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Entomology > Food micro exam 1 > Flashcards

Food micro exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Gram-positive bacteria

A

Staphylococcus, Listeria monocytogenes, Clostridium botulinum

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2
Q

Gram-negative bacteria

A

Escherichia coli, Salmmonella

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3
Q

What color is gram-positive

A

Violet

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4
Q

What color is gram-negative

A

Red/pink

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5
Q

Orientation and number of flagella in monotrichous

A

1 at the end

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6
Q

Orientation and number of flagella in Lophotrichous

A

1 on each end

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7
Q

Orientation and number of flagella in Amphitrichous

A

Multiple on one side

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8
Q

Orientation and number of flagella in Peritrichous

A

Multiple all over

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9
Q

Which type of flagellum isn’t polar

A

Peritrichous

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10
Q

Lag phase

A

Point where microorganism is getting used to environment

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11
Q

Log (exponential) phase

A

Point where thee population doubles

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12
Q

Stationary phase

A

Point where most harmful products are produced. Also max population which leads to same number of organisms living and dying.

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13
Q

Death phase

A

phase where population declines

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14
Q

Does gram - or gram + require more cells in order to cause an infection?

A

Gram +

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15
Q

Approximately how many gram + cells are needed in order for an infection to occur?

A

Thousands to hundreds of thousands

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16
Q

Approximately how many Gram - cells are needed to cause an infection?

A

As little as 10

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17
Q

What is responsible for majority of food borne illnesses

A

Viruses

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18
Q

Who definitively disproved spontaneous generation

A

Louis Pasteur

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19
Q

How was spontaneous generation disproved

A

With a swan-necked flask experiment

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20
Q

What is Joseph Lister known for?

A

Sanitation. Created first gas antiseptic (which cleans the air).

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21
Q

What is John Snow know for

A

He was the first epidemiologist and discovered cholera outbreak in London

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22
Q

Who was penicillin discovered by

A

Alexander Flemming

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23
Q

Pathway for food borne illness and types of it

Viruses

A

No derivative
Hepatitis A, Norwalk, Rotaviruses

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24
Q

Pathway for food borne illness and types of it

Bacteria

A

LOOK AT SLIDE TOO COMPLICATED TO TYPE

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25
Q

BLANK

A

BLANK

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26
Q

Phylum Firmicutes Gram +

A

Clostridium, Bacillus, Staphylococcus, Lactic acid bacteria (LAB), Listeria

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27
Q

Phylum Proteobacteria Gram negative

A

Escherichia, Salmonella, Shigella, Yersinia, Campylobacter, Vibrio, Brucella

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28
Q

Gram-Positive

A

Thick, peptidoglycan cell wall is the outermost layer. Teichoic acid - antigen

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29
Q

Gram - Negative

A

Cell walls are thinner and more complex. outer membrane has LPS (endotoxin that causes inflammatory response)

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30
Q

Parasite

A

Cryptosporidium, Giardia, Cyclospora,taxoplasma

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31
Q

What is the USDA

A

US Department of Agriculture

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32
Q

FSIS

A

Food Safety Inspection Service

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33
Q

ARS

A

Agricultural Research Service

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34
Q

Which regulatory agency cannot issue recalls and which can detain or seize contaminated food?

A

USDA, FSIS

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35
Q

What is FSMA

A

Food Safety Modernization Act. Gives FDA the authority to issue recalls

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36
Q

Is the CDC a regulatory Agency

A

NO

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37
Q

Which food borne illness causes the largest number of deaths (4).

A

Salmonella Typhi, Taenia solium, Hepatitus A virus, Aflatoxin

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38
Q

Which food borne illnesses are most common (3)

A

Campylobacter jejuni, non-typhoidal Salmonella, Norovirus.

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39
Q

What is healthy life years

A

Number of days you are sick in a year

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40
Q

How many food borne pathogens affect the world

A

31

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41
Q

Does an increase in meat production cause higher or lower death rates for the area

A

Higher

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42
Q

Does a higher meat consumption cause a higher or lower mortality rate

A

Lower

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43
Q

Why does a high meat consumption lead to a lower mortality rate?

A

This indicates access to other products that maintain health. If a person can buy meat it is more likely they have more money.

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44
Q

Which virus has the high infection?

A

Norovirus

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45
Q

Which pathogen is found mainly in the US and why?

A

Clostridium perfringens. Because of temperature control

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46
Q

Which pathogen has a Zero Tolerance policy in the US/

A

Listeria monocytogens

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47
Q

What is non-intact beef

A

Ground or tenderized beef

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48
Q

Adulteration in non-intact beef

A

Means it has something bad growing in or on it

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49
Q

What are the 5 major things in the Food System Interconnectedness

A

Overall health, Food Safety, Nutrition, Food Security, and Sustainability and Security.

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50
Q

What happens if sustainability is compromised?

A

Food Safety increases

51
Q

SOURCES OF CONTAMINATION

A

LOOK AT GRAPH

52
Q

What is the primary contaminator?

A

Soil

53
Q

What are frequent contaminants of produce?

A

Bacillus, Psuedomonas, Clostridium spp. (does very well in soil and is a spore former)
Raw is risky

54
Q

Name all sources of contamination (6)

A

Soil, sewage and manure, air/wind, water, food handling, food processing environment

55
Q

Should compost be treated and if yes why?

A

Yes because a long slow bake will not kill off spore formers

56
Q

What is put in water to clean produce

A

Chlorine

57
Q

Does cross-contamination occur more with or without gloves?

A

With gloves

58
Q

Is muscle tissue sterile before cutting?

A

Yes

59
Q

Which pathogens are commonly found in red meat?

A

Salmonella and E. coli

60
Q

Which pathogens are commonly found in poultry?

A

Campylobacter, Salmonella, and E. coli

61
Q

What are some carbon sources

A

Sugars, Polysaccharides, and organic acids

62
Q

Examples of sugar

A

glucose, lactose, fructose

63
Q

Example of polysaccharide

A

Starch, cellulose

64
Q

Example of organic acids

A

Lactate and acetate

65
Q

What are some sources of Nitrogen?

A

amino acids?, lipids, proteins, vitamins, minerals, and water

66
Q

What is an obligate aerobe

A

Requires oxygen for growth.

67
Q

Example of obligate anaerobee

A

Penicillium and Aspergillus

68
Q

Obligate Anaerobe

A

Oxygen is poisonous

69
Q

Example of obligate anaerobe

A

Clostridium spp.

70
Q

Facultative anaerobes

A

Not strict aerobes or anaerobes. Can use oxygen or not

71
Q

Example of facultative anaerobe

A

Saccharomycese cerveseige - yeast

72
Q

Microaerophilic bacteria

A

Require oxygen levels lower than that found under normal atmospheric conditions

73
Q

example of microaerophilic bacteria

A

Campylobacter spp. Found in chicken intestine.

74
Q

Aerotolerant anaerobes

A

Don’t use oxygen but are not killed by it

75
Q

example of Aerotolerant anaerobes

A

lactic acid bacteria

76
Q

What happens if pyruvate undergoes glycolysis

A

Glucose is formed

77
Q

What happens if pyruvate is in the presence of O2?

A

Aerobic cellular respiration

78
Q

What happens if pyruvate doesn’t undergo glycolysis and there is no O2 present?

A

Fermentation

79
Q

Glycolysis (EMP pathway)

A

Glucose broken down to form pyruvate

80
Q

Where does glycolysis occur?

A

In the cytoplasm of the cell

81
Q

What does Glycolysis yield

A

2 ATP per glucose

82
Q

What happens when glycolysis transfers electrons from NAD+ to 2 NADH?

A

It drives the electron transport chain

83
Q

Where does aerobic (respiration) take place?

A

The mitochondria

84
Q

What is the process of Aerobic (respiration)

A

Pyruvate to Acetyl CoA to Citric Acid Cycle to NADH and FADH2

85
Q

What is aerobic (respiration) used for

A

Used in the ETC to generate BIG ENERGY via oxidative phosphorylation (32 ATP)

86
Q

Does aerobic (respiration) take a long time or does it happen fast

A

Takes a long time

87
Q

Anaerobic (fermentation) is the conversion of what to what and what does it yield

A

Pyruvate to lactase (or another molecule) and yields NAD+ and NADH

88
Q

How many ATP per glucose does Anaerobic (fermentation) produce

A

2

89
Q

How does Anaerobic (fermentation) generate ATP?

A

Via substrate level phosphorylation in fermentation

90
Q

Why can’t oxidative phosphorylation occur during fermentation?

A

Because there is no O2

91
Q

What are some anaerobic process byproducts?

A

Acetic acid, lactic acid, alcohol, and gas (CO2)

92
Q

Which product of anaerobic is from the homolactic pathway

A

L-Lactate

93
Q

What is Diacetyl?

A

Buttery flavor compound

94
Q

How is diacetyl formed?

A

LAB pyruvate to pyruvate + acetaldehyde to alpha acetolactate to diacetyl + CO2

95
Q

How are lipids metabolized?

A

through lipases secreted by molds. This is an aerobic process

96
Q

Decarboxylation and deamination

A

Serine to hydrogen sulfate?

97
Q

How are samples of possibly contaminated food collected?

A

Aseptically

98
Q

What do we do with samples if the numbers detected are low and we are interested in presence or absence?

A

Enrichment

99
Q

Dilute when

A

if high quantities are expected and we are interested in quantification

100
Q

What is a Standard plate count?

A

The dilution and plating of colonies to determine population

101
Q

What is assumption?

A

Each colony forming unit arises from a single cell

102
Q

What does S.P.C. rely on in order to find a countable size?

A

The ability of a cell to grow to a visible size

103
Q

What are some factors that may affect Colony formation units?

A

Physiological state, growth conditions, and nutrient availability

104
Q

What does an aerobic plate count do?

A

Estimates number of microorganisms in food

105
Q

What are limitations to APC?

A

Only estimates a certain category of microorganisms

106
Q

What type of plating method does APC normally use?

A

Spread Plate

107
Q

What would you need to cultivate anaerobes?

A

Anaerobic hood, anaerobic jars and tubes, modified atmosphere.

108
Q

What type of plating method does Culturing anaerobes normally use?

A

Pour plates

109
Q

What is selective media

A

Incorporation of ingredients that favor or inhibit growth of particular microorganisms.

110
Q

What does selective media normally grow?

A

Antibiotics, salts, and chemicals?

111
Q

What is the difference between selective and nonselective media

A

Nonselective medias can grow anything selective media can only grow certain things

112
Q

How does selective media work?

A

It inhibits the growth of unwanted organisms

113
Q

What is differential media?

A

Incorporation of ingredients that allow differentiation between microorganisms due to biochemical reactions. (indicator dyes + blood)

114
Q

What is the use for differential media?

A

It allows for unique looks on plates

115
Q

Can injured cells still cause disease

A

Yes

116
Q

What can cause a cell to be injured

A

sublethal stress

117
Q

Why are injured cells dangerous?

A

They are hard to detect with normal methods and they still express virulent factors

118
Q

What does Viable but nonculturable (VBNC) mean?

A

It is in vegetative or dormant state and cannot be cultured by normal means. It can also be fine, but just not in reproductive state

119
Q

TEST QUESTION!!!
Why are VBNC and injured cells a food safety concern?

A

They are hard to detect and can still be virulent. A negative test for pathogens in food is never really a negative. There is always room for error and accident.

120
Q

What is the Most Probable Number?

A

relatively fast screening method that estimates low number of microorganisms and uses test tubes of broth that enrich and select for particular microorganisms.

121
Q

Are Most Probable Number tests looking at gram + or -

A

Mainly Gram -

122
Q

What do rapid methods do?

A

Occur within seconds to days. Rapid assays focused on serology genetics etc. Its accuracy is based on sensitivity and specificity. It. uses antibody-based methods and nucleic acid-based methods.

123
Q

Antibody-based methods

A

Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) or Latex agglutination test

124
Q

What are limitations of Nucleic acid-based methods (PCR, qPCR)

A

It is never quantifiable, some methods have a high limit of detection, and DON’T ALWAYS TELL YOU IF MICROORGANISM IS ALIVE OR VIRULENT

Entomology (4 decks)

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