A

Flexion, side bending, rotation.

206
Q

What is the function of flexor carpi radialis?

A

Wrist: flexion and abduction

207
Q

What is the function of flexor digitorum superficialis?

A

Wrist and 2nd-5th phalange flexion

208
Q

What is the function of internal oblique?

A

Flexion, side bending, rotation, forced expiration.

209
Q

What is the function of rectus abdominus?

A

Flexion, and intra-abdominal pressure

210
Q

What is the function of symphysis?

A

Permits limited movement.

211
Q

What is the function of the bicep brachii?

A

Elbow: flexion and supinationGlenohumoral: weak flexion

212
Q

What is the function of the brachialis muscle?

A

Elbow: flexion

213
Q

What is the function of the deltoid muscle?

A

Flexion/extention and internal/external rotation of the arm. Abduction.

214
Q

What is the function of the extensor carpi radialis?

A

Extensor and abductor at wrist joint

215
Q

What is the function of the extensor digitorum?

A

Extension at wrist and 2nd-5th metacapals

216
Q

What is the function of the flexor carpi ulnaris?

A

Flex and adduct wrist

217
Q

What is the function of the gluteus maximus?

A

Acetabulofemoral: extension, abduction, adduction, external rotation.

218
Q

What is the function of the Iliacus?

A

Acetabulofemoroal flexion, external rotation

219
Q

What is the function of the pectoralis major?

A

Arm: adduction, internal rotation, flexion and extension.Scapula: protract and depress.Accessory breathing muscle.

220
Q

What is the function of the psoas major?

A

Acetabulofemoral flexion, weak adduction and external rotation

221
Q

What is the function of the serratus anterior?

A

RibsAnterior+ posterior superior+inferior angle of scapula. Medial border of the scapula.

222
Q

What is the function of the trapezius muscle?

A

Scapula: retract, depress, rotate around sternoclavicular joint.Spine: rotation of head, extend neck.

223
Q

What is the function of the tricep brachii?

A

Elbow: extensionGlenohumoral: extension and adduction.

224
Q

What is the function of transversus abdominis?

A

Stabilise lumbar spine and pelvis. Corset effect.

225
Q

What is the ground substance?

A

Glycosaminoglycan (e.g. hyaluronic acid), proteoglycans, (bind water, give gel consistency) and glycoproteins.

226
Q

What is the head of the humerus?Whats the function?

A

Proximal end of the humerus, distinguishable by the anatomical neck.Articulates with the glenoid cavity of scapula for glenohumeral joint.

227
Q

What is the intevertebral foramina, and its purpose?

A

Gap between two articulating vertebrae. Allows nerves, arteries and veins to pass through.

228
Q

What is the lamina of the vertebrae?

A

Flatter section between the transverse process and spinous process.

229
Q

What is the linea alba? What is its function?

A

White fibrous line down middle of abdomen. Separates left and right rectus abdominis.

230
Q

What is the location and direction of the external obliques?

A

Most superficial, on lateral abdomen. Run diagonally (belly button to shoulders direction).

231
Q

What is the location and direction of the internal obliques?

A

Middle layer on lateral abdomen. Run diagonally (sternum to hips direction).

232
Q

What is the location and direction of the transversus abdominus?

A

Deepest layer on lateral abdomen. Run horizontally.

233
Q

What is the location of the mandible?

A

Lower jaw.

234
Q

What is the location of the mastoid process?

A

Sticky out bony bit behind ear.

235
Q

What is the location of the maxilla?

A

Two bones of the upper jaw.

236
Q

What is the location of the nasal bone?

A

Two bones behind the nose.

237
Q

What is the location of the occipital bone?

A

Posterior base of skull.

238
Q

What is the location of the orbit?

A

Bone around the eye socket.

239
Q

What is the location of the parietal bone?

A

Two parietals on roof off skull.

240
Q

What is the location of the rectus abdominus?

A

Two either side of midline, form six pack.

241
Q

What is the location of the temporal bone?

A

Two bones at lateral base of skull. Behind ear.

242
Q

What is the location of the zygomatic bone?

A

Two cheek bones.

243
Q

What is the main muscle of the back?

A

Erector spinae

244
Q

What is the major extensor muscle of the elbow?

A

Triceps brachii

245
Q

What is the pedicle on the a vertebrae?

A

Joins the body to the vertebral arch.

246
Q

What is the purpose of the coracoid process?

A

Ligament attachement.Tendon attachment for: pectoralis major and short head of bicep brachii.

247
Q

What is the purpose of the glenoid cavity?

A

Socket. Articulates with the head of the humerus.

248
Q

What is the purpose of the synovial membrane?

A

Secretes synovial fluid.

249
Q

What is the spinous process, and its purpose?

A

The posterior protrusion off the vertebral arch.Muscle attachment site.

250
Q

What is the structure of a synovial joint?

A

Bones covered with smooth hyaline cartilage, lubricated with synovial fluid, enclosed with a fibrous capsule which is lined internally with a synovial membrane.

251
Q

What is the thoracic inlet?

A

First rib, first thoracic vertebrae, superior manubrium.

252
Q

What is the transverse process of the vertebrae, and its purpose?

A

The lateral protrusions off the vertebral arch. Muscle attachment site.

253
Q

What is the vertebral foramen, and what is its purpose?

A

Hole in the middle of the vertebrae. Enclose the spinal cord.

254
Q

What is the xiphoid process?

A

Cartilaginous section inferiorly attached to sternum.

255
Q

What makes up the sternum?

A

Manubrium, body, xiphoid process.

256
Q

What makes up the thoracic cage?

A

Thoracic vertebrae, ribs/costae, costal cartilage, and the sternum.

257
Q

What movement can the scapula show?

A

Protraction and retraction (forwards/backwards)Elevated and depressed (shrug shoulders and relax)Rotate (medially and laterally).

258
Q

What movement is permitted between vertebrae?

A

Small amounts of flexion, extension, lateral flexion, lateral extension and rotation.Cumulative effect when all vertebrae work together.

259
Q

What movement is permitted by a ball-and-socket joint? Give an example.

A

Multi-axial movement: flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, medial and lateral rotation, circumduction.Acetabulofemoral and glenohumeral.

260
Q

What movement is permitted by a hinge joint? Give an example.

A

Uni-axial movement: flexion and extension. Elbow and interphalangeal joints.

261
Q

What movement is permitted by a pivot joint? Give an example.

A

Allows rotation. Atlas-axis vertebrae. Both radio-ulna joint.

262
Q

What movement is permitted by a plane joint? Give an example.

A

Allow gliding.Carpals, tarsals, acromioclavicular, sternocostal, and between vertebrae.

263
Q

What movement is permitted by a saddle joint? Give an example.

A

Biaxial: flexion, extension, abduction, adduction. No circumduction. Carpometacarpal joint of the thumb and sternoclavicular joint

264
Q

What movement is permitted by an ellipsoid joint? Give an example.

A

Bi-axial movement: flexion, extension, abduction and adduction.The wrist, metacarpophalangeal and metatarsophalangeal joints.

265
Q

What movement is possible at the ankle joint?

A

Dorsiflexion and plantarflexion.

266
Q

What movement is possible at the knee joint?

A

Flexion and extension.

267
Q

What movement is possible at the wrist joint?

A

Flexion, extension, abduction and adduction.

268
Q

What movement is possible in the interphalangeal joints?

A

Flexion and extension.

269
Q

What movement is possible in the metacarpophalangeal joint?

A

Flexion, extension, abduction and adduction. Circumduction (asides from the thumb)

270
Q

What movement is possible in the trunk?

A

Flexion, extension, lateral flexion and some rotation.

271
Q

What muscle is used for extension at the acetabulofemoral joint?

A

Gluteus maximus

272
Q

What muscle is used for flexion at the acetabulofemoral joint?

A

Iliopsoas muscle:Iliacus and Psoas Major

273
Q

What muscles attach via the common flexor tendon?

A

Flexor carpi radialisFlexor carpi ulnarisFlexor carpi digitorum superficialis

274
Q

What shows up on H&E staining?

A

Acidic nuclei are stained blue.Basic protein/cytoplasm are stained pink.

275
Q

What the composition of a tendon?

A

Parallel bundles of collagen.

276
Q

Whats the function of the latissimus dorsi?

A

Arm: adduction, extension, and internal rotation.Assist respiration

277
Q

Where is the adductor tubercle?What is its purpose?

A

Protrusion at base medial linea aspera ridge. Attachment of muscles.

278
Q

Where is the anterior inferior iliac spine?What is its purpose?

A

The bone ridge after the notch inferior to the anterior superior iliac spine. Next to acetabulum. Rectus femoris attaches here.

279
Q

Where is the anterior superior iliac spine?What is its purpose?

A

Bony projection, palpable anterior section. Muscle attachment, and clinical landmark.

280
Q

Where is the capitulum of the humerus?What is its purpose?

A

Lateral portion of the distal articulating region of the humerus.Articulates with the head of the radius.

281
Q

Where is the condyles of the femur?

A

Projection at posterior distal end of femur. Medial and lateral condyles on either side.

282
Q

Where is the condyles of the tibia?What is its purpose?

A

Lateral and medial protrusion at proximal head of tibia. Lateral: attachment for bicep femoris.Medial: attachment for semimembranosus (medial hamstring)

283
Q

Where is the coracoid process?

A

Anterior projection on superior, lateral scapula.

284
Q

Where is the coronoid fossa?What is its purpose?

A

Lateral anterior depression on the distal end of the humerus. Receives coronoid process during flexion at the elbow joint.

285
Q

Where is the coronoid process? What is its purpose?

A

Anterior bump at base of ulna proximal head. Brachialis and flexor digitorum superficialis attachment. Articulates with radial notch, and coronoid process of humerus when elbow flexed.

286
Q

Where is the deltoid tuberosity?What is its purpose?

A

Rough bump on anteriolateral humerus shaft.Deltoid muscle attachment.

287
Q

Where is the epicondyles of the femur?What is its purpose?

A

Superior and medial/lateral protrusions to the condyles of the femur. Muscle and ligament attachment.

288
Q

Where is the fovea capitis?What is its purpose?

A

Dimple on proximal head of femur.Ligament attachment.

289
Q

Where is the glenoid cavity?

A

Articular surface of the lateral superior scapula.

290
Q

Where is the greater sciatic notch?What is its purpose?

A

Groove between the posterior inferior iliac spine and the ischial spine.Forms large foramen next to lower sacrum for veins, arteries and nerves to pass through.

291
Q

Where is the greater trochanter?What is its purpose?

A

Protrusion lateral to the head of the femur. Muscle attachment.

292
Q

Where is the greater tubercle of the humerus?What is its purpose?

A

Larger, posterior projection at the head of the humerus. Site of attachment for teres minor muscle.

293
Q

Where is the iliac crest?What is its purpose?

A

Palpable ridge of superior lateral pelvis.Attachment for abdominal external and internal obliques, transversus abdominis, erector spinae, and latissimus dorsi.

294
Q

Where is the iliac fossa?

A

Anterior superior medial surface of the pelvic bone.

295
Q

Where is the inferior ramus of the pubis?What is its purpose?

A

Anterior, inferior, bone to the obturator foramen (ring).Attachment site for muscles.

296
Q

Where is the intercondylar notch?What is its purpose?

A

Deep groove between the medial and lateral condyles on the distal posterior femur. Helps stabilise the knee joint.

297
Q

Where is the intertubercular (bicipital) groove?What is its purpose?

A

Groove between the lesser and greater tubercle at the head of the humerus.Attachment for long head of bicep brachii

298
Q

Where is the intracondular eminence of the tibia?What is its purpose?

A

Ridge between medial and lateral protrusions at head of tibia. Ligament attachment site.

299
Q

Where is the ischial spine?What is its purpose?

A

Bump posterior to the acetabulum, separates the greater and lesser sciatic notches. Muscle attachment, and also tendon which forms the sciatic foramen.

300
Q

Where is the ischial tuberosity?What is its purpose?

A

Posterior ischium, on superior ramus, “sitting bone”.Muscle and ligament attachment, including bicep femoris.

301
Q

Where is the lateral epicondyle of the humerus?What is its purpose?

A

Lateral bump on distal end of the humerus. Attachment site of extensor carpi ulnaris and extensor carpi radialis brevis.

302
Q

Where is the lateral malleolus?What is its purpose?

A

Bony bit on lateral ankle. Palpable. Muscle and ligament attachment

303
Q

Where is the lateral supracondylar ridge of the humerus?What is its purpose?

A

Ridge proximal to the lateral epicondyle. Extensor carpi radialis longus and Triceps brachii attachment site.

304
Q

Where is the lesser sciatic notch?What is its purpose?

A

Groove just below ischial spine.Forms small foramen inferior to the greater sciatic foramen for veins, arteries and nerves to pass through.

305
Q

Where is the lesser trochanter?What is its purpose?

A

Protrusion inferior (medial) to the head of the femur.Psoas major attachment.

306
Q

Where is the lesser tubercle of the humerus?

A

Smaller, anterior projection at the head of the humerus.

307
Q

Where is the linea aspera?What is its purpose?

A

Rough ridge on posterior shaft of femur.Gluteus maximus and other muscle/ligament attachments.

308
Q

Where is the medial epicondyle of the humerus?What is its purpose?

A

Medial bump on the distal end of the humerus. Attachment site of the common flexor tendon.

309
Q

Where is the medial malleolus?What is its purpose?

A

Bony bit on medial ankle. Palpable.Muscle and ligament attachment

310
Q

Where is the medial supracondylar ridge of the humerus?What is its purpose?

A

Ridge proximal to the medial epicondyle.Tricep brachii attachment site.

311
Q

Where is the obturator foramen?What is its purpose?

A

Hole formed between ischium, and the pubic rami.Hole for nerves and bones to pass through.

312
Q

Where is the olecranon fossa?What is its purpose?

A

Deep depression on posterior distal humerus. Receives the olecranon process during extension at the elbow joint.

313
Q

Where is the olecranon process?What is its purpose?

A

Posterior bony hook, proximal end of ulna.Tricep brachii and flexor carpi ulnaris attachment.Sits in olecranon fossa when elbow joint extended.

314
Q

Where is the patella surface?What is its purpose?

A

Anterior distal femur surface.Articulates with the patella.

315
Q

Where is the popliteal surface?

A

Smooth triangle surface on posterior femur. Bound by linea aspera and the condyles.

316
Q

Where is the posterior inferior iliac spine?What is its purpose?

A

Posterior iliac edge, after the notch seperating it from the superior spine (skin dimple sometimes visible)

317
Q

Where is the posterior superior iliac spine?

A

Posterior to the iliac crest. Palpable. Ends at notch where it becomes the inferior spine (skin dimple sometimes visible)

318
Q

Where is the pubic tubercle?What is its purpose?

A

Palpable anterior bump on medial pubis. Ligament attachment site.

319
Q

Where is the radial (spiral) groove?What is its purpose?

A

Groove on posterior surface of humerus. Radial nerve passes along here, along with vessels.

320
Q

Where is the radial fossa?What is its purpose?

A

Medial anterior depression on the distal end of the humerus. Receives head of the radius during flexion at the elbow joint.

321
Q

Where is the radial notch?What is its purpose?

A

Narrow depression on lateral side of coronoid process (head of ulna).Articulates with head of the radius at proximal radioulnar joint.

322
Q

Where is the radial tuberosity?What is its purpose?

A

Medial radius, distal to the neck of the radius.Attachment site for bicep brachii.

323
Q

Where is the spine of the scapula?

A

Ridge on superior, posterior scapula.

324
Q

Where is the styloid process?What is its purpose?

A

Ulnar: distal medial bump. Extensor carpi ulnaris attachment.Radial: distal lateral bump.

325
Q

Where is the superior ramus of the pubis?What is its purpose?

A

Anterior, superior, bone to the obturator foramen (ring). Attachment site for muscles and tendons.

326
Q

Where is the supracondylar ridges/lines femur?

A

Ridges continuing from the bifurcation of the linea aspera on the posterior distal femur.

327
Q

Where is the tibial plateau?What is its purpose?

A

Flat surface at proximal head of tibia. Articulates with the femur.

328
Q

Where is the tibial tuberosity?What is its purpose?

A

Bony projection on anterior proximal tibia, palpable.Common ligament for quadriceps femoris, and ligament holding patella in place. Prevents collapse of knee.

329
Q

Where is the trochlea notch?What is its purpose?

A

Depression formed from olecranon and coronoid process at head of ulnar. Fits trochlea of the humerus.

330
Q

Where is the trochlea of the humerus?What is its purpose?

A

Medial portion of the distal articulating region of the humerus.Articulates with the trochlea notch of the ulna

331
Q

Where is the ulnar notch?What is its purpose?

A

Smooth concave surface on distal end of the radius. Articulates with the ulna for the distal radioulnar joint.

332
Q

Why are the cervical vertebrae not palpable?

A

They’re deep to muscle and a strong ligament (ligamentum nuchae)

333
Q

What are the extensor muscles of the knee joint?

A

Quadriceps femoris: vastus muscles and rectus femoris

334
Q

What is the function of rectus femoris?

A

Acetabulofemoral flexion Knee joint extension

335
Q

What are the attachments of rectus femoris?

A

Anterior inferior iliac spine, acetabulum margin Tibial tuberosity

336
Q

What is the function of the vastas muscles?

A

Extension at knee joint

337
Q

What are the attachments of the vastas muscles

A

Linea aspera, greater trochanter of the femur, anterior proximal femur Tibial tuberosity

338
Q

What are the flexor muscles of the knee joint?

A

Hamstring group. Medial, middle and lateral muscles.

339
Q

What are the attachments of the hamstring group?

A

Ischial tuberosity, linea aspera, lateral supracondylar line of femur Medial surface of tibia, medial tibial condyle, lateral side of fibula head.

340
Q

What is the function of the hamstring group?

A

Knee extension Hip flexion.

341
Q

What superficial muscles control dorsiflexion of the ankle joint?

A

Tibialis anterior

342
Q

What superficial muscles control plantarflexion?

A

Gastrocnemius (two heads) and Soleus

343
Q

What is the function of the tibialis anterior?

A

Dorsiflexion and to invert foot (lift medial side)

344
Q

What are the attachments of the tibialis anterior?

A

Lateral tibia condyl, tibial shaft, interosseous membrane Medial cuneiform, base of 1st metatarsal

345
Q

What is the function of the gastrocnemius?

A

Plantarflexion and flexion at knee

346
Q

What are the attachments of the gastrocnemius?

A

Lateral: lateral condyle of femur Medial: medial condyle of femur. Popliteal surface of femoral shaft. Calcaneus

347
Q

What is the function of the soleus?

A

Plantarflexion

348
Q

What are the attachments of the soleus?

A

Posterior and medial tibia, fibula head, posterior border of fibula Calcaneus

349
Q

What are cranial nerves?

A

Nerves carrying information to/from the brain

350
Q

What are spinal nerves?

A

Nerves carrying information to/from the spinal cord

351
Q

What is sensory information?

A

Information received by external/internal environments, taken to CNS

352
Q

What is motor information?

A

Information from CNS, carried via autonomic and somatic nervous system to effector

353
Q

What are the main structural parts of a neuron?

A

Nucleated cell body, dendrites (receivers) and an axon (away from cell body)

354
Q

What are afferent neurons?

A

Carry sensory information towards the CNS

355
Q

What are efferent neurons?

A

Carry motor information away from the CNS

356
Q

What is a nerve plexus?

A

A network of nerve fibres from different regions of the CNS fused together

357
Q

What is the function of a nerve plexus?

A

Allows multiple nerve fibres (axons) to be distributed in a single peripheral nerve

358
Q

What is a ganglion?

A

Collection of neuronal cell bodies, outside the CNS

359
Q

How many spinal nerves are there?

A

31: 8 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 sacral, 1 coccygeal

360
Q

How do the spinal nerves leave the spinal cord?

A

They leave through the intervertebral foramen. C1-7 leave above corresponding vertebrae C8 leaves below C7 vertebrae T1 onwards leaves below corresponding vertebrae

361
Q

What forms the intervertebral foramen?

A

Inferior vertebral notch (on superior vertebrae) Superior vertebral notch (on inferior vertebrae)

362
Q

Describe the gross structure of the spinal cord.

A

Begins from lower border of foramen magnum (skull), continuous with medulla oblongata, ends L1/2 with the conus medullaris (tapering end) and cauda equina (bundle of spinal nerves)

363
Q

What is the conus medullaris?

A

The tapering end of the inferior spinal cord

364
Q

Describe the structure of a transverse section of spinal cord

A

Outer, white matter region Central grey matter: dorsal (thinner), lateral and ventral horns

365
Q

What does the dorsal horn of the spinal cord do?

A

Receives sensory information (including fine touch, proprioception and vibration)

366
Q

What does the lateral horn of the spinal cord do?

A

Involved in sympathetic activity of the autonomic nervous system. Typically T1-L2

367
Q

What does the ventral horn of the spinal cord do?

A

Contains cell bodies of motor neurones that affect skeletal muscle

368
Q

What layers cover the spinal cord?

A

Meninges, connective tissue. (superficial) dura mater (middle) arachnoid mater (deep) pia mater

369
Q

Describe the pathway of nerves from spinal cord, to

A

Rootlets emerge from the spinal cord (ventral/dorsal) Merge to create respective root (Dorsal/ventral) Roots merge to create spinal nerve Spinal nerve divides into rami (ventral/dorsal/white/grey)

370
Q

What information is contained in ventral roots/rootlets?

A

Motor information

371
Q

What information is contained in dorsal roots/rootlets?

A

Sensory information

372
Q

What information is contained in spinal nerves?

A

Motor and sensory information

373
Q

What information is carried in the rami?

A

Dorsal/ventral: mixed information Grey: postganglionic autonomic information White: preganglionic autonomic information

374
Q

What structure is unique to the dorsal root?

A

Dorsal root ganglion, containing cell bodies of sensory neurons

375
Q

What is the function of the denticulate ligament?

A

Delicate membrane of pia mater, attached to arachnoid and dura mater. Provide stability to spinal cord

376
Q

Where is the cerebrospinal fluid found?

A

In the subarachnoid space, between arachnoid mater and pia mater, the central canal, and the ventricular system

377
Q

What is the function of cerebrospinal fluid?

A

Cushioning of spinal cord/brain. Also helps clear waste and circulate nutrients.

378
Q

What is the cauda equina?

A

Bundle of nerve roots (L2-S5+coccygeal nerve), inferior to spinal cord. These are not spinal nerves until they leave the spinal column

379
Q

What is the filum terminale?

A

Modified pia mater, extending inferior to the spinal cord, enclosing the cauda equina. Contained in dura mater.

380
Q

Where is the epidural space?

A

Space between vertebral canal and dura mater

381
Q

What is the blood supply to the spinal cord?

A

Spinal arteries which arise in the neck (often from vertebral arteries. These run caudally, anterior and posterior to the spinal cord, in the subarachnoid space

382
Q

Why is the spinal column longer than spinal cord?

A

It is same length in embryonic development, but the column grows more quickly after that.

383
Q

What is the relationship between cervical vertebrae and their spinous process?

A

Spinous process is 1 lower on spinal cord segments

384
Q

What is the relationship between upper thoracic vertebrae and their spinous process?

A

Spinous process is 2 lower on spinal cord segments

385
Q

What is the relationship between lower thoracic vertebrae and their spinous process?

A

Spinous process is 3 lower on spinal cord segments

386
Q

What is the size difference between the dorsal and ventral rami?

A

Dorsal is smaller, as it only supplies the back

387
Q

Where is a lumbar puncture performed? What surface markers can be used?

A

L3/4, below spinal cord. L4 vertebrae is level with the iliac crest

388
Q

What do the thoracic dorsal rami supply?

A

The erector spinae group of muscles and an area of skin over each, level with the vertebrae

389
Q

What is the path of the thoracic ventral rami?

A

Form intercostal nerves, pass anteriorly in intercostal space (VAN), supplying chest. Lateral cutaneous branches supply the skin. The inferior nerves continue into the abdomen to supply those muscles and skin.

390
Q

What is a dermatome?

A

Area of skin supplied by a single spinal nerve

391
Q

Describe dermatome C1

A

No skin area

392
Q

Describe dermatome C2

A

Skull

393
Q

Describe dermatome C3

A

Neck, stop at subclavicular fossa

394
Q

Describe dermatome C4

A

Front shoulder, stop at acromioclavicular joint

395
Q

Describe dermatome C5

A

Laterally Glenohumoral joint to antecubital fossa

396
Q

Describe dermatome C6

A

Laterally Antecubital fossa to thumb and 2nd finger

397
Q

Describe dermatome C7

A

3rd and 4th finger

398
Q

Describe dermatome C8

A

Little finger and distal 1/2 of medial forearm

399
Q

Describe dermatome T1

A

Over 1st rib, axillary, and medial upper arm

400
Q

Describe dermatome T2-T12

A

Follows path of rib

401
Q

Describe dermatome L1

A

Superior, anterior thigh, below V markings

402
Q

Describe dermatome L2

A

Mid, anterior thigh

403
Q

Describe dermatome L3

A

Lower, anterior thigh, end at knee

404
Q

Describe dermatome L4

A

Anterior medial lower leg, anterior lateral inferior thigh

405
Q

Describe dermatome L5

A

Middle lower leg, first, second, third toes

406
Q

Describe dermatome S1

A

Lateral lower leg, lateral malleolus, fourth and fifth toe, lateral posterior leg, outermost sacral area

407
Q

Describe dermatome S3-5

A

Circles around sacrum and perianal area

408
Q

Describe S2

A

Medial posterior leg and outer sacral area

409
Q

What is a myotome?

A

Area of muscle innervated by a single spinal nerve

410
Q

Where do the cell bodies of motor neurons reside?

A

Ventral horn of grey matter

411
Q

What is the somatic nervous system?

A

Voluntary nervous system, skeletal muscle

412
Q

What is a somatic reflex arc?

A

Simplest neural pathway that activates a reflex

413
Q

What do somatic plexuses supply?

A

Skin, voluntary skeletal muscle and joints

414
Q

What do autonomic plexuses supply?

A

Blood vessels and viscera

415
Q

Name the somatic nerve plexuses, and give their spinal nerve origins

A

Cervical: C1-4 Brachial: C5-C8 and T1 Lumbar: L1-4 Sacral: L4-5 and S1-4

416
Q

What does each somatic nerve plexus supply?

A

Cervical: Neck and Shoulder Brachial: Upper limbs Lumbar: Anterior thigh (lower limb) Sacral: Posterior thigh and lower leg (lower limb)

417
Q

What are the nerves which arise from the brachial plexus?

A

Axillary, Radial, Musculocutaneous, Ulnar and Median

418
Q

Give the pathway of the axillary nerve.

A

Arise from posterior cord (behind humerus), splits high up and goes across to the shoulder

419
Q

Give the pathway of the radial nerve

A

Arises from posterior cord (behind humerus), travels posteriorly to posterior arm, forearm and hand

420
Q

Give the pathway of the musculocutaneous nerve

A

Arise from lateral cord, stay lateral, supplies anterior arm

421
Q

Give the pathway of the ulnar nerve

A

Arises from medial cord, can be felt by medial epicondyle, towards anterior-medial forearm and hand

422
Q

Give the pathway of the medial nerve

A

Arises from medial and lateral cord, passes through antecubital fossa, towards anterior-lateral forearm and hand

423
Q

What nerves arise from the lumbar plexus?

A

Femoral and Obturator

424
Q

What nerves arise from the sacral plexus?

A

Sciatic

425
Q

Give the pathway of the femoral nerve.

A

From lumbar plexus, passes anteriorly to the thigh, to the quadricep femoris muscle compartment

426
Q

Give the pathway of the obturator nerve.

A

From lumbar plexus, pass medial through pelvis, to the medial thigh adductors

427
Q

Give the pathway of the sciatic nerve.

A

From the sacral plexus, leaves pelvis through greater sciatic foramen, into the gluteal region and down the posterior leg to the popliteal fossa. Supply foot and lower leg

428
Q

When do lower limb buds appear?

A

Upper: day 24 Lower: day 28

429
Q

Limbs are derived from which germ layers?

A

Ectoderm: skin Mesoderm: skeletomuscular system

430
Q

What is an apical ectodermal ridge?

A

Structure formed on distal end of limb buds, directs proximo-distal growth. Promotes underlying mesenchyme to form cartilage and muscle.

431
Q

What is mesenchyme?

A

Undifferentiated embryonic connective tissue

432
Q

When are handplates and footplates formed?

A

Week 6

433
Q

How are digits formed?

A

Apoptosis in sections of the apical ectodermal ridge

434
Q

When is limb development most sensitive?

A

Weeks 4 and 5 of embryonic development

435
Q

What are limb abnormalities called?

A

Amelia: complete absense Meromelia: partial absense

436
Q

What is the significance of limb rotation in embryonic development?

A

Rotation (weeks 6-8) results in spiraling of the dermatomes. Upper limb rotates laterally. The lower limb rotates medially, and is more extreme.

437
Q

What are the divisions of the autonomic nervous system?

A

Sympathetic and Parasympathetic

438
Q

What are the types of efferent neurons in the autonomic nervous system?

A

Preganglionic and Postganglionic.

439
Q

What is the origin of the sympathetic nervous system?

A

The grey matter of the thoracolumbar autonomic outflow (T1 - L2 or L3)

440
Q

Where do preganglionic neurons synapse?

A

Paravertebral ganglia (sympathetic chain): anterolaterally alongside the vertebral column Prevertebral ganglia: anterior to vertebral column

441
Q

What are splanchnic nerves?

A

Nerves which pass through the sympathetic chain without synapsing. Can be sympathetic or parasympathetic. Parasympathetic are often called pelvic splanchnic nerves

442
Q

What is the arrangement of ganglia in sympathetic chain?

A

Closely correspond to the number of vertebrae, except in the cervical region when they are fused into 3 ganglia (instead of 7). Sometimes the inferior cervical ganglion can fuse with the upper thoracic ganglion.

443
Q

What is the arrangement of prevertebral ganglia?

A

They form plexuses

444
Q

How are sweat glands and blood vessels in the trunk innervated?

A

Through intercostal nerves, by way of the paravertebral sympathetic

445
Q

How does the sympathetic nervous system innervate the upper limbs?

A

Arising from the thoracolumbar autonomic outflow (T1 - L2 or 3), travel to the level of the spinal nerves responsible for the brachial plexus, synapse in the cervical paravertebral ganglia. Postganglionic neurons enter the brachial plexus.

446
Q

How does the sympathetic nervous system innervate the lower limbs?

A

Arise from the thoracolumbar autonomic outflow (T1 - L2 or 3). Preganglionic nerves travel down sympathetic chain until they’re at the ganglia associated with lumbosacral plexus spinal nerves. Synapse here, postganglionic neurons enter the lumbosacral plexus

447
Q

What is the origin of the parasympathetic nervous system?

A

Brain stem (cranial) origin (III, VII, IX or X) or sacral spinal cord (S2-4). The Craniosacral autonomic outflow.

448
Q

What is the typical path of a preganglionic parasympathetic nerve?

A

Craniosacral origin, no paravertebral ganglia, synapse in prevertebral ganglia close to organ (deep in body).

449
Q

How is sensory information carried in the autonomic nervous system?

A

Carried from viscera, to sensory ganglia (associated with cranial or spinal nerves depending on PNS or SNS), to CNS, then local reflex arc or to higher centres in the brain.

450
Q

What are the 3 parts of the brain?

A

Cerebrum (main body: cerebral hemispheres and basal ganglia) Cerebellum (walnut next to brainstem) Brainstem

451
Q

What are the groves on the cerebrum called?

A

Longitudinal fissure: grove divides cerebral hemispheres Sulci (sulcus): valleys between ridges Gyri (gyrus): ridges

452
Q

What are the four major lobes of the brain, their relative locations and role?

A

Frontal lobe: rostral (anterior), motor and decision function Temporal lobe: inferior temporal, memory function Parietal lobe: superior middle, sensory function Occipital lobe: caudal (posterior), visual processing

453
Q

What is the corpus callosum?

A

Thick C-shaped white matter connective tissue in centre of cerebrum

454
Q

What are some of the structures found below the cerebral cortex, and their function?

A

Basal ganglia (superior) - movement control Thalami/Thalamus - relay centres Hypothalamus (inferior, caudal to the above) - hormone control Hippocampus (inferior, rostral) - memory formation

455
Q

What is the ventricular system of the brain?

A

Cavities containing CSF, containing choroid plexus, it is continuous with the central canal of the spinal cord

456
Q

What is the choroid plexus?

A

Network of ependymal cells

457
Q

What are ependymal cells?

A

Cells lining ventricular system, they secrete CSF

458
Q

How is CSF reabsorbed?

A

Arachnoid granulations drain them to the venous system

459
Q

What can happen if the ventricular system is compromised?

A

Blockage leads to buildup of CSF, leading to raised intracranial pressure

460
Q

Describe the structure of the brainstem.

A

Midbrain (superior) Pons Medulla Oblongata (inferior)

461
Q

How is the brainstem connected to the cerebrum?

A

3 pairs of cerebellar peduncles

462
Q

What information is contained in the brainstem?

A

Sensory pathways (ascending) and motor pathways (descending) to/from the spinal cord

463
Q

What is ataxia?

A

Lack of voluntary muscle coordination, can be a result of brainstem damage

464
Q

What are the grooves of the cerebellum?

A

Deep fissures and shallower folia

465
Q

What is the dentate nucleus?

A

Large prominent nucleus, deep in brainstem, controls voluntary movement

466
Q

What are nerve fibres made up of?

A

Axon and supporting schwann cell

467
Q

What are bundles of nerve fibres called?

A

Nerve fascicles

468
Q

What connective tissue binds nerve fibres?

A

Epineurium: dense irregular, groups fascicles together Perineurium: surrounds a fascicle Endonurium: loose, surrounds individual fibres and blood vessels

Medical School Anatomy (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions