Foot - Diagnostic studies/imaging Flashcards

1
Q

bone tumors

chondromyxoid fibroma

A

these do not cross the physeal plate. Radiographically: are well-defined, eccentric, elongated, radiolucent lesions. A common appearance is a bubbly, expansile, eccentric, elongated, metaphyseal, lytic lesion. The lesions can extend into the diaphysis but do not cross the physeal plate.

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2
Q

bone tumor

chondroblastoma

A

most often affects the ends of the long bones, near the growth plate, in the arms at the shoulder, and in the legs at the hip and knee; it most commonly occurs in children and young adults.

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3
Q

bone tumors

giant cell tumors

A

These are benign tumors with potential for aggressive behavior and capacity to metastasize. These benign bone tumors may be associated with a substantial disturbance of the local bony architecture that can be particularly troublesome in peri-articular locations; hence its capacity to invade the physes. It is characterized by the presence of many multi- nucleated giant cells.

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4
Q

bone tumor

clear cell sarcoma

A

sarcoma of tendons and aponeuroses is a rare, high grade malignant soft tissue tumor resembling melanoma and soft tissue sarcomas.

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5
Q

bone scan

Following injection of radioactive leukocytes, an indium -111 bone scan is performed after what length of time?

A

24 hours

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6
Q

bone scan

*if cellulitis, what are the technetium/gallium scan results?

A

tech (-), gallium (+)

EXPLANATION: A useful breakdown on how bone scans will differentiate infections: Tc-99: If positive in Phase 3, Indicative of OM, If Negative in Phase 3, excludes osteo /// Ga-67: Diffuse uptake: Soft tissue infection /// In-111: Acute OM: Positive, Chronic OM: Negative /// Yet another break down: Acute OM: Positive Tc-99, Positive Gallium /// Septic Arthritis: Positive Tc-99, Positive Gallium /// Chronic Osteomyelitis: Positive Tc-99, Negative Gallium /// Cellulitis: Negative Tc-99, Positive Gallium

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7
Q

bone tumor

*blood filled lesion

A

Aneurysmal bone cyst. EXPLANATION: ABCs are composed of cavernous blood-filled spaces with thin fibrous walls. Most occur in patients younger than 20 years old. There is a slight female predominance. The typical radiographic appearance is an eccentric well-defined expanding lesion without matrix and a sclerotic border may be present. ABCs most commonly occur in the metaphyses of large bones (esp femur and tibia)and the dorsal elements of the spine. Giant cell tumors are more common in females and the lesions most commonly occur in patients between the ages of 20 and 40 years old. The most common sites are the ends of long bones (esp the distal femur and radius and proximal tibia) and the sacrum. There is no sclerotic border present. Chondroblastomas are more common in males and 80% are in the second and third decades of life. The talus and calcaneus are the preferred sites when the lesion occurs in the foot or ankle. Osteoblastomas more commonly occur in males and most patients are in the second and third decade of life. The lesion may resemble an osteiod osteoma except for its increased size. Osteoid osteomas are more commonly found in males. The femur and tibia are the most common sites. The symptoms are significant with pain, commonly worse at night. Pain is commonly relieved by aspirin or nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medications.

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8
Q

bone tumor

classic radiographic findings of multiple myeloma

A

classic radiographic appearance of multiple, small, well-circumscribed, lytic, punched-out, round lesions.

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9
Q

rx

xanthine oxidase inhibitor

A

allopurinol

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10
Q

gout

acute gout tx

A

Pharmacological therapy for acute gout aims to achieve an absence of pain and resolution of joint inflammation as rapidly as possible.
First-line treatment options are nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), glucocorticoids, and colchicine.

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11
Q

gout

chronic gout tx

A

Chronic gout treatment should aim to prevent gout progression and further gout flares, to eliminate any urate deposits, and to reverse tophus formation.** Xanthine oxidase inhibitors (allopurinol)** are commonly a first-line treatment and uricosuric agents often the second.

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12
Q

peds

thurston Holland sign is seen in what SALTER HARRIS category?

A

type II

Salter-Harris classification o
* Type 1- physeal separation
* Type 2- fracture traverses physis and exits metaphysis * most common type * Thurston Holland fragment
* Type 3- fracture traverses physis and exits epiphysis
* Type 4- fracture passes through epiphysis, physis, metaphysis
* Type 5- crush injury to physis

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13
Q

bone scans

bone scan results for chronic osteomyelitis

A

Technetium (+), gallium (-)

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14
Q

xr

least radio-opaque to most

A
  1. Air, as found, for example, in the trachea and lungs, the stomach and intestine, and the paranasal sinuses.
  2. Fat.
    1. Soft tissues, e.g., heart, kidney, muscles (these are all approximately the density of water).
  3. Calcific (due to the presence of calcium and phosphorus), for example, in the skeleton.
  4. Enamel of the teeth.
    1. Dense foreign bodies, for example, metallic fillings in the teeth. Also, radio-opaque contrast media, such as a barium meal in the stomach or intravascular contrast.”
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15
Q

what is: a segment of necrotic bone that is separated by granulation tissue from surrounding living bone

A

sequestrum

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16
Q

what is: new bone that has formed around dead bone; can become perforated by tracts

A

involucrum

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17
Q

the openings in the involucrum are referred to as cloaca.

A

cloaca

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18
Q

test that is sensitive for sarcoidosis

A

Kveim test

(largely a historical test that is not routinely performed in most hospital settings. It is still routinely seen in multiple educational and medical board settings.)

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19
Q

multilobulated “cloud-like” calcifications; multiple painless plantar lumps; associated with renal failure

A

calcinosis

tx: calcium and phosphorus diet restriction

(involves dietary phosphate restriction, noncalcemic phosphate binders and intensification of dialysis treatment using a low-calcium dialysate, parathyroidectomy in patients with high PTH levels due to tertiary hyperparathyroidism. Surgical excision is an option for persistent symptomatic lesions.

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20
Q

least likely articulation of tarsal bones with the calcaneus?

A

navicular

(calcaneonavicular joint is most rare articulation)

21
Q

soft tissue sarcomas most commonly metastasize to where?

A

lungs

22
Q

most common type of soft tissue sarcoma in extremities?

A

malignant fibrous histiocytoma

23
Q

if decreasing kvp by 15%, MAs …

A

2x the mAs (doubling)

24
Q

if increasing kvp by 15%, mAs…

A

cut in half

25
Q

bone scan

where does normal bone scan show increased uptake of radioactivity?

A
  • facial area, sternum, tips of the scapulae, spine, and sacroiliac joints.
  • children’s bones also show increased uptake in active epiphyseal bone-growth centers such as knees, ankles, elbows.
  • Besides the bony structures, the kidneys and bladder are visualized because of the renal excretions.
26
Q

arthrogram

A 31-year-old trail runner presents after suffering a painful inversion ankle injury. She is able to bear weight but notes significant edema, bruising and pain along the lateral ankle. Ankle arthrogram demonstrates contrast medium within the subcutaneous tissue of the ankle joint. Which of the following structure(s) are most likely damaged?

A

ATFL rupture.

EXPLANATION: Ankle arthrography provides a means of diagnosing ruptures of the anterior talofibular and calcaneofibular ligaments. When contrast medium escapes through the joint capsule and into the subcutaneous tissue, a diagnosis of a ruptured ATFL is made. Because the CFL is a separate entity from the joint capsule, and is immediately related to the deep surface of the peroneal sheath, rupture of the CFL is normally associated with a tear in the wall of the peroneal sheath with escaping contrast medium, outlying the peroneal synovial canal.

27
Q

“pencil in cup” assoc.

A

*psoriatic arthritis, most commonly
can be in rheumatoid arthritis, reactive arthritis, and scleroderma

caused by periarticular erosion and bone resorption

28
Q

gout on xr

A
  • punched out lesions
  • asymmetric-polyarticular distribution
  • intra-osseous lesions
29
Q

stage III CRPS
xr findings

A

severe osteopenia or inhomogeneous regional osteoporsis of the bone along with the spindling of the fingers and the toes.

(stage 3 is also first state to show XR findings)

30
Q

at what % bone resorption does osteomyelitis demonstrate radiographic changes?

A

40-70% bone resorption

31
Q

stewart classification for true jones

A

type I

at metaphyseal/diaphyseal junction

32
Q

angle

normal met adductus angle

A

22 or less

33
Q

bone tumors

where are CHONDROSARCOMAS most commonly found

A
  1. distal tibia and fibula
  2. tarsal bones
  3. metatarsals
  4. phalanges
34
Q

coalitions

most common tarsal coalition

A

CN

calcaneonavicular is most common

(then talocalcaneal coalition)

35
Q

particular form of (subacute) osteomyelitis found in the lower portion of the tibia, talus, or fore- foot. These abscesses have a sclerotic wall and contain purulent material

A

brodie’s abscess

36
Q

normal plantar fascia thickness

A

4-5 mm

37
Q

arthridities

inflammatory condition, and the affected joints are generally red and warm to the touch. Asymmetrical oligoarthritis, defined as inflammation affecting two to four joints during the first six months of disease, is present in 70% of cases. However, in 15% of cases, the arthritis is symmetrical. It often affects the proximal interphalangeal (PIP), the distal interphalangeal (DIP), the metacarpophalangeal (MCP), and the wrist.

A

Psoriatic arthritis

38
Q
  • pencil in cup
  • nail pitting
  • auspitz sign
A

psoriatic arthritis

39
Q

what does indium-111 target?

A

identifies INFECTED BONE;
selectively labels polymorphonuclear leukocytes; more specific than tech-99

40
Q

lab diagnosis for itchy rash with small, fluid-filled blisters

A

Tzank test

(to identify chicken pox [varicella] and herpes)

41
Q

best view for congenital vertical talus

A

lateral forced plantarflexion

(if foot doesn’t correct, this is confirmed diagnosis of congenital vertical talus)

42
Q

arthrogram

An arthrogram is performed to evaluate for a plantar plate injury. Within which structure would contrast material be diagnostic for an isolated plantar plate rupture?

A

Flexor tendon sheath.

EXPLANATION: Contrast material within the flexor tendon sheath is diagnostic of rupture of the plantar plate. “Only the plantar plate separates the MTPJ from the flexor tendon sheath. The medial and lateral collateral ligaments and the extraarticular, deep transverse metatarsal ligament are contiguous with the plantar plate. Contrast opacification of the flexor tendon sheath is indicative of plantar plate rupture.

43
Q

metaphyseal associations

(more commonly)

A
  • osteosarcoma,
  • osteoid osteoma,
  • chondrosarcoma,
  • fibrosarcoma,
  • osteoblastoma,
  • enchondroma,
  • fibrous dysplasia,
  • aneurysmal bone cyst, and
  • non-ossifying fibroma
44
Q

well-defined margins with a short zone of transition from normal to abnormal bone, indicative of a slow growing benign lesion

A

geographic

45
Q

Less well-defined lesion margins and a wider zone of transition between normal and abnormal bone
More aggressive pattern than geographic and indicates a faster growing lesion
Seen in aggressive tumors and in osteomyelitis

A

moth-eaten

46
Q

Poorly defined lesion margins with a wide zone of transition; the lesion boundaries are not easily discerned from normal bone. Aggressive, rapidly growing lesion seen in malignant bone tumor

A

PERMEATIVE

47
Q

codman triangle;

think:

A

osteosarcoma

48
Q

A tracking or trackbound hallux is commonly associated with which radiographic finding during the adolescent, hallux valgus workup?

A

increased PASA;

The presence of a “tracking” or “trackbound’ joint indicates deviation of the first MTPJ axis arid/or lateral displacement of the sesamoid apparatus. This finding is commonly associated with a significant increase in PASA