Fort Wainwright Alaska Aviation Procedures Guide Flashcards

1
Q

What does the APG say about GNSS-T route structure use?

A

Aircraft in Alaska may only operate on Global Navigational Satellite System (GNSS) T-routes with Global Position Satellite (GPS)/ Wide Area Augmentation Systems (WAAS) TSO-C145 or TSO-C146 equipment. Units must ensure that the GPS installed in their aircraft meet TSO-C145 or TSO-C146 specifications prior to operating on T-routes on the enroute structure. Most U.S Army rotary wing aircraft that are RNAV capable are IAW TSO-C129 specifications. TSO-C129 aircraft will not operate on GNSS-T Routes in Alaska. Prior to RNAV (GPS) IFR operations pilots should become familiar with what type of equipment they are operating. Good planning and knowledge of your RNAV system are critical for safe and successful operations.

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2
Q

What does the APG say about radio failure procedures?

A

a. Should the pilot of an aircraft equipped with a coded radar beacon transponder experience a loss of two-way radio capability he should adjust his transponder to reply on Mode A/3, Code 7600.

b. Pilots should understand that they may not be in an area of radar coverage. Also, many radar facilities are not presently equipped to automatically display Code 7600 and will interrogate 7600 only when the aircraft is under direct radar control at the time of radio failure. However, replying on Code 7700 first increases the probability of early detection of a radio failure condition.

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3
Q

What is the USARAK-MOU-054?

A

USARAK-MOU-054 is a Memorandum of Understanding with the AKRCC that establishes procedures for DoD Support to Civil Search and Rescue (SAR) operations. This memorandum highlights established guidance and does not task 11th Airborne Division with any additional requirements. Aviation units should expect that they may be called upon to support.

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4
Q

What does the APG say about OTH comms?

A

Units should consider having some type of OTH communication while transitioning through the Alaskan airspace. High frequency (HF) radios and Personal Locator Beacons (PLB) can sometimes work better than traditional Satellite Communications (SATCOM) due to the extreme northern latitudes of Alaska. Blue Force Tracker is another tool that can work for OTH communications.

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5
Q

Can aircraft operate without an ELT? What are the exceptions to this rule?

A

A) IAW USARAK 95-1 aircraft will not operate without an Emergency Locator Transmitter (ELT) outside the local traffic pattern

B) Only if conducting multi-aircraft operations with a minimum of one operational ELT within the flight

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6
Q

What is Muskeg? How can it affect us?

A

A) Muskeg is a type of soil that is commonly found in the Arctic and boreal lands. Muskeg is a term used to describe a specific type of soil found in peatland and bog landscapes. It has high acidity and poor nutrient levels. The landscape surrounding muskeg soil is often characterized by wetlands, peat, sphagnum moss, and stunted conifer trees. Muskeg is created in areas where water is unable to drain off due to a layer of clay, permafrost, or bedrock in the soil.

B) What looks like a dry landing area can often be a floating layer of vegetation that will sink when landed on. In the winter months, the top layer of muskeg can freeze, while leaving unfrozen water underneath. There is a potential for the aircraft to break through this top layer while landing. Aircrews must be aware of these conditions and use caution when attempting to land in an area where muskeg may be present.

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7
Q

What missions cannot be accomplished with skis installed?

A

FRIES, Airborne Operations, hoist (unless foldable skis installed)

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8
Q

What are the primary fuel sources available in Alaska?

A

The primary fuel sources in Alaska are JP8 / JET A / JET A-1. Units should be familiar with the characteristics of what fuel type they are using and how it performs in extreme cold temperatures.

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9
Q

What does the APG say concerning the fuel selector lever? Why?

A

A) Do not leave fuel selector levers in direct or cross-feed positions, fuel selector levers should always be left in the OFF position when outside.

B) This is a safety issue because if the cable is freezing, emergency engine shutdown and removal of fuel cannot be accomplished during an emergency

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10
Q

What areas of the aircraft do you particularly check for water build up prior to unhangaring an aircraft?

A

Always check that engine inlets and flight control components do not have water in them before opening hangar doors and pushing an aircraft out.

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11
Q

What does the APG say concerning hangaring aircraft in regards to snow forecasted and flight schedules?

A

A) Plan to have the next day’s flight schedule aircraft and spare in the hangar if possible. Also, plan how the aircraft are arranged so that moving them out can be a smooth process while minimizing the hangar door being opened.

B) When snow is forecast, use aircraft covers or have a plan in place for bringing aircraft into the hangar overnight to allow the snow and ice to melt off. (Recommend beginning with the FMC aircraft first followed by the maintenance aircraft).

C) When snow falls, have a plan in place for the ramp to be plowed. Anticipate parking all aircraft on one side if possible, which will allow facilities support or DPW to plow the primary parking rows.

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12
Q

What does CTRA mean and what further limitations does TC 3-04.5 apply to Army Aviators?

A

A) Cold Temperature Restricted Airport

B) TC 3-04.5 Instrument Flight for Army Aviators has specific Army requirements of how and when to apply the cold temperature corrections. The following requirements are slightly more restrictive than the FAA CRTA requirements.

(1) Add to the published decision altitude/DH or MDA and step-down fixes inside the FAF whenever outside air temperature is less than 0 degree C.

(2) Add to all altitudes in the procedure in designated mountainous regions whenever outside air temperature is 0 degree C or less.

(3) Add to all altitudes in the procedure whenever outside air temperature is –30 degrees C or less.

(4) Add to procedure turn, intermediate approach altitude, and height above touchdown (HAT)/height above airport (HAA) when they are 3,000 feet or more above the altimeter setting source.

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13
Q

What does the Alaska Chart Supplement say about altimeter error in extreme cold temperatures?

A

The Alaskan Chart Supplement states extreme low temperatures will cause serious errors in indicated altitude.

It is suggested that the next higher altitude than normal, appropriate to direction of flight, be requested on routes with minimum enroute altitudes greater than 5000ft.

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14
Q

What does the APG say to refer to concerning NVG currency during Summer Months? What does that reference say?

A

A) TC 3-04.11

B) Units and personnel operating at latitudes in which at least one hour of continuous NVG conditions do not exist from end of evening nautical twilight to beginning of morning nautical twilight may use an accredited simulation device, as listed in the ATM, once during this period to maintain NVG currency.

Alternatively, units operating at latitudes where the above statement applies and no compatible simulator is located within 200 statute miles may extend NVG currency in writing by the ATP commander, for SPs/IPs/SIs/FIs up to 120 days.

When the 120 day currency has lapsed, the unit may use the self-start provision in this TC; the flight will be assessed as a moderate risk. Simulation devices will not be used for NVG PFEs or unit self-start provision.

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15
Q

For Ladd Army Airfield, what are the Base Operations and Tower hours of operation? Are their exceptions?

A

A) Base Operations normal hours of operation are 0800 to 1700L, Monday to Friday. Normal tower hours of operations are 0800L to 2300L, Monday to Friday. All facilities are closed on weekends and federal holidays.

B) Extended/special hours of operation are available (personnel permitting) through written coordination with the Airfield Manager six weeks prior to requested implementation.

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16
Q

What class airspace is LAAF?

A

Ladd Tower provides air traffic control operational support within the LAAF Class D surface area during hours published in the Alaskan Chart Supplement Guide. Class D during operational times. All other times will be Class G or as established by NOTAM.

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17
Q

What are the Hangars at LAAF and what units / equipment occupy them?

A

a. Hangar 1 is a historical hangar with no capacity to store aircraft. It contains several simulators and running track.

b. Hangar 3 is utilized by D Company 1-25 Aviation, a UAS company.

c. Hangar 4 is utilized by 1-52 General Aviation Support Battalion (GSAB). Currently Alpha (UH60L) and Bravo (CH47F) companies and aircraft utilize this hangar. 1-52 GSAB Aviation Life Support Equipment (ALSE) personal, Flight Surgeon and Flight Operations operates out of this building.

d. Hangar 5 is utilized by 1-25 Attack Reconnaissance Battalion (AB). Their 3 flight companies (AH64D) utilize this hangar along with 1-25 AB Aviation Life Support Equipment (ALSE) personal, Flight Surgeon and Flight Operations operates out of this building.

e. Hangar 6 is utilized by Charlie Company 1-52 GSAB MEDEVAC (HH60L/M)

f. Hangar 7 is utilized by the Alaska National Guard including UH60L aircraft and operations personnel.

g. The warm storage hangar is occupied by 1-25 AB.

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18
Q

What approaches exist at LAAF?

A
  1. PAR
  2. ASR
  3. NDB-A
  4. RNAV RWY 25
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19
Q

What service provides continuous air traffic control services for LAAF? What services are expressly provided?

A

A) Fairbanks Approach Control provides continuous air traffic control services.

B) Services include:

a. Approach control services for LAAF and Fairbanks International Airport.

b. IFR departure, arrival, and enroute traffic separation.

c. VFR traffic advisories.

d. Terminal Radar Services Area (TRSA) coverage.

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20
Q

What are the exception to filing an approved DD Form 1801 with Flight Operations?

A

A) An aircraft departing on a Maintenance Test Flight Strip.

B) Crews may file a flight plan directly with FSS when departing from an airfield without a military Base Operations.

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21
Q

How far ahead should pilots ensure Base Ops receives DD Form 1801s? What happens if not activated within a certain time period?

A

A) Base Operations should receive VFR flight plans no later than 30 minutes prior to Estimated Time of Departure (ETD). IFR flight plans must be received no later than 1 hour prior to ETD.

B) Flight plans will be canceled if not activated within two hours of ETD. Refer to LAAF SOP for more detailed flight plan filing procedures.

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22
Q

What does the APG say about flight plans that extend past the published operating hours of Base Operations?

A

All flight plans that extend past the published operating hours of Base Operations require coordination with FAI FSS and will be passed to the FAA as required.

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23
Q

What does the APG require crews who have already submitted an 1801 directly to the FAA?

A

Crews who file flight plans digitally directly with the FAA will ensure that Base Operations (when open) receives a copy of the flight plan within the timelines listed in the APG.

The copy will be clearly marked in Block 18 of the DD Form 1801 that it has already been filed directly with the FAA.

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24
Q

What Taxiway leads to the Hot Point? What pads are for UHs?

A

A) S Taxiway

B) Pads 1 and 3

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25
Q

What are the listed pattern altitudes for LAAF? What’s the minimum altitude over the cantonment area?

A

a. Rotary Wing (D/N/NVG): 1200ft MSL

a. Fixed Wing

(1) Piston: 1500ft MSL

(2) Turbo Prop: 2000ft MSL

b. Minimum Altitude over the cantonment area: 1200ft MSL except when in the traffic pattern. Exceptions may be approved by BN/SQ commander and must be coordinated with airfield management as well as ATC.

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26
Q

When the tower is closed at night, what is the maximum aircraft density for Runway 07/25 and Hotel Taxiway?

A

The maximum number of aircraft in closed traffic at night will be four aircraft in total for the Runway 07/25 and Hotel Taxiway

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27
Q

What is the airspeed for traffic patterns?

A

Traffic in both the north and south traffic patterns shall not exceed 100 KTS unless approved by LAAF Tower.

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28
Q

What are the three VFR entry and exit corridors at LAAF?

A

LAAF has three established VFR entry/exit corridors: Nordale, Salchaket and River.

29
Q

What are the directions, dimensions, and altitudes of the Nordale corridor?

A

(1) Two-way corridor for VFR or SVFR traffic departing and arriving Ladd Army Airfield and the cantonment area from the east.

(2) Corridor dimensions: Width: 250 meters either side of the centerline

(3) Flight altitudes unless weather conditions require lower altitudes:

(a) Outbound: 1,500 feet MSL Day/Night/NVG. Traffic will proceed as directed by ATC, once clear the traffic pattern, climb to 1,500 feet MSL then proceed direct to Nordale (VS 8090 9425).

(b) Inbound: 1,800 feet MSL Day/Night/NVG. Traffic will arrive at CP Nordale (VS 8090 9425) at 1800 feet MSL then then direct to LAAF and enter the traffic pattern as directed by ATC.

30
Q

What are the directions, dimensions, and altitudes of the Salchaket corridor?

A

(1) One-way inbound corridor for VFR or SVFR traffic arriving to Ladd Army Airfield and the cantonment area from the Tanana Flats Training Area.

(2) Corridor dimensions: Width: 200 meters either side of the centerline

(3) The corridor altitude is 1200 feet MSL unless weather conditions require altitude deviations.

(4) Inbound traffic on Salchaket Corridor will maintain 1200 feet MSL from RP Salchaket (VS 6548 7947) then to a point where the Bonnifield Winter Trail intersects the north shore of the Tanana River (VS 6682 8568) then south of the lakes (VS 6846 8658) to the intersection on the Richardson Highway (VG 6860 8823). Enter traffic pattern as assigned by ATC.

31
Q

What are the directions, dimensions, and altitudes of the River corridor?

A

(1) River Corridor is a one-way corridor for VFR or SVFR traffic departing from Ladd Army Airfield and the cantonment area to the south and the Tanana Flats Training Area.

(2) Corridor dimensions: Width: 250 meters either side of the centerline.

(3) The corridor altitude is 1200 feet MSL unless weather conditions require altitude deviations.

(4) Outbound traffic on River Corridor will maintain 1200 feet MSL from the extended centerline of runway 7 (or abeam the end of runway 7 in the downwind) and Ketcham Road to CP Rich (VS 7274 8721) then direct to RP River (VS 7477 8156).

32
Q

What are the SVFR minima for LAAF Class D for Rotary Wing?

A

(1) Day: 300-1/2

(2) Night/NVG: 500-1

33
Q

What are the primary and alternate corridors for use during External Load operations? Are there any No fly areas?

A

A) Manchu Ditch is primary, Nordale corridor may be used when approved by LAAF tower.

B) Aircraft with external loads will not overfly Badger Road.

34
Q

What are the primary and alternate corridors for use during External Load operations? Are there any No fly areas?

A

A) Manchu Ditch is primary, Nordale corridor may be used when approved by LAAF tower.

B) Aircraft with external loads will not overfly Badger Road.

35
Q

What are the primary and alternate corridors for use during External Load operations? Are there any No fly areas?

A

A) Manchu Ditch is primary, Nordale corridor may be used when approved by LAAF tower.

B) Aircraft with external loads will not overfly Badger Road.

36
Q

What level of approval is required for external loads containing hazardous material? Are the any special procedures for those types of loads?

A

A) BN CDR

B) Yes, Prior coordination and approval is also required from the LADD Airfield Manager a minimum of 72 hours in advance and flight routes will avoid all residential and built up areas.

37
Q

What is required for PZ / LZ operations for external loads on the LAAF Ramp or controlled movement areas?

A

LAAF base operations will be notified a minimum of 24 hours in advance.

A NOTAM will be published to alert airfield users of any pre-positioned load(s) to be picked up.

38
Q

If you are conducting a maintenance test flight, where is the MTFA, how do you get there, and who do you flight follow with?

A

The MTFA is the area east of the airfield (refer to APG for grid boundaries), South of Chena Hot Springs road, North of Peede Road, and west of grid line 99.

Use Nordale corridor to enter and exit the MTFA

Flight follow with LAAF Tower

39
Q

If you are conducting an MTF, how do you file a flight plan for that?

A

Flight plans for Maintenance Test Flights are filed with LAAF Base Operations or LAAF Tower either over the radio or telephonically. The following procedures will apply:

(1) The LAAF traffic pattern and the MTFA are the only authorized test flight areas.

(2) The MTP will give the LAAF ATC Tower or Base Operations all the information required in paragraph 3-19 e. (2) of the APG

40
Q

What are the procedures for lost COMMO at LAAF?

A

Aircraft experiencing lost communications and returning to LAAF will fly along the right side of the landing runway at 1500 feet MSL, rocking wings/rotor until reaching end of the runway.

Pilot will turn downwind and check with Tower for a green light on base leg and final approach for landing clearance.

During the hours of darkness, pilots should flash landing/search light when making runway over flight.

41
Q

What are some of the noise avoidance areas around LAAF?

A

1) The ASPs
2) The Power Plant west of the airfield
3) The Army Community Hospital
4) Lakloey Hill east of the airfield
5) Private residences east of the airfield
6) Pleasant valley east of the airfield

42
Q

What is the recommendation for position reports?

A

A) Try to keep 30 minute intervals between ATC flight following contact via position reports. No longer than 1 hour between reports.

B) Primary means of flight following is with an ATC facility (tower, FSS, approach/departure control, center), but aircraft my flight follow within between aircraft if terrain does not allow for ATC contact.

C) Aircraft wanting to flight follow should indicate this in block 18 of the 1801.

43
Q

What are the steps to IIMC per the APG?

A

a. Respond as a crew and maintain aircraft control (Avoid known obstacles and the Stuart Creek Impact area when active)

b. Establish a climb to:

(1) YTA: 4,500 MSL  

(2) TFTA or LAAF: 3,500 MSL  

(3) All other areas: Briefed Minimum Safe Altitude  

c. Set transponder to 7700 after establishing aircraft control

d. Contact Approach Control. If unable, use VHF or UHF Guard

(1) Upon contact with approach control, request appropriate instrument procedure to safely recover aircraft IAW unit procedures and aircraft capabilities  

(2) In the event of lost communications, comply with lost communication procedures contained in DOD FLIP.  

e. Commanders will ensure inadvertent IMC breakup and recovery procedures are briefed for all multi-ship operations.

44
Q

Range control is the using agency for what ranges / training areas?

A

TFTA, YTA, and R-2205

45
Q

What are SUAIS?

A

Special Use Airspace Information Services

The SUAIS’s primary function is to provide information regarding Air Force flight operations in the Military Operating Areas (MOAs) and Restricted Airspace within central Alaska. The service provides “near real time” information on Air Force flight activity in the Fairbanks and Delta Junction areas. SUAIS also provides information on Army artillery firing, known helicopter operations, and Army unmanned aerial vehicle (UAV) operations. E

46
Q

True or false: aircraft using either YTA or TFTA are required to contact range control when operating within those areas.

A

True for YTA, but in TFTA aircraft conducting routine training in the TFTA, to include hoist training, are not required to coordinate or establish radio communications with range control. This includes landing within the TFTA and transitions through Alpha Impact Area. Other training where personnel will be placed on the ground does require coordination with range control via RFMSS, phone call, or radio. NOTAMS will be issued by Range Control for closures within the TFTA and when Alpha Impact Area is active and must be avoided.

47
Q

Does range control provide radar services?

A

No, but they do pull ADS-B feeds to monitor air traffic

48
Q

Are the impact areas or SARSAs restricted?

A

The impact areas are CFAs and, while flight through the impact areas is not prohibited, Military aircraft will not fly through established restricted areas, CFAs or SARSA without approval from Range Operations. The exception is Alpha Impact Area which will be activated by NOTAM, but clear for transitioning aircraft when not active.

Aircraft are prohibited from landing in the Alpha impact area

49
Q

Who is the controlling agency for R-2205, R-2206, and R-2211? Who is the using area for each? Who do you contact?

A

A) The controlling agency for all restricted areas is Fairbanks Approach. The using agency for R-2205 is the U.S. Army. The using agency for R-2206 is Fairbanks Flight Service Station. The using agency for R-2211 is the U.S. Air Force

B) All aircraft must have approval from the Using Agency, prior to operating within restricted airspace when it is active.

50
Q

If you wanted to fly through a MOA what should you do before and during flight to ensure safe transition?

A

Before flight, call or check with the SUAIS to ascertain the status of the MOA during your hours of operation.

During flight, call the nearest FSS within 100nm to get updates on the MOA hours of operation.

Pilots can also contact FWA Range Control for MOA status of the MOAs surrounding FWA.

51
Q

What is the primary frequency for Air-to-Air deconfliction?

A

FM SC/PT 46.70

52
Q

What transponder code should be used when operating within a restricted area unless assigned a specific one?

A

4000

53
Q

Is unaided flight authorized within R-2206?

A

Yes, but during hours of darkness, all aircraft are assumed to be aided.

54
Q

What are the downed aircraft procedures for YTA and TFTA?

A

a. Contact Range Operations and provide coordinates of the crash site and assist in locating survivors.

b. Rescue attempts of survivors or aircraft within the impact area are to be coordinated through the Range Control prior to entry of the impact area. If in radio contact with the survivors, advise them to limit their movement until qualified assistance can reach them unless they are in immediate danger.

c. If the crash site and survivors are outside the impact area, coordinate recovery operations with Range Control as you move to assist.

55
Q

What are the incident reporting procedures for YTA and TFTA?

A

a. Report all aviation accidents and incidents to Range Control immediately.

b. Range Operations will be notified immediately should any ordnance impact outside of the target area, WDZ, are unobserved, no spot or lost rounds. Unit will immediately cease fire/knock it off and report incident to Range Control.

c. In the event a weapon is inadvertently released, accidentally fired, or misfired, all weapons delivery will terminate and Range Operations will be notified giving coordinates, type of weapons involved and type and quantity of ordnance. All known/suspected duds will be reported to Range Operations with as accurate a grid location (eight digit minimum) as possible.

d. All duds will be reported IAW USARAK 350-2 Appendix B.

56
Q

Are FARPs and FASPs (Forward Ammunition Supply Point) allowed to be collocated?

A

No

57
Q

Are FARPs and FASPs (Forward Ammunition Supply Point) allowed to be collocated?

A

No

58
Q

Where can terrain flight be conducted?

A

Low-level, contour and nap-of-the-earth flights may only be conducted in designated training areas (TFTA, DTA, YTA). See USARAK 95-1 for altitude restrictions outside of designated training areas.

59
Q

Where can terrain flight be conducted?

A

Low-level, contour and nap-of-the-earth flights may only be conducted in designated training areas (TFTA, DTA, YTA). See USARAK 95-1 for altitude restrictions outside of designated training areas.

60
Q

What is the IIMC climb out altitude for LAAF, TFTA, and YTA?

A

A) LAAF: 3500’ MSL
B) TFTA: 3500’ MSL
C) YTA: 4500’ MSL

61
Q

What should pilots be provided by flight operations before flying in the restricted areas?

A

Flight Operations will ensure that aircrews receive current RFMSS information before flight in restricted airspace and training areas.

It is the responsibility of the PC/AMC to ensure that aircrews receive and understand the current RFMSS information as well as having a full understanding of the status of the ranges in the areas that the aircrew will be operating in and around.

Due to continually changing firing points and range fans, pilots are encouraged to carry a copy of the RFMSS graphical depiction with them when they fly.

62
Q

Use of the route structure to enter and exit the restricted area is mandatory except for the when?

A

a. The restricted area is not in an active or not in a hot status

b. The aircraft is/are responding to medical emergency

c. The unit has pre-coordinated with Fort Wainwright Range Control, who is the approval authority for this action. Examples: JPARC tours, Local Area Orientations (LAO), or any other training that requires deviation from the established routing procedures outlined within this chapter. Telephonic or email coordination meets this requirement.

63
Q

What is the altitude and maximum airspeed for the established route structures for R-2205?

A

Altitude will be 500’ AGL unless exceptions per the APG have been made and maximum airspeed is 120 KIAS

64
Q

What information will the initial contact with Ft. Wainwright Range Control call contain?

A

(1) Call sign: Apache 12345, Blackhawk 12345, etc.

(2) Number of aircraft

(3) Requested Route to Entry Point

(4) Destination: Landing point or area of operation

(5) Example Radio Call: “Wainwright Range Control, Apache 12345, request entry into 2205, Golf 1 to Golf 3, direct Stuart Creek”

65
Q

What are the 4 established routes for R-2205? Which has a low level route?

A

A) BRAVO (Northern Route)
WISKEY (Eastern Route)
GOLF (Southern Route)
ROMEO (Western Route)

B) WISKEY route has a low level route option

66
Q

What are the dimensions and directions of R-2205 BRAVO, WISKEY, and GOLF Routes?

A

They are all two-way routes and the altitude is 500’ AGL and above. WISKEY low level route is from W1 to W11 and remains below 200’ AGL.

67
Q

What are the directions, altitudes, and restrictions for ROMEO route? Who must be contacted for permission to fly Romeo Route?

A

A) Two-directional route, 500’ AGL southbound and 800’ AGL northbound.

B) Romeo route may not be flown during the hours of 2200L-0600L due to locally established quiet hours. Care must be taken not to overfly the CATM Range.

C) Eielson Tower must grant permission to fly ROMEO Route.

68
Q

Who must crews contact if LADD Metro is closed?

A

15 OWS