Foreign Policy: The contribution of other nations to the outbreak of war Flashcards
Why was the USSR to blame for the outbreak of WW2?
Stalin was fully aware of the threats made in Mein Kampf and feared Nazi expansionism.
Instead of making stronger alliances with Western powers, he signed the Nazi Soviet Pact as the Western Powers own mistrust of communism meant negotiations and discussions were drawn out.
What evidence is there to say the USSR weren’t to blame?
Hitler publicly railed against the ‘Bolshevist Plague’, declaring them his enemy.
Stalin wanted to avoid war as he wanted to build up the USSR to become self-sufficient.
Why was that Britain was to blame for the outbreak of WW2?
British colonies made it clear that they were not willing to go to war again, e.g Australia and South Africa.
1938 desire to avoid war led to policy of appeasement and Hitler growing in power.
- Chamberlain broadly followed British public opinion.
Britain sympathised for Germany after Versailles. Some of Hitler’s actions appeared understandable (e.g Rhineland, Sudetenland).
Appeasement was necessary as Britain wasn’t prepared for another war - the Great Depression had impacted rearmament.
Money for rearmament was dedicated to developing a radar system and the RAF - it was impossible to invest in soldiers to protect German conquest in Europe.
What evidence is there to say Britain wasn’t to blame?
Kristallnacht hardened opinions and Britain began preparing for war.
Ultimatum - Germany invaded Poland and ignored the 2nd ultimatum, this wasn’t Britain’s fault (though it could be argued that they should’ve been harsher from the beginning).
What evidence is there to say that France wasn’t to blame?
Germany’s violation of the Treaty of Versailles could be seen as an aggressive act, pushing France to war.
Why was that Italy was to blame for the outbreak of WW2?
Italy and Germany both shared an anti-communist outlook, belief in autarky, strong government and military force.
Abyssinian Crisis (1935)- condemnation from Britain and France angered Mussolini.
He didn’t act when Anschluss occurred in 1938.
What evidence is there to say that Italy wasn’t to blame?
Mussolini and Hitler kept many war plans a secret from eachother.
Mussolini was under the impression that war was 4-5 years away, so when it happened it was unexpected.
What evidence is there to say that France was to blame?
They were experiencing a political divide over how to approach their foreign policy:
- The political left were upset that France signed the Stresa Front whilst the political right were upset that the republicans were supported in the Spanish Civil War.
- This meant that they were reliant on Britain however Britain was focused on their own interests and sympathised for Germany.
- This weakness emboldened Hitler.
Why was that Japan was to blame for the outbreak of WW2?
1931: Mukden Incident - resulted in Japan taking over much of Manchuria and some of northern China, creating a state, Manchuko.
When the League finally ruled against Japan after 13 months of forming the Lytton Report, Japan left the League and formed alliances with Italy and Germany.
Germany was encouraged by its alliance with Japan, and it was useful for Germany to have an ally geographically on the other side if the USSR.
What evidence is there to say that Japan wasn’t to blame?
Despite their alliance, Japan and Germany’s relationship was rocky, they never had any influence over each other’s foreign policy.
E.g - The Nazi Soviet Pact came as a surprise to Japan (demonstrates their lack of influence over German foreign policy).
What evidence is there to say that the USA was to blame for WW2?
Despite having a stance of neutrality over the Abyssinian Crisis and the Spanish Civil War, the USA still exported arms to Italy and Germany who were supplying arms to Franco.
The very fact that the USA openly said it would not go to war in Europe, and produced a permanent Neutrality Act (1937) to underline it, they encouraged Hitter to go to war.
What evidence is there to say that the USA wasn’t to blame?
USA in the 1920s and 30s followed a policy of isolationism much like the British Empire pre-WW1. It refused to join the League of Nations and was neutral on both the invasion of Abyssinia and the Spanish Civil War.
What evidence is there to say that the LoN was to blame for WW2?
The LoN was weak and indecisive - e.g it failed to stop German aggression in Czechoslovakia in 1939, Italian invasion of Abyssinia in 1935 and resolve the Spanish Civil War.
Britain and France (the 2 most influential members) ignored the League to appease Hitler.
The outbreak of WW2 demonstrated how the League had failed its primary purpose to prevent a future global conflict.
What evidence is there to say that the LoN wasn’t to blame?
The LoN ran a series of disarmament conferences, showing effort to prevent WW2.
It resolved the dispute between Germany and Poland over Upper Silesia in 1921 as well as a dispute between Finland and Sweden over the Aaland Islands.
In 1939, the League intervened when the USSR invaded Finland by expelling the USSR.
Although there were few successes, the League still proved to be somewhat helpful at reaching decisions, but were held back by their lack of action.
