Food Drug & Cosmetic Act and Related Regulations Flashcards

PA MPJE madeeasy

1
Q

What did the FD&C Act of 1938 etablish?

A

no new drug couls be marketed until proven safe for use under the conditions described on the label and approved by the FDA
-requires labels to have adequate directions for use

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2
Q

How is the term drug defined:

A

-articles recognized in the official USP, Homeopathic Pharmacopeia of the US
-articles intended for use in the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment or prevention of disease, in man or other animals
-articles (other than food) intended to affect the structure or any function of the body of man or other animals
-articles intended for use as a component of any article specified in the above clauses, but does not include devices of their components, parts or accessories

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3
Q

How is a dietary supplement defined?

A

-vitamin
-mineral
-herb or other botanical
-amino acid
-dietary substances for use by man to supplement the diet by increasing the dietary intake
-concectrate, metabolite, constituent, extract or combination of the above

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4
Q

What does the Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act entail?

A

-mandates that the FDA regulate dietary supplements as a special type of food rather than a drug
-DSHEA does not allow claims that dietary supplements diagnose treat, cure, or prevent disease
–> Basically DSHEA allows dietary supplement manufacturers to promote
substantiated structure/function claims which would normally classify the product as a drug

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5
Q

what are the 4 types of nutritional support supplements that DSHEA allows?

A

1- the product will benefit a classical nutrient deficiency disease as long as it also discloses that prevalence of the disease in the US
2- description of the role of the dietary supplments in affecting the structure or function of the body
3- characterization of the documented mechanism by which a nutrient or dietary supplement acts to maintain structure or function
4- description of the general well-being from consumption of a nutrient or dietary supplement (energizer)

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6
Q

What are 2 statements that are needed on dietary supplement labels?

A
  • “This product has not been evaluated by the FDA”
  • “This product is not intended to diagnose, treat, cure, or prevent any disease”
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7
Q

Unit-dose beyond use dates

A
  • for non-sterile solid & liquid products repackaged into unit-dose or single-unit containers; rph must affix a “beyond-use date” that is ONE YR OR LESS
    –> Expiration date not to exceed 6 months, and that the 6 month period not exceed 25% of the remaining time between the date of repackaging and the expiration date on the unopened
    original manufacturer’s container
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8
Q

Prescription vial beyond use dates (multiple unit containers)

A

Per USP, remain “not later than”:
-the expiration date on that manufactures container or
-one year from the date the drug is dispensed

*PA LAW: “drugs which at the time of dispensing have full potency for less than 1 yr, as determined by the expiration date placed on the original label by the manufacturer”
–> may only be dispensed with a label that contains expiration date: “do not use after (manufractuers expiration date)”

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9
Q

What did the Durham Humphrey Amendment establish?

A

-created a statutory distinction between a rx and OTC drug
-authorized refills on rxs, as well as oral (phone) prescriptions
-also deemed the rx label as meting the adequate directions for use requirement

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10
Q

What is the Kefauver Harris Amendment?

A

-1962 amendment to the FD&C Act (triggered by the Thalidomide disaster), required my carefully controlled clinical studies
-imposed additional requirements that drugs be effective in addition to the safety requirement imposed by the original 1938 FD&C Act
-also established Good Manufacturing Practices & increased the inspection authority of the FDA

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11
Q

What are Good Manufacturing Practices (GMPs)?

A

-establish minimum requirements for the methods, facilities or control used in manufacture, processing, packaging, or holding of a drug product

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12
Q

What are examples of when the FDA would require pharmacy to comply with FDA registration, inspections and GMPs?

A

-if the pharmacy in hospital A repackages drug products for its oven use as well as for that in hospitals B & C
-if a pharmacy chain repackages and relabels quantities of drug products from the manufacturer’s original commercial containers for shipment to the individual franchises of the chain
-if similar repackaging & re-labeling are conducted by individual pharmacies as members of an informal buying group

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13
Q

Violations of the FD&C Act: Adulteration

A

-act prohibits the interstate commerce of drugs and devices with impurities, poisons, and decomposed ingredients

  • may be considered adulterated within the meaning of the statue if:
    –> prepared, packaged or help under unsanitary condition where it MAY have been contaminated with filth or rendered injurious to health
    –> manufactured in a way that does not conform to GMP standards
    –> container is composed of a poisonous or deleterious substance that may leech into the contents
    –> contains or is an unsafe color additive
    –> its strength quality or purity varies from official compendial standards
    –> if the drug is not listed in an official compendium, yet the strength, quality or purity differs from that which it purports to possess
    –> if it is a drug and any substance has been added to it to reduce its quality or strength, or any substance has been substituted in whole or part
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14
Q

Violations of the FD&C Act: Misbranding

A

Drug or device is misbranded if:
-its label or labeling is false or misleading
-its listed in official compendium unless labeled & packed according to compendial standards
-package or the drug is misleading in the way it is filled or formed or is imitative of another drug, or offered for sale under the name of another drug
-drug is subject to deterioration, unless the label bears appropriate precautionary statements
-drug/device is health-endangering if used in the manner suggested by the labeling
-drug is subject to the PPPA and is not packaged accordingly
-drugs dispensed via rx if at any time prior to dispensing the label of the drug failed to state at a min “RX only”
-if a pharmacist sells a drug without a rx or refills a rx w/o authorization

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15
Q

A drug label is required to state: (to avoid misbranding)

A

-quantity and/or proportion of any active ingredient or rx drug and OTCs (mention presence of alcohol)
-listing of inactive ingredients of rx drugs and OTCs (alphabetically)

Specific provisions for OTC only:
–> adequate directions for use
–> adequate warnings against use by children & others for whom it might be hazardous

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16
Q

Violations of the FD&C Act: Adulteration PA Specific rules

A

also lists the specific instances of being exposed to conditions of fire, water or extreme temperature as adulteration

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17
Q

To avoid misbranding adequate directions for use must include:

A

-statement for all conditions, purposes, or uses for which such drug is intended & for which the drug is commonly used OTC
-normal dose for each intended use & doses for individuals of different ages
-frequency and duration of admin/application
-admin or application in reference to time of meals, onset of symptoms
-route or method of admin/application
-any required preparation for use

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18
Q

Bulk Prescription Container labels must contain:

A

-name & addy of the manufacturer, packer or distributor
-established name of the drug product
-ingredient info: quantity & proportions of each active ingredient
-names of all inactive ingredients
-quantity in terms of weight or measure
-net quality of the container
-a statement of the recommended or usual dosage, or reference to the package insert
-the legend: “caution, federal law prohibits dispensing w/o a rx” or “rx only”
-route of admin if it is not oral
-an identifying lot or control number
-a statement directed to the rph specifying the type of container to be used in dispensing the drug
-expiration date, unless exempted
-labeling on or within the package must contain adequate info for use

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19
Q

What must an OTC drug label contain?

A

-identity of the product (established name) & pharmacologic property
-name & address of the manufacturer, packer or distributor
-net contents of the package
-cations or warnings needed to protect the consumer
-adequate directions for use
-drug facts panel

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20
Q

What are the contents and format of the Drug Facts Panel (for OTCs)?

A

-active ingredient (dosage unit and qty per dosage unit)
-purpose
-use(s), indications
-warnings: CIs, ask doc before.., SEs, when to stop using, if prego/breastfeeding etc
-directions
-inactive ingredients

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21
Q

What are the Bar Coding Requirements?

A

(applies to manufacturers, repackers, relabelers, and private label
distributors)
-prescription drug products
-biological products
-OTC drug products that are dispensed pursuant to an order & are packaged or labeled for hospital use, or marketed, promoted or sol to hospitals

–> each drug product for which the bar code req applies must have a bar code that contains the appropriate NDC # in a linear bar code which must be in a linear bar code which must be included on the drug label

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22
Q

what is the Federal Anti Tampering Act?

A

(in response to contamination of Tylenol caps with cyanide in 1982)
-requires that all OTC human drug products & cosmetic liquid oral hygiene products, vag & contact lens solutions & tabs be packaged in tamper-evident packaging
-defined as having one or more indicators or barriers to entry - can be expected to provide visible evidence that tampering has occurred
-labeling statement required to alert consumer to tamper-resistant features used
-package can be “distinctive by design” (not commonly duplicated)
-2 piece hard gelatin caps must be sealed using an tamper evident technology

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23
Q

What is the Poison Prevention Packaging Act?

A

–> enforced via CPSC (consumer product safety commission)
-requires child-resistant caps
-unit-dose test failures occurs if a child can access more than 8 individual doses or a toxic amount (which ever is less)
-physician or pt can request non-child resistant packaging –> request can be oral or written but only the pt can issue a request for a blanket waiver

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24
Q

PPPA: Manufacturer Exemptions

A

-a manufacturer that produces multiple package sizes of an OTC drug that requires child-resistant packaging is allowed to produce one of the package sizes in a non-CRC packaging
–> provided the statement “this package for households w/o young children” or “Package not child-resistant” accompanies the package

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25
Q

PPPA: re-use of vials and bottles

A

general rule: bottles and vials cannot be reused
-CPSC has indicated that there are no objection to the reuse of a GLASS container, provided that a new child-resistant closure is used

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26
Q

PPPA: prescription exceptions to CRC

A

-Nitroglycerin (SL)
-Isosorbide Dinitrate (SL, chewable) 10 mg or less
-sodium fluoride - NMT 110 mg per package
-Anhydrous Cholestyramine
-methylprednisolone- NMT 84 mg
-mebendazole- NMT 600 mg
-Betamethasone- NMT 12.6 mg
-Potassium supps: NMT 50 meq
-erythromycin ethly succ: NMT 8 g
-colestipol: up to 5 g
-preparations in aerosol containers
-pancrelipase
-oral contraceptives
-conjugated estrogens- NMT 32 mg
-medroxyprogesterone acetate
-norethindrone acetate - NMT 50 mg
-sucrase preps
-hormone replacement therapy

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27
Q

What are the OTC drugs requiring child resistant packaging?

A

-aspirin
-iron-containing drugs/supps
-acetaminophen - > 1 gram
-diphenhydramine- > 66 mg
-Ibuprofen - 1 gram +
-loperamide: 0.045 mg +
-lidocaine - 5 mg +
-Dibucaine- 0.5 mg +
-mouthwashes: 3 g + of ethanol
-naproxen - 250 mg
-ketoprofen- 50 mg +
-minoxidil: 14 mg +
-fluoride: 50 mg +
& any OTCs that were previously available as prescriptions

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28
Q

What is the Prescription Drug Marketing Act? (PDMA)

A

regulates the handling of rx samples as well as the purchases and re-sale of drugs by hospitals, health care entities and charitable instituions
–> additionally, requires the licensing of all drug wholesalers

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29
Q

What does the Prescription Drug Marketing Act- PDMA require of drug samples?

A

-requests for samples must be initiated by the physician and can be requested by a physician for storage in a hospital pharmacy but NOT a retail pharmacy
–> request must be in writing and a receipt must be issued

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30
Q

what does the Prescription Drug Marketing Act say about the resale of drugs purchased by hospitals, healthcare entities and charitable institutions?

A

-PROHIBITS the sale, repurchase, or trade of rx drugs that have been purchased by a hospital, healthcare entity or charitable organization
-EXCEPTIONS include:
–> sales to non-profit affiliates, sales to/from other member hospitals
–> emergency sales or transfers to a community pharmacy w/ a shortage
–> sales pursuant to an outpatient rx in the hospital

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31
Q

What does the Prescription Drug Marketing Act mean by a Pedigree Requirement?

A

-pedigree is a statement of origin that identified each prior sale, purchase, or trade of a drug- indicating dates, names and addresses of all parties

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32
Q

What is the Drug Supply Chain Security Act (DSCSA)?

A

-Title II of the Drug Quality and Security
Act amended the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act to establish requirements for product tracing, verification, and product identification for certain drug products
–> until November 27, 2024, FDA does not intend to take action to enforce requirements for the interoperable, electronic, package level product tracing

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33
Q

What are the 3 pieces of information that need to be accompanied by rx drugs that show product tracing documentation?

A

-the transaction information (TI)
-the transaction history
-transaction statement (TS)

*product tracing document must be stored in paper or electronic form for 6 yrs

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34
Q

When would PA require the licensing of a pharmacy as a wholesaler? (PA LAW)

A

if its sales to licensed practitioner exceeded 5% of the retail pharmacy’s total annual rx drug sale

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35
Q

what are the 3 classes of drug recalls?

A

Class I: issues when there is a possibility that the product will cause SERIOUS AES OR DEATH

Class II: the product may cause TEMP or medically reversible AEs, but the probability of serious health effects is remote

Class II: when the product is NOT likely to cause AEs

*dispensing a recalled drug is a vioaltion of the FDCA

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36
Q

What 2 drugs are REQUIRED to be dispensed with a patient package insert?

A

-oral contraceptives
-estrogens (PREMARIN)

-can also give medication guide

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37
Q

What is the rule for institutional distribution of package inserts?

A

required to give when:
-with each prescription
OR
-with the first dose and then again every 30 days

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38
Q

What are the circumstances where a medication guide is required?

A

-drug product is one for which pt labeling could help prevent serious AEs
-drug product is one that has serious risks of which pts should be made aware b/c info concerning the risks could affect the pts decisions to use or continue the product
-the drug is important to health and pts adherence to directions for use is crucial to the drugs effectiveness

*applicable to both new and refill rxs

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39
Q

Manufactures of drug products for which a medication guide is required must:

A

-obtain FDA approval of the medication guide before distribution
-ensure that MGs are provided in sufficient numbers or provide means to. produce MGs

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40
Q

What are some things that Eelments to Assure Safe Use may include?

A

-Special training or certification reqs for prescribers or dispensers
-Restricting distribution of the drug to particular care settings
-Dispensing of a drug based on evidence or documentation of safe use conditions & signing informed consent form
-pt monitoring and follow up
-patient registries

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41
Q

Isotretinoin I Pledge Program

A

-no female pt starts therapy if pregnant
-no female pt becomes pregnant
–> Each month, the prescriber must enter the female patient’s pregnancy results and the 2 forms of contraception she has been using in the iPLEDGE system.
–> use two forms of effective contraception
simultaneously for one month before, during, and for one month after therapy
–>the rph must obtain authorization from the iPLEDGE system via the program web site or phone system prior to dispensing each isotretinoin rxs for both male and female patients.

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42
Q

Thalidomide (Thalomid) STEPS oversight program

A

(1) controlling access to the drug;
(2) educating prescribers, pharmacists, and patients
(3) monitoring compliance

–> patients receive visual aids, including a videotape, written material, and
verbal counseling about the benefits and risks of thalidomide therapy, the importance of not becoming pregnant during therapy, and the types of contraception required
–> prego test before and during therapy is required

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43
Q

Clozaril (Clozapine) REMS program

A

-“no blood, no drug” program was initiated,
which allowed registered physicians caring for patients to prescribe clozapine provided that weekly (CBCs) were obtained prior to dispensing
-registered with the Clozaril National Registry, in order to purchase Clozaril from the wholesaler.
-phaarmacy must be registered with the Clozaril National Registry

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44
Q

Tracleer TAP program

A

-limits the availability of Tracleer (bosentan) to speciality distributor pharmacies participating in the Tracleer Access Program

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45
Q

Lotronex (Alosetron) Rems Program

A

-prescribers must be certiried in the Prescribing Program for Lotronex
-pts must sign a doc of safe use conditions
The pharmacists will only dispense a prescription for LOTRONEX in the presence of a PPL
sticker.
* The PPL sticker provides verification to the pharmacist that the prescription is written by a certified prescriber enrolled in the PPL.
* Pharmacists will not accept telephone, facsimile, or computerized prescriptions for
LOTRONEX.

46
Q

Transmucocal Immediate release Fentanyl (TIRF) REMS

A

-Abstral SL
-Actiq lozenges
-Fentora buccal tabs
-Lanzanda -nasal spray
-Onsolis- buccal film
-Subsys SL spray

-HC providers & pharmacists need to be specially certified
-pt required to sign a pt-prescriber aggrement form

47
Q

Plan B REMS

A

FDA has since ended the age restriction for the generic one tablet versions, meaning that currently, Plan B One Step and its generic equivalents are available in the regular store aisle of the pharmacy without any age restrictions.

48
Q

What is required for the manufacturer to submit in the IND Application?

A

-info on the name of the drug, its composition, methods of manufacturing, quality control, info from pre-clinical (animal) testing, pharamcological, PK and toxicology studies
-an outline of the proposed clinical studies as well as the experience of the clinical investigators

–> if not rejected within 3o days- clinical testing on humans may begin

49
Q

What are the 4 phases of clinical testing in humans?

A

PHASE I: performed on a smaller # of healthy persons and is used to determine the phamacology of the drug & ots toxicity = NOT EFFICACY

PHASE II: on a limited # of ppl (100-300) who have the disease to determine EFFICACY

PHASE III: performed on a larger scale of affected individuals (1k-3k) - if favorable, company will submit an NDA to the FDA for consideration

PHASE IV: A. FDA had performed an expiteded approval of a drug and wanted more clinical trials B. manu wanted the FDA to approve an additional indication for a drug

50
Q

investigations drugs can be approved to pts in the general population provided that:

A

-it is pursuant to a tx protocol that has been submitted to the FDA
-the drug is used to treat a serious or immediately life-threatening disease
-there is no comparable/alt product/therapy available
-the drug us an approved investigational new drug used in a controlled CL ot all CLs have been completed and the sponsor of the CL is actively pursuing market approval

51
Q

What is the process for a physician to obtain Investigational Drugs for individual pts not involved in the clinical study?

A

-An IND for individual patient use of an investigational drug must normally be received by the FDA before shipment of and treatment with the drug may begin
-Treatment with the drug may
proceed 30 days after FDA receives the IND submission and has not otherwise put the application on hold, or upon earlier notification of the physician by FDA.

52
Q

Required Content of the IND for individual patient use:

A

-statements that this is a request for an individual pt IND for tx use
-brief clincal hx of the pt
-proposed treatment plan
-chem, manufacturing and controls info
-informed consent statements and approval of IRB
-IQS that specifies the trianing, experience and the licensure of the treating physician
-FDA form 1571
-contanct #

53
Q

what is the Trickett Wendler Right to Try Act?

A

federal law that provides another path for patients that are not in a clinical study to obtain investigational drugs. It is reserved for terminally ill patients only and where the drug has gone through at least Phase I of the clinical trials.

54
Q

What is Expedited Approval of Drugs by the FDA?

A

Expedited approval process also exists for drugs that treat serious life-threatening illnesses and that also provide a meaningful therapeutic advantage over existing treatments (e.g., AIDS drugs).
-The approval is conditioned upon on completing Phase IV post-marketing studies.

55
Q

what is the OTC Drug approval Process?

A

-OTC products can be marketed under a New Drug Application (NDA), Abbreviated New Drug Application (ANDA), or under an OTC monograph
–monographs define the safety, effectiveness, and labeling of all marketing OTC active ingredients.

56
Q

What are 3 ways that a rx drug can be switched to OTC drug?

A

-the mfgr can request the switch by submitting a supplemental application to its original NDA
-the mgfr may petition the FDA
-the FDA may add or amend an existing OTC monograph

57
Q

When does an already approved drug become a “new” drug subject to the NDA approval process from the FDA?

A

-drug contains a new substance
-new combo of approved drug
-portion of ingredients in combo is changes
-the dosage, method, duration of admin or application is changed
-when new use for the drug is claimed

58
Q

What is the Waxman Hatch Amendment?

A

also known as the Drug Price Competition and Patent Term Restoration Act of 1984, made it easier for generic drugs to get FDA approval

59
Q

Who regulates drug advertising of OTC and RX drugs?

A

-FTC: OTC drugs
-FDA: rx drugs

60
Q

what are the Medical Device Amendments of 1976?

A

pre-marketing is required to determine the safety and efficacy of life-sustaining and life supporting devices
-manuf have to report deaths and serious injuries caused by a medication device to the FDA within 30 days

61
Q

Medical Device Amendments of 1976: Class I devices

A

-require least regulation: general controls are adequate to insure safety
ex: needles, scissors, stethoscopes & toothbrushes etc

62
Q

Medical Device Amendments of 1976: Class II devices

A

-must meet specific perfomance standards established by the FDA
ex: insulin syringes, thermometers, diagnostic reagents, soft or hard contact lenses for daily use, electric heating pads etc

63
Q

Medical Device Amendments of 1976: Class III devices

A

must have a pre-market approval b/c they are life supporting or life sustaining or they present a potential unreasonable risk of illness or injury
ex: pacemakers, soft or hard contact lenses for EXTENDED use, replacement heart valves

64
Q

What is the safe medical device act of 1990?

A

requires that:
- device user facilities of medical devides (hospitals) report serious injuries or illness caused by a device within 10 working days to the manuf or the FDA
-device users facilities of medical devices report a device causing death to the FDA & manuf within 10 working days

65
Q

What are additional reqs for permanaently implantable ot life-sustaining devices?

A

-requires a manufac to adopt a method of device tracking to ensure that pts can be notified if neded
-requires a manf to conduct post marketing surveillance

66
Q

When are OTC drugs exempt from expiration dating?

A

if they are stable for at least 3 yrs and their labeling does not bear dosage limitations
-exp date of dec 2018 would imply dec 31 2018

67
Q

What does the FDA inspector need to present to do an inspection?

A

-credentials and a notice of inspection
pharmacy owner CANNOT refuse access

68
Q

What situations can the use of tax free alcohol be permitted?

A

-used for scientific, medicinal and mechanical purposes and in the tx of pts
ex: sterilizing situations, antiseptic, vehicle in compounding rxs and in teh prep of specimens

69
Q

FDA Classification of drugs taken during pregnancy

A

-pregnancy and lactation subsections now have 3 principles:

–> risk summary: summarizes the potential of the med to increase the risk of the following: structural abnormalities, fetal and infant mortality, impaired physiologic function, and alterations to growth. This summary states if animal or human
data was used.

–> clinical considerations: dosing adjustments during pregnancy, Adverse reactions unique to pregnancy, Interventions that may be required while receiving the medication

–> Data: available data for the medication and its use in pregnant women.

70
Q

What are the compounding provisions from the FDMA?

A

For an individual patient based on a valid prescription
* For a limited quantity if prepared in anticipation of a prescription
* Not a copy of a commercially available product
* Compounded in compliance with USP chapters on compounding
* Compounded with bulk drugs manufactured by an entity registered with the FDA
* Compounded with ingredients that comply with USP standards
* Not compounded from a list of drugs that they FDA has withdrawn from the market
* The compounder does not distribute more than 5% of the total prescriptions dispensed

71
Q

What is the NECC Compounding Disaster?

A

New England Compounding Center (NECC), compounded and
shipped large batches of contaminated sterile injectables to hospital pharmacies, doctors’ offices, and other entities. The products killed 64 individuals and injured more than 700 others
–> resulted int eh Drug Quality and Security act

72
Q

What is the Title I Drug quality and Security Act?

A

-November 27, 2013, President Obama signed the Drug Quality and Security Act (DQSA)
- Under section 503B, a compounder who compounds sterile products can become an “outsourcing facility.
–> traditional compounding pharmacies
(i.e., those that compound based on individual prescriptions for individual patients) do not need to comply with Good Manufacturing Practices; they do not have to seek FDA approval of the products that they compound; and they only have to put the physician specified directions on the label to comply with the adequate directions for use requirement

73
Q

What is the orange book?

A

“approved drugs products with therapeutic equivalence evaluations”
A = therapeutic equivalence
B = documented bioequivalence problem ot potenital for a proable

**B rated dugs cannot be substituted - either with an A drug or another B drug

73
Q

What 2 insulins do NOT require a rx?

A

-Humulin
-Novolin

74
Q

What are the generic substitutions allowed in PA? (PA LAW)

A

-Under the PA Generic Equivalent Drug Law, PA generally follows the guidance of the Orange Book
***even if a drug is A rated, it cannot be
substituted if it has a narrow therapeutic range, since the law states that narrow therapeutic range drugs are not considered generically equivalent (ex: Coumadin, in PA a doc would have to write an rx for warfarin for you to legally dispense the generic version)

75
Q

What are guidelines around prescription refill substitutions in PA? (PA LAW)

A

-prescription refills shall be completed using the identical product (same distributor and manufacturer) as dispensed on the original, unless the person presenting the rx and the practitioner authorize in advance a different manufacturer’s generic equivalent
product.
–> Advance authorization is not required in an emergency, but the pharmacist shall notify the physician ASAP

76
Q

What are the 3 “covered entities” that HIPAA applies to?

A

-health care providers
-health plans
-health care clearinghouses

77
Q

what information is covered by HIPAA?

A

provides protection against the use and disclosure of “protected health information” (“PHI”) which is patient information that:
* Is created or received by a covered entity
* Relates to an individual’s past, present or future physical or mental health condition
* Identifies the individual or creates a reasonable basis to believe that the information can be used to identify the individual

78
Q

What are HIPAA requirements?

A

Notifying patients about their privacy rights, and about how their information can be used by the pharmacy
* Ensuring that pharmacy personnel comply with HIPAA and training employees
* Designating a privacy officer
* Securing patient records that contain individually identifiable health information and ensuring that they are only available to those who need access to them

79
Q

What must be done with notice of privacy practices in regard to HIPAA?

A

pt acknowledgement is to be maintained in the pharmacy for a period of six (6) years

80
Q

What can a pharmacy do after receiving the NOPP from HIPAA?

A

pharmacy can use and disclose PHI without obtaining any consent or patient authorization, as long as the use and disclosure is for purposes of “treatment”, “payment”, or “health care operations”

81
Q

What does a pt authorization fro HIPAA have?

A

Specific and meaningful description of the PHI to be used or disclosed
* Name(s) or specific identification of the person(s) or entities to whom the PHI will be
disclosed
* Description of each purpose for which PHI will be used or disclosed
* Expiration date
* Patient’s signature and the date signed
* That the individual has a right to revoke the authorization in writing
* That the pharmacy is unable to condition filling the individual’s prescriptions
* That there is a potential for the information that is the subject of the authorization to be re-disclosed if the receiving party is not subject to the HIPAA requirement

82
Q

Under HIPAA, what rights do the pts have?

A

-right to access their PHI (30 days)
-right to request that their records be amended (60 days)
-right to an accounting of disclosure (pharmacy must respond in 60 days)- must be maintained for 6 yrs

83
Q

What are the penalties for violations of HIPAA?

A

-non complaince: up to $100 per violation and up to $25k per person in that yr for improper disclosure of PHI
-If an individual uses PHI under false pretenses, the penalty can increase to $100,000 and/or up to five years in jail. -Finally, fines of up to $250,000 and/or ten (10) years in prison can be imposed
where the covered entity uses PHI for “commercial advantage, personal gain or malicious harm.

84
Q

What are the updates to HIPAA?

A

-breach notification requirement
-expanded liability for violations
-more limitations on the use of PHI for marketing and the sale of PHI
-expanded patient access to their health information
-relaxed rules on sharing of immunization records

85
Q

What are the Medicare Conditions of Participation?

A

-must provide pharmaceutical services
-must employ or obtain the services of a licensed pharmacist who: provides consultations, establishes a system of records and dispositions of all CS

86
Q

What is the policies around a drug regimen review?

A

-drug regimen of each resident must be reviewed at least once monthly
-pharmacist must report any irregularities to the physician

87
Q

What are the reqs for storage of drugs/biologicals?

A

-in locked compartments under proper temp controls and permit only authorized personnel to have access to the keys

88
Q

USP 800: antineoplastic Drugs

A

-anastrozole
-cisplatin
-cyclophosphamide
-fluorouracil
-hydroxyurea
-megestrol
-mercaptopurine
-methotrexate
-tamoxifen

89
Q

USP 800: non-antineoplastic drugs

A

-azathioprine
-carbamazepine
-cyclosporine
-divalproex
-estradiol
-liraglutide (victoza)
-medroxyprogesterone acetate
-phenytoin
-spironolactone

90
Q

USP 800: non-antineoplatic drugs that primarily have adverse reproductive effects

A

-clonazepam
-colchicine
-dutasteride
-fluzonazole
-misoprostol
-paroxetine
-temazepam
-topiramate
-tretinoin

91
Q

USP 800 Compounding reqs

A

1: a containment primary engineering control (C-PEC) is a ventilated device designed to minimize worker & env HD exposure

2: secondary- C-SEC is the room in which the C-PEC is placed

3: Supplemental engineering controls (CSTDs) offer additional levels of protection

92
Q

USP 800: Non-sterile compounding room reqs

A

-C-PECs are used for manipulation of nonsterile HDs must be either externally vented or have redundant-HEPA filters in series
-provides personnel and environmental protection (class I biological safety cabinet or containment ventilated enclosure (CVE)
-class II BSC or a compounding aspectic containment isolator (CACI) may also be used)

93
Q

USP 800: sterile compounding reqs

A

-must be externally vented
-sterile HD compounding must be performed in a C-PEC that provides an ISO class 5 +

*LAFW) or CAI must NOT be used for compounding of antineoplastic HD

94
Q

USP 800: where must the C-PEC for sterile compounding be located?

A

located in a C-SEC in either:

A- an ISO class 7 buffer room w/ class 7 ante-room

B- an unclassified containment segregated compounding area (C-SCA)

95
Q

USP 800: Sterile compounding buffer room reqs (ISO 7)

A

-fixed walls
-HEPA-filtered supply air
-neg pressure
-min of 30 air changes per hour
-externally vented

96
Q

USP 800: ante-room res (ISO 7)

A

-fixed walls
-min 30 air changes per hour of HEPA-filtered supply air
-positive pressure of at least 0.02 inches of water column
-air quality of ISO class 7 or better

97
Q

USP 800: for a C-SEC that is a containment segerated compounding area (C-SCA) room reqs:

A

-fixed walls
-HEPA-filtered supply air
-neg pressure
-min 12 air changes per hour
-externally vented

98
Q

PPE for HD compounding reqs

A

(NIOSH guidelines)
-disposable PPE (reusable must be decontaminated and cleaned)
-gowns, head, hair, shoe covers and 2 pairs of chemotherapy gloves–> sterile (outer pair must be sterile( and non-sterile
-2 pairs of chemo gloves when administering injectable antineoplastic HDs
-HD compounding: 2nd pair of shoes must be donned before entering the C-SEC and doffed when exiting
-eye & face protection, goggles

99
Q

What are the min training requirements for compounding

A

-overview of inventory of HDs and their risks
-review of Standard Operating Procedures
-proper use of PPE and equipment/devices
-response to known or suspected HD exposure
-spill management
-proper disposal of HD and trace-contaminated materials

100
Q

USP 795 overview

A

non-sterile compounding
-added beyond use dates

101
Q

USP 795: dosage form for non-sterile compounding

A

-solid oral preps
-liquid oral preps
-rectal preps
-vaginal preps
-topical preps (cream gel, ointment)
-nasal and sinus preps
-otic preps

102
Q

USP 795: personnel training and education

A

proficiency must be demonstrated every 12 months in:
-hand hygiene
-garbing
-cleaning and sanitizing
-handling and transporting components and CNSPs
-documentation of the compounding process

103
Q

USP 795: beyond use dates recommendations

A

-non-preserved aqueous: 14 days
-preserved aqueous: 35 days
-oral liquids: 90 days
-other non-aqueous forms: 180 days

104
Q

USP 797 overview

A

-sterile compounding
-personnel qualifications, min garbing reqs, placement of the environmental controls, beyond use dates, frequency of environmental sampling

105
Q

USP 797 beyond use dates : category 1 compounded sterile preps (CSPs)

A

*must be prepared in ISO class 5

-controlled room temp (20-25): < 12 hrs
-refrigerated (2-8): < 24 hrs

106
Q

USP 797 beyond use dates: category 2 compounded sterile preparations

A

*must be prepared in a cleanroom suite and have a BUD ranging:
–> 1- 45 days at room temp
–> 10-60 days in a fridge
–> 45-90 days in freezer

107
Q

USP 797 beyond use dates: category 3 compounded sterile preps

A

-aseptically processed:
–> in room: 60 days
–> fridge: 90 days
–> freezer (-25-10): 120 days

-terminally sterilized:
–> room: 90 days
–> fridge: 120 days
–> freezer: 180 days

108
Q

USP 797: beyond use date: immediate use CPSP

A

4 hours

109
Q

USP 979: minimun garbing reqs

A

Category 1&2: low-lint versions of gowns, dedicated shoes or shoe covers, head ans facial hair covers, face mask and sterile powder free gloves

Category 3: no exposed skin (face and neck), all low-lint outer garbing must be sterile, disposable garbing items must not be reused, laundered items must be laundered and re-sanitized with each use

110
Q

USP 797: microbial air and surface monitoring

A

Category 1&2: viable air sampling every 6 months and surface sampling monthly

Category 3: monthly viable air sampling and weekly surface sampling. also required to do surface sampling at the end of a batch