Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

OITE > Foot & Ankle > Flashcards

Foot & Ankle Flashcards

1
Q

Name and describe 2 classifications for charcot foot

A

Eichenholtz:

Stage 0: joint edema, x-rays negative

Stage 1: fragmentation

  • Local edema
  • osseous fragmentation with joint dislocation

Stage 2: coalescence:

  • decreased local edema
  • x-rays show coalescence of fragments and absorption of fine bone debris

Stage 3: Reconstruction

  • no local edema
  • x-rays show consolidation and remodeling of fracture fragments

Brodsky

Type 1: (midfoot)

  • TMT and naviculocuneiform joints (60%)

Type 2 (Hindfoot):

  • subtalar, TN, CC joints

Type 3: Ankle of calcaneus

  • A: tibiotalar joint
  • B: Follows fracture of calcaneal tuberosity

Type 4: Combination of areas

Type 5: solely in forefoot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How many people get subtalar arthritis 10 years post tibiotalar arthrodesis?

A

50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Syndesmosis screw technique

Be specific

A

2 x 3.5 or 4.5mm syndesmotic screws

Through 3-4 cortices

2-5cm above plafond

Screw material:

No difference between types of metal or bioabsorbable

Cortices:

No difference between 3-4

Number of screws:

2 is better

Position of foot

Recent studies challenge the principle of holding the ankle in maximal dorsiflexion to avoid over tightening

Post-operative care:

Typically non-weight bearing 6-12 weeks

May prolong if screw breakage is a concern

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Name 3 gait advantages of total ankle replacement vs. arthrodesis

A

Increased stride length

Improved cadence

Increased stride velocity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

4 common technical errors in Total ankle arthroplasty

A

Prosthesis is too lateral

Prosthesis is too small - will subside

Failing to solve preoperative varus/valgus malalignment

Attempting to replace an ankle that is too anteriorly subluxed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

os trigonum syndrome is associated with pathology in what structure?

A

FHL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are Scarf and Ludloff osteotomies used for? Differentiate them in one sentence.

A

Promixal metatarsal osteotomies for the treatment of moderate hallux valgus, usually in combination with a modified McBride distally.

See picture for differences.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Recalcitrant forefoot plantar ulcers

What is an important aspect of treatment

A

TAL vs. gastrocs lengthening

Decreaes plantarflexion and decreases pressure on forefoot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Neuropathic joint

Technetium bone scan will be

Indium WBC scan will be

A

Tc: ± positive in charcot (positive for OM)

indium WBC scan: negative in charcot (+OM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Sectioning of which collateral ligament leads to more instability?

A

Accessory

B/c it attaches directly to the plantar plate

(vs. proper collateral, attaches to the proximal aspect of the phalanx)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Three differentials for posterior ankle pain not involving the Achilles.

A
  1. Os Trigonum Syndrome
  2. Posterior impingement
  3. FHL Tendonitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Describe ankle arthroscopy portals

A

Anteromedial

  • Primary viewing portal
  • Established 1st
  • medial to tib ant & lateral to medial malleolus
  • Danger: saphenous nerve & vein

Anterolateral:

  • Primary viewing portal
  • Lateral to peroneus tertius & superficial peroneal nerve & medial to lateral malleolus
  • Danger: Dorsal cutaneous branch of SPN

Anterocentral

  • Anterior viewing portal
  • Medial to EDC and lateral to EHL
  • Not commonly used due to risk to DP artery

Posterolateral

  • Posterior viewing portal
  • 2cm proximal to tip of lateral malleolus
  • Between peroneal tendons and achilles tendon
  • Danger: sural nerve and small saphenous vein

Posteromedial

  • posterior viewing portal
  • just medial to achilles
  • Risks: posterior tibial artery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Diagnosis & Treatment (chronic)

A

Ankle synovitis

Arthroscopy and synovectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are 2 associated conditions of anterior ankle impingement?

A

Ankle instability (up to 35% will continue to have pain after stabilization procedure)

OCD
(Technically NOT OA, b/c this is pre-OA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Best predictor of post-op ROM with TAA

A

Pre-op ROM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Differenes of Juvenile HV vs. Adult:

A

Juvenile is:

  • Often bilateral
  • Often familial
  • Pain is not the primary complaint
  • varus 1st MT with widened IMA usually present
  • DMAA usually increased
  • often associated with flexible flatfoot
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

In os trigonum syndome, in the absence of an obvious os trigonum, what may be another cause?

A

scar tissue behind posterior talus (where the os should be)

Found on MRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

4 pathologic conditions secondary to cavus foot

(what does cavus foot cause, NOT what causes cavus foot)

A

Lateral column stress fractures

Lateral ligament injury

peroneal tendon injury

Lateral column overload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

1st step in lisfranc ORIF?

A

Intercuneiform reduction and fixation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Name & Describe classic tendon transfer for foot drop

A

Bridle Procedure

  • Classically PTT, TA & PL transfer & tritendon anastomosis

Tib post:

  • transferred to middle/lateral cuneiform
  • THROUGH split in tib ant

Tib Ant

  • Anastomosed to Tib post

Peroneus Longus

  • PL: cut 5cm above fibula
  • Proximal end sewn to PB
  • distal end is anastomosed to newly transferred PTT

Effect

  • As tib post pulls, it will also pull on PL and TA, causing dorsiflexion & eversion (motion lost with peroneal nerve injury)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Classification of Hallux Rigidus:

A

Coughlin & Shurnas Classification

Grade 0:

  • Stiffness with normal x-ray

Grade 1:

  • mild pain at extreme range of motion
  • X-rays show mild dorsal osteophyte and normal joint space

Grade 2:

  • Moderate pain with range of motion
  • Moderate dorsal osteotomy
  • <50% joint space narrowing

Grade 3:

  • Significant stiffness and pain at extreme ROM. No midrange pain
  • Xrays show severe dorsal osteophyte >50% joint space nrrowing

Grade 4:

  • significant stiffness and pain at extreme ROM AND pain at mid-range
  • x-rays: same as grade 3
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

List some differentials for failed treatment of ankle sprain (i.e. missed concommitant injuries/pathology)

A
  1. injury to the anterior process of calcaneus
  2. injury to the lateral or posterior process of the talus
  3. injury to the base of the 5th metatarsal
  4. osteochondral lesion
  5. injuries to the peroneal tendons
  6. injury to the syndesmosis
  7. tarsal coalition
  8. impingement syndromes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Indications for 1st MTP arthrodesis in HV:

A

CP

Down’s

Ehler-Danlos

RA

Gout

Severe DJD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the mechanism for injury to the superior peroneal retinaculum?

A

Dorsiflexion & inversion

During reflexive contraction of the peroneal muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

4 medications you can use in Charcot Foot

A

bisphosphonates

neuropathic pain meds

antidepressants

topical anesthetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Isolated fusion of the calcaneocuboid, subtalar, and talonavicular joint arthrodeses result in how much limitation in motion?

A

limit hindfoot motion by approximately 25% (CC), 40% (ST), and 90% (TN)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Name 2 anatomic risks for peroneal tendon instabiliy or rupture

A

Low lying peroneus brevis muscle

Presence of peroneus quartus muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Most common foot position after CVA or TBI

A

equinovarus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Risks of failure in isolated subtalar arthrodesis (5)

A

smoking

the presence of more than two millimeters of avascular bone at the arthrodesis site

failure of a previous subtalar arthrodesis

Use of structural allograft (should use autografto)

Adjacent ankle arthrodesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What nerve can cause a painful neruoma if damaged during medial capsular imbrication for HV?

A

Medial branch of dorsal cutaneous nerve (SPN)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What must you do after IM screw of 5th MT base fracture (post-op care)

A

wait until clinical AND radiographic healing before return to sports

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Post talar neck fracture, patient comes back with this (see picture)

best Management

A

TTC

?TAR?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

5 radiographic changes of charcot neuropathy

A

obliteration of joint spaces

fragmentation of articular surface of a joint leading to subluxation/dislocation

Scattered “chunks” of bone in fibrous tissue

Surrounding soft tissue edema

Joint distension by fluid

HO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which 1st toe sesamoid is larger?

A

Tibial (medial)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Medial supramalleolar osteotomy done usually for what?

A

Usually opening wedge for

varus ankle alignment & medial joint space narrowing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is this deformity?

A

Hammer Toe

(Boutiennier of the foot)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Patient 3 months after TBI and has equinovarus foot

Surgical plan?

A

WAIT

Takes:

6-18 months post CVA for full extent of recovery

1-2 years (or several) post TBI for full extent of recovery

wait until after these times for surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is removed with a cheilectomy?

A

Resection of dorsal osteophyte and 25% of the dorsal aspect of the metatarsal head.

(Hallux rigidus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Cause and deformity of Hammer toe?

A

Overpull of the EDL

Causes Flexion of PIP and extension of DIP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Hallux valgus obviously involves valgus. What is the secondary deformity and what causes it?

A

Pronation.

This is caused by abductor hallicus as it migrates plantarly and medially.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What amount of dorsiflexion is requried for normal gait?

A

Unknown

Ranges fro 15-90 degrees

(WHat joint are we talking about? Nothing dorsiflexes 90 degrees)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Muscle imbalance in spastic equinovarus foot

Surgical treamtent

A

Strong TA (major) and PT, FHL, FDL (minor)

SPLATT, TAL, ± tib post transfer to dorsum of foot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Classification system of Hallux Rigidis

A

Based on radiographic & exam findings

0:

  • exam: Stiffness
  • xrays: normal xrays

I:

  • exam: mild pain at extreme ROM
  • Xrays: mild dorsal osteophyte with normal joint space

II:

  • exam: moderate pain with ROM
  • x-rays: moderate dorsal osteophyte with

III:

  • exam: significant stiffness & pain at extreme ROM. No mid-range pain
  • x-rays: severe dorsal osteophyte with >50% joint space narrowing

IV:

  • exam: significant stiffness & pain at extreme ROM. (+) mid-range pain
  • x-rays: same as III (severe dorsal osteophytes with >50% joint space narrowing)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Surgical approach for total ankle replacement?

A

Anterior

between EHL & TA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Risk of OM if a diabetic foot ulcer probes to bone?

A

65%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are this?

What do you have to do before definitive management

What’s definitive manageent

A

Digital artery aneurysm

Must see if there is adequate collateral circulation

Treatment

Resection if there is adequate collateral circulation

Graft and repair if there is not adequate circulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Treatment of midfoot arthritis that failed non-op management

Be specific

Outcomes?

A

1st ray TMT arthrodesis

2nd/3rd naviculocuneiform/intercuneiform joint arthrodesis

4th/5th ray - don’t fuse as it allows for accomodation of the foot during gait

Can do interpositional arthroplasties of 4th/5th in certain cases

Can fuse b/c non essential

Will lead to good outcomes with near anatomic function of the foot preserved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Contraindications to TCC

A

Absolute: infection

Relative

marginal arterial supply to area

patients unable to comply with cast care

patient unable to tolerate case (cast claustrophobia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Patient has viral destruction of anterior horn cells.

Clinically she has motor weakness without sensory changes.

Diagnosis?

A

Poliomyositis.

*** patients can get post-polio syndrome 20-30 years after initial infection which invovles further brreakdown of nerves.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Tib ant contracts eccentrcialyl during what phase of gait?

A

Heel strike

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Diabetic foot ulcer: Describe classification and treatment by Wagner

A

Grade 0:

  • Skin intact
  • “Foot at risk” due to deformities
  • Treat with shoe modification & serial exam

Grade 1:

  • Superficial ulcer
  • Office debridment & TCC

Grade 2:

  • Deeper, full thickness ulcer
  • Formal operative debridement & TCC

Grade 3:

  • Deep abscess or OM
  • Formal operative debridement & TCC

Grade 4:

  • Partial gangrene of forefoot
  • Local vs. larger amputation

Grade 5:

  • Extensive gangrene
  • Amputation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Provocative test fo Morton’s neuroma (2)

A

Mulder’s click

bursal click may be elicited by squeezing MT heads together

Webspace compression test

Pain with compression of MT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

4 technical risk factors for intraoperative fracture in total ankle arthroplasty

A

Overextending the plafond cut too medially or laterally

Making a cut too proximal in the tibia

Using an over-sized tibial component

Distraction of the ankle with an ex-fix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Ottawa ankle rule criteria

A

inability to bear weight

medial or lateral malleolus point tenderness

5MT base tenderness

navicular tenderness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Name 3 surgical options for severe hallux rigidus. Which one would you recommend?

A

MTP arthrodesis: gold standard

MTP arthroplasty: don’t do this! Long term results lead to osteolysis & synovitis

Keller Resection Arthroplasty: for low demand patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Most common complication wiht total ankle arthroplasty

2 ways to prevent it

A

Wound complications

Prevent by:

Long incision to prevent tension on wound

Avoid incising tib ant sheath - prevents bowstringing and wound issues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Treatment algorithm for talar OCD

A

SLC + NWB x6 weeks:

  • Nondisplaced, acute injury

Removal of loose fragment & Microfracture

  • displaced small fragment with minimal bone on the osteochondral fragment
  • Size <1cm

Retrograde drilling

  • Size >1cm with intact cartilage cap

ORIF vs. osteochondral grafting

  • Displaced >0.5cm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

When do you operate in Charcot foot?

A

Once inflammation has gone down

so

Coalescence phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

4 muscles causing deformity in hallux valgus

A

Valgus of 1st toe leads to:

lateralization of sesamoids and respective heads of FHB

Adductor hallucis, attached to fibular sesamoid and lateral proximal phalanx, becomes deforming force

lateral deviation of EHL worsens deformity

Plantar and lateral migration of abductor hallucis casues plantar flexion & pronation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Best shoe modifiaction for reducing risk of plantar apex deformity in Charcot foot?

A

Double rocker bottom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Normal tibi/fib overlap

A

>6mm (some say 10mm) on AP

>1mm on mortise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Stance and swing make up how much of the gait cycle?

A

Stance: 60%

Swing: 40%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Main restraint to proximal migration of the talus?

A

Interosseous ligament (part of distal tibiofibular syndesmosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

4 things you must do in tarsal tunnel release

A

ID the tibial nerve proximally and trace it down

Release Flexor retinaculum

Release Deep investing fascia of lower leg

Release Superficial and deep fascia of abductor hallucis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Surgial indications in Charcot foot

A

Recurrent ulcers

Instability not controlled by a brace

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Where does Baxter’s nerve get entrapped?

A

Becomes compressed between;

fascia of abductor hallucis longus

&

medial side of quadratus plantae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Define turf toe & give 2 defining features

A

Hyperextesion injury to plantar plate and sesamoid complex of the 1st MTP

Characteristic features:

  • inability to push off
  • reduced agility

1st line treatment is conservative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

During gait, when do the Quads fires concentrically ?

A

Midstance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

2 options for tendon transfers in CMT?

A

TP to dorsum of foot

PL to brevis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is the treatment for juvenile HV and how long should this be done for?

A

Non-operative until physes close

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

3 reconstruction options for tibialis anterior ruptures:

A

Sliding tendon graft

EHL tenodesis/transfer

Free tendon autograft

Allograft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

how do you treat the bony deformity assciated with plantar ulcers?

A

Excise them

Helps prevent recurrence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

How much ROM can TAA be expected to add?

A

None.

Expect no more than the pre-op ROM.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Mueller-Weiss Disease

A

Adult onset Navicular AVN

vs. Kohler’s disease (paediatric onset)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

In ankle fusion, what should you do with the lateral malleolus?

A

Retain it - leaves the option for total ankle arthroplasty in the future

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Treatment options for bunionette

A

Non-op

  • works in up to 90%

Surgical

Type I:

  • lateral condelectomy

Type II/III

  • Distal MT Medializing osteotomy (if low IMA)
  • Oblique diaphyseal rotational osteotomy (if high IMA)
  • AVOID proximal osteotomy as poor healing (think Jones)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What clinical test differentiates between high ankle sprain and low ankle sprain?

A

Compression test

They will use this on the exam stem to differentiate between the two

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Approach to foot compartment syndrome fasciotomy

A

3 incision

2x dorsal

one just lateral to 4th MT

one just medial to 2nd MT

1 medial

start: 4cm anterior to posterior heel & 3cm superior to plantar surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Cause and deformity of Mallet Toe?

A

FDL contracture causing DIP hyperflexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Tarlar OCD location with a traumatic hx?

3 characteristics of this lesion

A

Lateral talar dome

(medial has atraumtic history)

Less common

More superficial and smaller

Lower incidence of spontaneous healing

More often displaced and symptomatic

More central or anterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is the relationship of teh subtalar joint and the transverse tarsal joint?

When is this important?

A

Inversion of teh subtalar joint locks the transverse tarsal joint

Allows for a stable hindfoot/midfoot during toe-off

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Name the foot deformity associated the myelomeningocoele at:

L1

L2

L3

L4

L5

S1

A

L1-L3: equinovarus

L4: cavovarus

L5: calcaneovalgus

S1: foot deformity only (no ankle)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Most sensitive test for diagnosing OM

A

MRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Contrast OCDs of the medial versus lateral talar dome.

A

medial talar dome

usually no history of trauma

more common

more posterior

larger and deeper than lateral lesions

lateral talar dome

usually have a traumatic history

more superficial and smaller

more central or anterior

lower incidence of spontaneous healing

more often displaced and symptomatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is the gold standard to determine whether a diabetic ulcer will heal?

What are 2 things that must be present for an ulcer to heal

A

Gold standard:

transcutaneous oxygen pressure >30mmHg (or 40 depending on the resource)

To heal an ulcer, you must have:

transcutaneous O2 pressure >30mmHg

ABI >0.45

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Foot position in ankle fusion

A

Neutral plantar/dorsiflexion

5 degrees of hidnfoot valgus

rotation equal to contralateral foot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What is this deformity?

A

Mallet Toe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

List the treatment options in relation to gap present in achilles tendon

A

0-2 cm: reapproximation

2-5 cm: V-Y Lengthening

5-8/10 cm: Gastrocs turndown +/- FHL augment

>10 cm: allograft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Who gets os trigonum syndrome

What are the main symptoms?

A

Dancers and soccer players

Posterior ankle pain exacerbated by:

  • dancing on pointe or demi-point
  • doing pushoff maneuvers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What is the treatment for a failed silicone implant used to treat hallux rigidus?

A
  1. Removal of implant and synovectomy
  2. If there is lesser toe metatarsalgia then fuse the 1st MTP
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

In isolated MT fracture, what holds the MT in place leading to minimal displacement?

What happens in multiple fractures?

A

Intermetatarsal ligaments

Displacement b/c of inability of IMT ligaments to hold MT in place

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What is the most common foot deformity after stroke?

Name 3 surgical options specifically for this?

A

equinovarus

  • split anterior tibial tendon transfer (SPLATT)
  • flexor hallucis longus tendon transfer to the dorsum of the foot and release of the flexor digitorum longus and brevis tendons at the base of each toe
  • gastrocnemius or achilles lengthening
93
Q

What is the main structure for load/force transfer bewteen the hindfoot and forefoot during stance?

A

Plantar aponeurosis

94
Q

How does autonomic dysfunction play a role in diabetic foot ulcers?

A

Leads to excess dryness of skin

this combined with insensate foot leads to risk of ulceration

Increased pressure/trauma (due to lack of protective sensation) on more friable skin leads to ulceration

95
Q

T/F: Excision of fibular sesamoid causes hallux varus.

A

True.

Other causes are over releasing lateral structures, over tightenign medially and overcorrecting IMA.

96
Q

Normal medial clear space (ankle)

A

<5mm

97
Q

Weil osteotomy: most common complications

What is it due to?

A

Floating toe

Caused by improper cut, leading to intrisics migrating dorsal to the joint and acting as MTP extensors

98
Q

Risk factors for Hallux Valgus

A

Intrinsic:

  • Genetic
  • increased DMAA
  • ligamentous laxity
  • convex MT head
  • 2nd toe deformity/amputation
  • pes planus
  • RA
  • CP

Extrinsic:

  • High heeled shoes with narrow toe box
99
Q

In achilles tendinosis, when do you perform an tendon transfer?

A

When >50% of the tendon is diseased/debrided

100
Q

What structure is the floor of the tarsal tunnel?

A

Abductor Hallicus

101
Q

what is the mainstay of non-operative treatment for hallux rigidis?

A

Orthotics: Morton’s extension with stiff foot plate

102
Q

What tendon are the 1st toe sesamoids attached to?

A

FHB

103
Q

T/F: Excision of tibial sesamoid causes hallux varus.

A

False.

(It’s caused by excision on fibular sesamoid)

104
Q

Which sesamoid is more likely to be bipartate?

A

Tibial

(97% of bipartate are tibial)

105
Q

Triad of symptoms for tibialis anterior rupture

A

(1) a pseudotumor at the anterior part of the ankle that corresponded with the ruptured tendon end
(2) loss of the normal contour of the tendon
(3) weak dorsiflexion of the ankle accompanied by hyperextension of all of the toes

106
Q

What issue is associated with anteriro impingement with anterior tibial and talar osteophytes?

A

Lateral instability

35% will continue to have the problem even after arthroscopic debridement

107
Q

Pain 10 months post op.

What’s the problem?

(It’s not an infection)

A

Syndesmotic nonunion

Below is a picture of a WELL-united syndesmosis

108
Q

Classification for Charcot Foot (Eichenholtz)

A

Stage 0:

  • joint edema
  • Radiographs are negative
  • Bone scan may be positive in all stage

Stage 1: Fragmentation

  • joint edema
  • Osseous fragmentation with joint dislocation

Stage 2: Coalescence

  • Decreased local edema
  • X-rays show coalescence of fragments and absorption of the fine bone debris

Stage 3: Reconstruction

  • No local edema
  • radiographs show consolidation and remodelling of fracture fragments
109
Q

When do you want to operate in a charcot foot?

What is the risk?

A

Coalescence/consolidation phase

wait until the inflammatory phase is over b/c there is a higher rate of:

  • nonunion
  • infection
  • wound complications
  • late deformity
  • eventual amputation

There is a debate over early stabilization (but don’t say that)

110
Q

COntraindications to TAA?

A

uncorrectable deformity

severe osteoporosis

talus osteonecrosis

charcot joint, ankle instability

obesity

young laborers increase the risk of failure and revision

111
Q

What muscles share an origin with the plantar aponeurosis?

A

abductor hallucis, flexor digitorum brevis, and quadratus plantae

112
Q

In DM, what is the best predictor of eventual LE amputation?

A

Presence of Diabetic foot ulcer

113
Q

Bunionette classification

A

Type I: widening of lateral condyle

Type II: lateral bowing if distal 5th MT

Type III: Increased IMA of 4th/5th MT

114
Q

What is the first line treatment of Charcot foot?

A

TCC x 2-4 months

Cast changed q2-4 weeks

± Then CROW walker

115
Q

Indications for primary arthrodesis in lisfranc injury

A

purley ligamentous injury

delayed presentation

116
Q

How do you differentiate erythema caused by charcot neuropathy from that of infection?

A

In charcot, it will decrease with elevation of foot

No change with elevation in infection

117
Q

6 characteristics of juvenile hallux valgus

A

often bilateral and familial

pain usually not primary complaint

varus of first MT with widened IMA usually present

DMAA usually increased

often associated with flexible flatfoot

Highly recurrent (50%)

118
Q

What is the most common deformity of the lesser toes?

A

Hammer toe

119
Q

7 complications specific to Hallux Valgus Surgical Correction

A

Recurrence

AVN to metatarsal head

Dorsal malunion with transfer metatarasalgia

Hallux Varus

Cock up toe deformity

2nd MT transfer metatarsalgia

Neuropraxia

120
Q

Complication of excision of tibial & fibular sesamoids?

A

Cock-up deformity

121
Q

A major dDx for 2nd MTP synovitis is Morton’s neuroma

Why is it important to make the correct diagnosis?

A

Injection of steroids for MTP synovitis misdiagnosed as Morton’s neuroma will accelerate capsuloligamentous attenuation, leading to complications (crossed-toe, MTP dislocation etc)

122
Q

Indications to fix navicular fracture

A

avulsion fractures involving > 25% of articular surface

tuberosity fractures with > 5mm diastasis or large intra-articular fragment

displaced or intra-articular Type I and II navicular body fractures

123
Q

What is the operative management of Baxters nerve compression?

A

Release of fascia of Abductor hallicus

124
Q

At the level of the fibular groove, what peroneal tendon is posterior?

A

Longus

125
Q

Name 1 contraindication and 3 complications of Keller Resection Arthroplasty

A

Resection arthroplasty of 1st MTP

  • Contraindication: pre-existing hyperextension deformity

Complications:

  • hyperextension deformity (cock-up deformity)
  • Push-off weakness
  • Transfer metatarsalgia: decreased with capsular interposition
126
Q

What are two risks specific to sesamoidectomy procedure?

A
  1. Cock-up toe (need to meticulously repair FHB)
  2. Nerve injury (medial plantar nerve)
127
Q

At heel strike, is the hindfoot in varus or valgus?

A

Valgus with transverse tarsal joint UNlocked

Helps dissipate up to 50% of the force

128
Q

3 indications to emergent lisfranc operative management

What implant do you use in this case?

A

the presence of compartment syndrome

open injury

irreducible dislocations

  • Consider ex-fix due to soft tissue compromise
129
Q

Classification of plantar plate injury

A
130
Q

Name 5 causes of Charcot arthropathy of the foot & ankle

A

DM

Alcoholism

Syrinx

Syphylis

Leprosy

(This was a previous SAQ)

131
Q

3 surgical options for Freiberg’s Infraction

A

MTP arthrotomy for I&D and removal of loose bodies

Dorsal closing wedge osteotomy (moves plantar, intact, cartilage into articulation with joint)

DuVries arthroplasty: partial MT head resection (see picture)

132
Q

Positive prognostic indicators for tarsal tunnel release (5)

A

Compressive anatomy structure is identified and removed

Symptoms in a distribution of the tibial nerve (or DPN)

a positive nerve compression sign

Positive electrodiagnostic study

a space occupying mass

133
Q

Most common complication in correction of Juvenlie HV?

A

Recurrence: > 50%

134
Q

What peroneal tendon is more commonly torn?

A

brevis

135
Q

How many patients will get subtalar arthritis 10 years after arthrodesis?

A

50%

136
Q

What muscle imbalance causes the primary deformity in CMT?

A

peroneus longus overpowering TA

PL causes plantarflexion of 1st ray in the absence of TA. This drives the remaining deformities of the foot

137
Q

During gait, when is the center of gravity the highest and lowest?

A

Highest: during midstance

Lowest: double limb support

138
Q

2 indications for MTP fusion in the treatment of hallux valgus (broadly speaking)

A
  1. Connective tissue disorders/ “Loosey-goosey” (ED, CP, DOWNS)
  2. Arthritis (OA or Gout)
139
Q

What kind of shoe for a diabetic foot at risk?

A

Rocker bottom

140
Q

Treatment algorithm for hallux valgus

A
141
Q

Knot of Henry, which tendon is dorsal?

A

Crossing of FHL and FDL

FHL is dorsal

142
Q

List poor prognostic indicators for tarsal tunnel release

A

Double crush syndrome

inadequate release

Post-op hematoma

Scarring around the nerve

Improper diagnosis

143
Q

Position of fusion of 1st MTP?

A

10-15 degrees of dorsiflexion relative to the floor

  • (be careful, sometimes they as in relation to the metatarsal, in which case it would be 25-35 degrees relative to 1st MT)

10-15 degrees of valgus relative to MT shaft

Neutral rotation

144
Q

Treatment of Hallux Rigidus by grade:

A

0-1:

  • Nonoperative, Activity modification with Morton’s extension

1&2:

  • Dorsal cheilectomy ± Moberg’s

3&4:

  • MTP Arthrodesis
  • MTP Arthroplasty - controversial
  • Poor long term results with silicone implants due to osteolysis. Capsular interpositional arthroplasty gaining popularity

Old & low demand:

  • Keller resection arthroplasty

Acute osteochondral or chondral defects:

  • Synovectomy & debridement
145
Q

Brodksy classificaiton for charcot foot

A

stage 1: midfoot (60%)

Stage 2: hindfoot: (30%)

Stage 3: ankle or calcaneal tubeosity: 5-10%

Stage 4: combination

Stage 5: Forefoot only

146
Q

Indications for surgery in base of 5th MT fracture

A

Failure of nonop

Zone 2 in elite athletes

Zone 3 with sclerosis or nonunion or in athletic individual

147
Q

Best shoe modification for Eichenholtz stage 3

A

Double rocker bottom shoe

148
Q

What is the first deforming factor in HMSN?

A

Plantarflexion of 1st ray

149
Q

Risk factors for charcot foot.

Give 4

A
  1. diabetic neuropathy
  2. alcoholism
  3. leprosy
  4. myelomeningocele
  5. tabes dorsalis/syphilis
  6. syringomyelia
150
Q

What is this deformity?

A

Claw Toe

(Intrinsic Minus of the foot)

151
Q

Location of anteromedial ankle portal scope

A

between saphenous vein and tib ant

Just medial to tib ant

152
Q

What s Baxter’s nerve?

What does it inneravate?

Name 1 common pathology with it:

A

1st branch of lateral plantar nerve

Innervates abductor digiti quinti

Can be a source of medial heel pain

153
Q

In infected diabetic foot ulcer, how often are temperature, WBC, ESR and CRP increased?

A

Only 50% of the time

do not rely on this - exam and MRi/imaging are critical

154
Q

Name 3 surgical options for charcot foot

A

exostectomy + TAL

reconstruction with osteotomy and fusion

Amputation

155
Q

Risk factors for achilles tear

A

episodic athletes, “weekend warrior”

flouroquinolone antibiotics

steroid injections

Male

Long distance runners

156
Q

Cause and clinical of claw toe

A

MTP hyperextension

Causes PIP and DIP flexion

157
Q

If operating on a HV patient with open physes, where can you do your osteotomy?

A

Cuneiform

DO NOT peform at proximal metaphysis if physis is open

158
Q

What are the 8 phases of gait?

A

Weight acceptance (stance):

  1. initial contact
  2. limb-loading response

Single-Limb support (stance):

  1. Midstance
  2. Terminal stance
  3. Preswing

Limb-advancement (Swing):

  1. initial swing
  2. midswing
  3. terminal swing
159
Q

Name the muscle imbalances in HMSN?

A

Strong tib post & weak tib ant

Strong PL & weak PB

160
Q

4 surgical interventions for hammertoe

A

Flexible deformity

FDL to extensor tendon transfer

Fixed Deformity

Resection arthroplasty ± tenotomy and tendon transfer

Girdlestone procedure (flexor to extensor transfer)

Arthrodesis

161
Q

Worse with plantarflexion (pointe position in Ballet)

Dx and treamtent/

A

Os trigonum

arthroscopic excision is symptomatic

162
Q

Mechanism of high ankle sprain

A

external rotation injury

vs low ankle sprain: eversion

163
Q

Risks of nonunion in ankle fusion

A

Smoking

adjacent joint fusion

Previously failed arthrodesis

Avascular necrosis

164
Q

What are this??

What are it for?

A

Morton’s extension with stiff foot plate

Used for hallux rigidus

165
Q

In hallux rigidus, what happens to plantar pressure across 1st MTP?

A

It increases

166
Q

Two specific tests that differentiate charcot from infection?

A

1) elevation of foot will decrease erythema in charcot but not infection
2) indium WBC scan - cold in charcot

(Bone scan hot in both)

167
Q

Gold standard care for diabetic foot ulcers

A

Multidisciplinary foot care

always say this

168
Q

Complication of sesamoidectomy?

Bilateral

Tibial

Fibular

A

Bilateral: cock-up deformity due to weak FHB

Tibial: hallux valgus

Fibular: Hallux varus

169
Q

What is the most common cause of hallux VARUS?

A

Iatrogenic from over-correction of Hallux Valgus

170
Q

What injury is most likely to result in a Posttraumatic tibiofibular synostosis?

A

Weber C

171
Q

What must you do to correct flatfoot after excising an accessory navicular?

A

Calcaneal osteotomy

Rerouting the Posterior tibial tendon will not correct flatfoot

172
Q

How much MTP dorsiflexion is needed to run properly?

A

60 degrees.

For stiff MTP in rigidus, a Moberg closing dorsal wedge can be used to increase dorsiflexion.

173
Q

In hallux rigidus, what happens to the axis of rotation?

A

It is altered and becomes eccentric

174
Q

A patient has a bunionette with an IMA > 12.

WHat is the treatment?

A

Diaphyseal rotation osteotomy.

Not a proximal osteotomy. Poor blood supply there.

175
Q

Contraindications to total ankle arthroplasty: (7)

A

uncorrectable deformity

severe osteoporosis

talar osteonecrosis

Charcot joint

ankle instability

obesity

Young laboureres (increased risk of failure/revision)

176
Q

The Center of Mass is located anterior to which vertebra?

A

S2

177
Q

Rate of nonunion and infeection in foot surgery/reconstruction in diabetics

A

10x increased risk of infection in DM, associated neuropathy or peripheral artery disease

50% risk of nonunion in complicated diabetics

178
Q

Classification of accessory navicular

A

I: sesamoid in tib post

II: separate accessory bone attached via synchondrosis

III: complete bony enlargement

179
Q

What are the 2 most common causes of an unsatisfactory Symes amputation

A

Migration of the posterior heel pad

(avoid by securing achilles to tibia via transosseous anchors)

sloughing due to overaggressive debridement of fishmouths

180
Q

Type of shoe sole/shape for tibiotalar arthritis

A

single rocker bottom

181
Q

Complication of excision of fibular sesamoid in HV correction?

A

Hallux varus

182
Q

Goal of treatment of charcot foot (and all foot issues)

A

The creation of a stable, plantigrade, shoeable foot and the absence of recurrent ulceration

183
Q

What ankle portal is established first?

A

Antero medial = primary viewing portal

nick and spread method

184
Q

What are the three radiologic signs of bunionette deformity?

A
  1. increased 4-5 IMA (normal 6.5-8 degrees)
  2. increased lateral deviation angle (normal 0-7 degrees)
  3. increased width of MT head (normal <13mm)
185
Q

muscle imbalance in equinovarus foot

A

Strong: TA, TP ±FHL/FDL, gastrocs

Weak: peroneus longus/brevis

Equinus: gastrocs

varus: TP, TA

186
Q

Most common location of atraumatic talar OCD

Give 3 characteristics?

A

medial/posteromedial talar dome

Most common overall

more posterior

larger and deeper than lateral lesions

187
Q

What is the effect of the windlass mechanism?

A

Increases arch height as toes dorsiflex during toe off

Keeps everythng taught for toe off power

188
Q

Where do peroneus brevis tears occur? Longus?

A

Brevis: fiblar groove (aka retromalleolar sulcus)

Longus: peroneal tubercle/cuboid tunnel

189
Q

What are the branches of the tibial nerve? Where does it normally branch?

A

Medial and lateral plantar nerves, medial calcaneal nerve

Usually branches within the lacinate ligament (flexor retinaculum)

190
Q

How much bone is removed in a Girdlestone of the toe for claw toe?

A

None.

Trick question.

Toe girdlestone is EDB tenotomy, EDL lengthening, FDL flexor-to-extensor transfer.

Deformity must be flexible.

191
Q

A patient has tarsal tunnel release and comes back with recalcitrant symptoms. Plan

A

DO NOT do repeat surgery

It is worse than the original

192
Q

During heel strike, the transverse tarsal (Chopart) joint axes are _____________

A

Parallel

193
Q

What is going on here and what is management?

A

Posttraumatic tibiofibular synostosis

Resection reserved for persistent pain that fails to respond to nonsurgical management.

194
Q

Most diabetic foot ulcers recur within what time frame after TCC?

A

4 -6 weeks (closer to 4)

195
Q

Describe borders and contents of tarsal tunnels

A

Posterior:

  • Flexor retinaculum (lacinate ligament)
  • calcaneus (medial)
  • talus (medial)
  • abductor hallucis (inferior)
  • Contains
  • Tom, Dick, A Very Nervous Harry

Anterior

  • Inferior Retinaculum
  • fascia overlying the talus and navicular
  • Contents:
  • DPN, EHL, EDL, DP artery
196
Q

Diagnosis & treatment?

(see picture)

A

Kohler’s disease: self-limiting AVN of navicular

Treatment:

SLC (walking cast) - studies show this decreases symptom duration

SURGERY NOT INDICATED

197
Q

5th MT fracture: increased nonunion in what zones

A

Zone 2 (Jones)

Zone 3: diaphysis

198
Q

Treatment of dorsal MTP dislocation

A

Nonoperative: 1st line but won’t correct defority

Operative

  • Weil osteotomy
  • Plantar plate repair
  • Flexor to extensor tendon transfer (Girdelstone-Taylor)
  • EDB transfer under intermetatarsal ligament
199
Q

Muscle imbalance in cavovarus foot

A

Strong PL, TP

Weak: TA, PB

200
Q

What should you consider doing when doing a plantar fascia release?

A

Release of Baxter’s nerve, as this is often confused with plantar fascitis

Remember only do partial release of plantar fascia

201
Q

4 favourable patient factors for total ankle arthroplasty

A

Older, low demand, reasonably mobile patients with no siginificant co-morbidities

Normal or low BMI

Well-aligned and stable hindfoot

Good soft tissues

202
Q

Contraindications to total ankle arthroplasty (10)

A
  • Unresectable osteonecrotic bone
  • peripheral vascular disease
  • neuropathy
  • neuropathic joint disease (Charcot arthropathy)
  • ankle infection
  • severe joint laxity
  • nonreconstructible ankle ligaments
  • loss of lower leg muscular control
  • severe osteopenia or osteoporosis
  • Heavy labourer
203
Q

Normal tib/fib clear space

A

<6mm on both AP and mortise, 1cm above joint

204
Q

Normal values for:

Hallux valgus angle

Intermetatarsal angle

Distal metatarsal articular angle

Hallux valgus interphalangeus angle

A

HVA:

IMA:

DMAA:

HVI:

205
Q

This diagnosis recalcitrant to conservative therapy.

Next step?

A

tibial sesamoidectomy

206
Q

Risk of fixation failure in base of 5th MT IM screw

A

elite athletes

failure to wait until radiographic healing to return to sports

fracture distraction or malreduction due to screw being too long (will straighten the curved MT shaft or perforate the medial cortex)

207
Q

dDx for medial heel pain (5)

A

Plantar fascitis

heel pad atrophy

Baxter’s nerve entrapment

Calcaneal stress fracture

Tarsal tunnel syndrome

208
Q

6 risk factors for Charcot Neuropathy

A

Diabetic neuropathy

Alcoholism

Leprosy

Myelomeningocoele

Tabes dorsalis/syphylis

Syringomyelia

209
Q

Broadly speaking, what are 2 types of syndesmotic fixation

A

screws

tightrope

210
Q

3 theories for pathophysiology of charcot foot

A

Neurotraumatic:

Insensate joint subjected to repetitive microtrauma

Body unable to adopt protective mechanisms to compensate for microtrauam due to abnormal sensation

Neurovascular

Autonomic dysfunction increases blood flow though AV shunting

Leads to bone resorption and weakening

Molecular Biology

Inflammatory cytokines may cause destruction

IL-1, TNF-alpha lead to increased production of transcription factor kB

RANK/RANKL/OPG triad pathway

211
Q

3 indications for syndesmotic screws?

A
  1. syndesmotic sprain (without fracture) with instability on stress radiographs
  2. syndesmotic sprain refractory to conservative treatment
  3. syndesmotic injury with associated fracture that remains unstable after fixation of fracture
212
Q

What is a Morton’s extension orthotic used for?

A

Hallux Rigidus

213
Q

WHat’s a Lapidus procedure. What are it’s indications?

A

lapidus: 1st TMT arthrodesis + McBride

Indications:

  • TMT arthritis
  • instability
  • Metatarsus Primus Varus
  • Severe deformity with large IMA
214
Q

Options for tendon transfers in foot drop: (2)

A

Simple tib post transfer

Bridle procedure (tri-tendon anastomosis)

215
Q

Most common complication following this:

Initial management?

A

Navicular stress fracture

most common complication: nonunion

Initial mangaement; cast and NWB x 6-8 weeks

High success rate

216
Q

3 specific options for management of Morton’s Neuroma (surgical an non)

A

Nonop

Wide toe box shoes and MT pad: 1st line. OK results only

Corticosteroid injection: benefit in short term RCTs

Neurectomy: dorsal approach > plantar

217
Q

Gastrocs contraction leads to what motion?

A

Flexion of knee

Plantarflexion of ankle

Pronation of subtalar joint

218
Q

What is Morton’s neuroma

What causes it?

A

Compression neuropathy of the interdigital nerve

Most commonly involves 2nd/3rd interdigital nerves

Cause unknown but likely compression around transverse intermetatarsal ligament

219
Q

Best test for syndesmosis injury?

A

Cotton test (intraop)

fewest false-positive results and smallest inter-observer variance

220
Q

Name the ligaments of the ankle syndesmosis

A

AITFL

PITFL

Interosseous membrane

inferior transverse ligament

  • AKA inferior part of IoM

interosseous ligament

  • distal continuation of the interosseous membrane
  • main restraint to proximal migration of the talus
221
Q

2 reasons to include a Weil osteotomy in the treatment of claw toe?

A
  1. Multiple toes involved (i.e. treatment of multiple flexible claw toes = girdlestone and Weils)
  2. Fixed deformities = resection arthroplasty, capsulotomy and Weil
222
Q

How many articulations are there in the lisfranc joint complex?

A

3:

TMT

intermetatarsal

intertarsal

223
Q

What are the comparmtnets of the foot?

A

9 compartments (as per JAAOS)

Medial

  • Abductor hallucis
  • FHB

Lateral

  • Abductor digiti minimi
  • FDMB

Interossei x 4

Central

  • quadratus plantae

Superficial

  • FDB

Deep

  • Adductor hallucis
  • tib post neurovascular bundle
224
Q

Which test for acute syndesmotic injury of the ankle has the fewest false-positive results and smallest inter-observer variance when used intraoperatively?

A

Cotton test

(Pull fibula laterally)

225
Q

Name 3 surgical options for low grade hallux rigidus

A

Joint debridmenet & synovectomy

Dorsal chielectomy:

  • pain with dorsiflexion is a good predictor of good results

Moberg’s extension osteotomy

  • Dorsal closing wedge osteotomy of proximal phalanx
226
Q

Natural history of accessory navicular?

A

most become asymptomatic by skeletal maturity

227
Q

Name 2 tests specific for the lateral ankle ligments

A

Anterior drawer test

Talar tilt test

228
Q

Describe the gold standard surgical treatment for lateral ankle instability

A

Modified Brostrum

Lateral approach to ankle

Dissect out remnants of ATFL & CFL (often torn off fibula)

Dissect out extensor retinaculum

With suture anchors or trans-osseous tunnels, anatomically repair the ATFL & CFL ligaments to their origins along with a bite of the extensor retinaculum

±tendon transfer & tenodesis (ie Evans split peroneus brevis)

OITE (21 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions