Foot - Complications Flashcards

1
Q

grafts

which grafts contract more?

A

The thinner the graft is, the more likely it is to contract.
STSG will contract more than FTSG.

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2
Q

most common complication after ORIF of displaced talar neck fx

A

post-traumatic arthritis

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3
Q

nerve injury

During repair of the peroneal tendon care is taken to avoid damage to the sural nerve. Damage to the sural nerve myelin sheath but an intact endoneurial structure, where Wallerian degeneration does not occur is an example of what?

A

Neuropraxia. EXPLANATION: Wallerian degeneration occurs when a nerve is crushed or cut and the distal portion of the axon degenerates. “A complete transection or crushing injury of a peripheral nerve (neurotmesis) has no potential for regeneration unless the endoneurium and axons are reapproximated. Lesser injuries with the endoneurial structure intact, with (neuropraxia) or without (axonotomesis) axonal continuity, have a better prognosis for axonal regrowth and recovery of function. “

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4
Q

toxic dose

A 34 year old, 60kg female who recently underwent recent elective foot surgery and is suspected to have lidocaine toxicity. What is the calculated toxic dose of lidoc**aine (without epinephrine) for this patient?

A
  • Toxic dose for Lidocaine plain = 4.5mg/kg,
  • Lidocaine with epinephrine = 7mg/kg.
  • Toxic dose for Marcaine plain = 3mg/kg.

60kg x 4.5mg = 270mg. 270mg % (10mg/mL) = 27mL

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5
Q

scarf

what causes bone troughing in scarf osteotomy?

A

Bone troughing is created when the osteotomy is performed mostly in diaphyseal bone allowing the displaced cortices of bone to collapse into the medullary canal causing elevation of the distal fragment.

(so you should make the distal saw cut in metaphyseal bone to prevent troughing)

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6
Q

white toe

Treatments for arterial insufficiency and white toe:

A
  • Place foot in dependent position
  • loosen bandage
  • twist k-wire
  • apply heat to small of back
  • PT block
  • remove k-wire
  • remove dressing, and may consider opening wound.
    Considerations may also be made for Nitroglycerine paste/patch proximally on the ankle or vasodilators.
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7
Q

5 W’s

A

Five W’s: (Wind, Water, Wound, Walking, Wonder drugs).
* WIND: 12-24 hours = pulmonary atelectasis and post-op hyperthermia.
* WATER: 24 hours = UTI, urinary retention.
* WALK: 48 hours = PE, DVT.
* WOUND: 72 hours = surgical site infection.
* WONDER DRUG = Anytime, drug-induced.

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8
Q

for shortening during lapidus, do this:

A

As a general rule if only the articular cartilage is removed, less than 0.5cm of shortening occurs.
* If between 0.5-1.0 cm of shortening occurs, then the first metatarsal should be fixated in slight plantarflexion. Dorsiflexing the first metatarsal may lead to transfer metatarsalgia.
* For shortening greater than 1.0cm, weil osteotomies are recommended on the 2nd and 3rd metatarsals or a bone graft may be added at the 1st metatarsal cuneiform joint.

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9
Q

common complication of Youngswick procedure

A

Transfer metatarsalgia is a common complication due to the first metatarsal shortening seen in the Youngswick procedure.

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10
Q

causes of failed tarsal tunnel release

A
  • double crush syndrome
  • adhesive neuritis
  • intraneural damage
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11
Q

Interossei

Following an overzealous lateral release of the 1st interspace, you notice that the 2nd digit abducts, drifting towards the 3rd digit. Which structure was likely damaged?

A

1st dorsal interossei. EXPLANATION: There are four dorsal interossei and 3 plantar interossei. The bipennate dorsal interossei abduct the digits away from the 2nd toe and the unipennate plantar interossei adduct the digits towards the 2nd toe. An injury to the 1st dorsal interossei would cause the 2nd digit to abduct and drift towards the 3rd toe.

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12
Q

most common nonunion site during triple arthrodesis

A

TALONAVICULAR
The most frequent complication after triple arthrodesis is a nonunion. The most frequent site of nonunion is at the talonavicular joint. This is likely due to bone sclerosis and challenging joint exposure. During a nonunion in a triple arthrodesis, if 2 out of 3 of the joints are well fused, the nonunion site may often be asymptomatic.

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13
Q

excessive resection of medial eminence in modified mcbride can cause:

A

This can lead to loss of the medial bony buttress for the proximal phalanx, allowing for varus rotation of the hallux. Loss of part of the tibial sesamoid groove will destabilize the tibial sesamoid, allowing MEDIAL subluxation and will further contribute to the varus deforming force of the FHB

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14
Q

keloids:
cause and treatment

A

result from abnormal surgical scar healing. They most often are a result of incisions which experience high tension. The mainstay of treatment - intralesional steriod injections - are usually administered 3 to 4 times. The steroids also improve pain and itching frequently associated with keloids. Other therapies include pressure therapy and radiation therapy. These are generally less successful.

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15
Q

type of HT after excessive achilles lengthening

A

flexor SUBSTITUTION

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16
Q

52 year old woman who underwent a resection of 3rd interspace neuroma through a dorsal approach presents with new developing hammertoe deformities. This is most likely due to the resection of which structure?

A

Deep transverse intermetatarsal ligament. EXPLANATION: When the deep transverse intermetatarsal ligament is severed a neurectomy procedure via a dorsal approach, the adjacent toes may begin to contract dorsally. This occurs because of loss of the ligament fulcrum.

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17
Q

peds

Accidental, complete release of the deep deltoid during a soft tissue clubfoot correction would most likely lead too:

A

Pes planus. EXPLANATION: The deep deltoid should be preserved during a soft-tissue release of a resistant clubfoot, and only the most posterior portion of the deep deltoid may be cut if the talus is still resistant to roll back into the ankle joint. Releasing the tibiotalar/deep deltoid is likely to cause a pes planus deformity.

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18
Q

tarsal tunnel

MC cause of failed tarsal tunnel surgery

A

Inadequate decompression. EXPLANATION: “Inadequate decompression has been reported as the most common indication for revisional surgery.” “Often, the distal tibial nerve and its branches are not adequately explored and released by the primary surgeon. The superficial and deep fascia of the abductor hallucis may not have been incised to complete the distal release of the MPN, LPN, and FBLPN. The patient usually describes no improvement or partial improvement of symptoms after the release, depending on the extent of the release and what remains compressed. On physical examination, there is usually no significant tenderness proximally over the tibial nerve that was released. There may be an area of point tenderness and a positive percussion paresthesia sign distally over the MPN and LPN in the region of the abductor hallucis muscle.

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19
Q

silver nitrate

how does silver nitrate appear on radiograph?

A

Cauterisation with silver nitrate is common in podiatry procedures. Silver nitrate has a high density and a mass attenuation coefficient making it highly radiopaque. It is often mistaken radiographically for foreign body, bone growth, or pathologic.

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20
Q

nerve

what nerve gets commonly trapped under medial heel?

A

The first branch of the lateral plantar nerve. EXPLANATION: The first branch of the lateral plantar nerve, or Baxter’s nerve is an inferior calcaneal nerve that can become entrapped along the medial heel.

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21
Q

nerves

medial dorsal cutaneous nerve:
sensory distribution

A

provides sensation to the dorsomedial aspect of the ankle as it extends towards the medial aspect of the hallux as well as to the second and third toes

22
Q

infxn

HW/implant related infections are most commonly caused by which two bacterial pathogens

A

Approximately 4 out of 5 implant related infections are caused by staphylococcus. Staphylococcus aureus & Staphylococcus epidermidis account for the majority of these.

23
Q

HT

tx for flail toe

A

Options include implant arthroplasty, syndactylization, and amputation.

24
Q

nerve

A large cystic mass is excised from the medial and central portions of the plantar fascia. Post-operatively; you notice that the 3 medial digits begin to hyperextend at the metatarsophalangeal joints. What is the muscle or nerve most likely implicated?

A

medial plantar nerve

Meticulous dissection during plantar fasciectomy to prevent iatrogenic injury to the medial plantar nerve which abductor hallucis, FDB, FHB, and first lumbrical. It forms three common digital nerves which are distributed to toes 1-3.

25
Q

peds

Which Salter-Harris fracture pattern is most likely to cause growth arrest?

A

Salter-Harris Type V injuries involve a compression of the articular surface with impaction of the epiphyseal bone into the metaphyseal bone. This disorganizes the physeal cartilage, with partial growth arrest expected.

26
Q

AO

What is the complication of failing to overdrill when placing a fully-threaded lag screw?

A

No compression. EXPLANATION: If the near cortex is not overdrilled, the threads of the screw will engage both near and far cortices preventing compression of the fracture fragments. The lag technique involves overdrilling the near cortex to the size of the external diameter of the screw. When the screw is inserted, it glides through this overdrilled hole and the threads only engage the far cortex. As the screw is tightened the head of the screw engages the near cortex and the fracture fragments are compressed together.

27
Q

talar fx

common complication after talar neck fx repair

A

Varus talar neck. EXPLANATION: Post-operative varus malunion of the talar neck is a common complication following operative treatment of talar neck fractures. During fixation, control of the transverse plane should be taken to avoid varus malalignment. A study in 1996 on 12 cadaveric specimens created varus malignment at the talar neck. They found that in vitro this lead to chronic subluxation of the subtalar joint, diminishing subtalar eversion and likely pain.

28
Q

hallux vaurs

causes of hallux varus

A
  • Overplication of the medial capsule,
  • Medial displacement of the tibial sesamoid;
  • Overpull of the abductor hallucis muscle against an incompetent lateral ligamentous complex;
  • Overcorrection with a postoperative dressing holding the MTP joint in a varus position;
  • Excessive resection of the medial eminence
29
Q

reverdin

why are there reverdin modifications?

A

reverdin is most likely to cause iatrogenic sesamoid injury;

so modifications green, laird, and todd were created to decrease risk to sesamoid apparatus

30
Q

neuroma

where to bury stump neuroma?

A
  • Neuroma may be implanted into a muscle with limited movement,
  • away from weight bearing surface, and
  • under no tension.
    Alternatively, it may be placed between two intrinsic foot muscles.
31
Q

HAV

what bunion procedure is at risk of causing 1st rau elevatus?

A

closing base wedge osteotomy of 1st metatarsal

32
Q

HAV

why is traditional mcbride not done anymore?

A

the excision of fibular sesamoid resulted in iatrogenic hallux varus

33
Q

incision

ideal incision placement to reduce scar

A
  • The direction of the incision should be performed parallel to and along the lines of skin tension.
  • Incisions should be placed parallel or along Langer lines of skin tension (also called cleavage lines). This reduces the skin tension during healing.

Improper incisions may result in hypertrophic scar or keloid formation.

34
Q

flatfoot

evans complications

A
  • graft subsidence can cause proximal migration/displacement of the anterior process of the calcaneus in an evans ostetomy without fixation
  • The next most likely reason for a “pull off” fracture off the inferior aspect of the anterior break of the calcaneus in excessive tension on the short plantar ligament by the lengthening effect of adding the Evans graft.

10 mm (1cm - 1.5cm) proximal to the C-C joint is what is recommended for the ostetomy placement. External fixation is not commonly used for evans calcaneal osteotomies.

35
Q

blood supply

medial approach of plantar fasciotomy puts this artery at risk

A

medial plantar artery

36
Q

PF

When performing a plantar fasciotomy, the lateral 1/3 of the plantar fascia is usually left intact, helping protect what post-operative complication that can occur if transected?

A

Calcanealcuboid syndrome/ joint discomfort

(lateral calcaneocuboid pain)
this is the most common complication after endoscopic plantar fasciotomy

37
Q

HAV

Following a chevron bunionectomy, the patient develops persistent pain in the first metatarsal head. Labs return normal. Radiographs demonstrate mottling changes and focal cyst formation (AVN of metatarsal head) . Which of the following arteries was most likely disrupted?

A

First Dorsal Metatarsal Artery : EXPLANATION: The findings being described are consistent with avascular necrosis of the metatarsal head. Only choice C describes the artery most likely implicated in development of AVN of the first metatarsal head. While all the choices listed are indeed blood supplies to the first metatarsal head, the first dorsal metatarsal artery, which is fed by the nutrient artery, is most likely to cause AVN if disrupted. The first dorsal metatarsal artery helps to form a significant extracapsular anastomosis that supplies approximately two-thirds of the metatarsal head.

38
Q

coalitions

age of onset for coalitions

A
  • CN coalitions are frequently discovered between 8-12 years of age.
  • Talocalcaneal coalitions are commonly discovered at ages 12-16.

A CT would evaluate for a tarsal coalition.

39
Q

nonunions

types of nonunions

A

hypertrophic
atrophic
oligotrophic

40
Q

complications after plantar fibroma excision

A
  • Recurrence is the most common postoperative complication following the excision of plantar fibromatosis.
  • Wound dehiscence is likely second, and
  • nerve complications are also common.
41
Q

nerve

most frequently reported iatrogenic injury in anterior ankle arthroscopy?

A

Superficial peroneal nerve. EXPLANATION: Despite the fact that the superficial peroneal nerve is the only nerve in the body that can be made visible, iatrogenic damage to this nerve is the most frequently reported complication in anterior ankle arthroscopy.

42
Q

weil

MC complication after weil osteotomy

A

Floating toe.

EXPLANATION: “The most common reported complication is the floating toe. A number of theories have been proposed to explain this common phenomenon postosteotomy. Depression of the metatarsal head shifts the orientation of the intrinsic muscles dorsal to the transverse joint axis reducing their effectiveness in providing plantarflexory stability. Shortening of the metatarsal will also reduce tension on the tendons and fascia that pass the joint. The long extensor, however, maintains its tension across the MTPJ. This is due to the hood apparatus, which continues to maintain a constant active and passive tension despite the shortening. The result is a toe resisting in a dorsiflexed attitude relative to the metatarsal. This position is maintained by formation of the surgical scar.

43
Q

nerve

A 43-year-old female who presents for second opinion involving pain and burning to the 1st and 2nd digits 6 months following a scarf bunionectomy. You notice a surgical scar along the medial aspect of the first ray and a second smaller incision over the first interspace. Injury to which structure is likely the source of the patient’s symptoms?

A

Deep peroneal nerve.

EXPLANATION: The medial terminal branch of the deep peroneal nerve ends at the first interspace adjacent to the location of a lateral release, which is common in hallux valgus surgery such as a scarf osteotomy. The nerve then divides into two dorsal digital nerves that supply the corresponding portions of the hallux and 2nd toe.

44
Q

nerve

A 43 year old male who underwent excision of a plantar fibroma presents post-operatively with hyperextension of the hallux, 2nd and 3rd toes. Which structure was likely damaged?

A

Medial plantar nerve.

EXPLANATION: Meticulous dissection during plantar fasciectomy to prevent iatrogenic injury to the medial plantar nerve which abductor hallucis, FDB, FHB, and first lumbrical. It forms three common digital nerves which are distributed to toes 1-3.

45
Q

clubfoot

complications of casting for clubfoot

A
  • metatarsus adductus,
  • heel varus,
  • pes planovalgus- overcorrection,
  • rockerbottom foot from overzealous correction of the equinus,
  • AVN or talar head flattening.
  • Navicular subluxatuon-usually dorsally over talus.

Infant connective tissue is stronger than infant bone and cartilage. During casting, tremendous forces are exerted on the navicular and talar head.

46
Q

amps

common complication after partial amps

A

Heterotopic ossification is a common complication following partial foot amputations. The developing ossifications can cause ulceration which can lead to infection and further amputation.

47
Q

nerve

which is NOT at risk during isolated lateral release?

A

Saphenous nerve.
EXPLANATION: The saphenous nerve supplies the skin along the medial side of the left great toe. It is not at increased risk during an isolated lateral release.

The medial dorsal cutaneous nerve divides into a total of three dorsal digital branches, one that supplies the medial side of the great toe, and two the supply the adjacent sides of the second and third toes and communicates with the deep peroneal nerve. Terminally, the deep peroneal nerve supplies the adjacent sides of the first and second toes, communicating with the medial dorsal cutaneous nerve.

48
Q

nerve

during tibial sesamoidectomy, which nerve must be protected, and where is it located?

A

plantar cutaneous nerve; which is found on inferior border of the abductor hallucis brevis tendon.

EXPLANATION: Upon creating the standard medial incision as described above, the plantar cutaneous nerve must then be carefully identified and retracted. The plantar cutaneous nerve is commonly found on the inferior border of the abductor hallucis brevis tendon. Care should be taken to avoid transecting this nerve during a tibial sesamoidectomy.

49
Q

classifications

An open metatarsal fracture with a wound diameter of 5.7 cm consistent with adequate soft tissue covering would be classified as which type of the Gustilo Anderson classification?gustilo anderson

A

type IIIA

Type III: Segmental fracture with a wound diameter >5cm or a type I or II injury that is >8h old; Type IIIa: adequate soft tissue coverage despite soft tissue laceration or flaps.”

50
Q

Pseudarthrosis after a fracture can be caused by :

A
  • neurofibromatosis type i
  • repeat trauma
  • poor surgical technique
51
Q

fibroma

MC cause for recurrence of fibroma excision

A

Incomplete excision.

EXPLANATION: The most likely reason for recurrence is incomplete excision. This is why wide excision margins are recommended.