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Healthy Pop Exam 2 > Food Animal > Flashcards

Food Animal Flashcards

Covers - Food Animal Parasitology - Food Animal Zoonoses - Cattle Husbandry - Small Ruminant Husbandry - Food Animal Parasite Control - Swine Husbandry - Swine Herd Health - Dairy Herd Health - Low Stress Handling - Small Ruminant Herd Health - Beef Herd Health

1
Q

What are the major parasites in cattle?

A

(GI strongylid nematodes (trichostrongyles), coccidia, flies, and lice)

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2
Q

What is the primary impact of trichostrongyle infections on immature cattle?

A

(The subclinical impact on growth and development, they do also get clinical disease but the subclinical impact is the primary impact)

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3
Q

When is the best time to deworm spring born beef calves?

A

(Midsummer, has shown some benefits (increased gain); otherwise can also deworm at the beginning of the grazing season depending on the age of the calf and/or at weaning)

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4
Q

What is the purpose of deworming fall born beef calves at the beginning of the next grazing season?

A

(To limit the maturation of the larvae obtained in the last grazing season)

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5
Q

Coccidiostat treatment for Eimeria is often used routinely at points when disease is expected to occur, when are those times? Three answers.

A

(At weaning, post weaning, and upon entry into feedlots)

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6
Q

You should leave what percentage of a cattle herd untreated with anthelmintics in a selective nontreatment program?

A

(10-20%)

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7
Q

(T/F) Food animals that are euthanized with intrathecal lidocaine hydrochloride do not need to be buried nor do they pose a hazard to wildlife.

A

(T)

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8
Q

(T/F) Exsanguination is never used by itself in food animals.

A

(T, it is just used to ensure death after unconsciousness is achieved via other methods)

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9
Q

What is an appropriate method of euthanasia in food animals if you do not have access to a gun or chemical euthanasia?

A

(Sedation and exsanguination)

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10
Q

What animal products are possibly infectious to humans when the animal is infected with Mycobacterium paratuberculosis? Two answers.

A

(Meat and milk products)

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11
Q

What is the term for the non-healing painless ulcers that form in human cases of tuberculosis?

A

(Tuberculous chancres, will have regional lymphadenopathy in addition)

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12
Q

What type of inflammation is associated with tuberculosis lesions in animals?

A

(Granulomatous)

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13
Q

What is the most common diagnostic test used for tuberculosis cases in both humans and animals?

A

(The intradermal tuberculin test)

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14
Q

There is a history of Mycobacterium tuberculosis in cattle in Michigan, what animals were the source of the cross over?

A

(White tailed deer)

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15
Q

(T/F) Brucellosis can be acquired by humans from animals both directly (i.e. exposure to fetal fluids) and indirectly (i.e. ingestion of infected animal products).

A

(T)

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16
Q

What food product is brucellosis outbreaks often associated with?

A

(Soft, non-pasteurized mexican cheese)

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17
Q

How do cats and dogs acquire pseudotuberculosis?

A

(From ingesting infected rodents (who are the reservoir for Yersinia pseudotuberculosis))

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18
Q

How can humans acquire pseudotuberculosis? Two answers.

A

(Contact with infected animals or ingestion of food contaminated by infected animals)

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19
Q

Yersinia enterocolitica produces an enterotoxin similar to what other bacterial organism?

A

(E. coli)

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20
Q

Pigs are suspected to be the major reservoir for Yersinia enterocolitica but several outbreaks in humans have been associated with what other species? Two answers.

A

(Dogs and cats, specifically puppies and kittens with diarrhea)

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21
Q

(T/F) Both Yersinia pseudotuberculosis and enterocolitica are associated with appendicitis-like symptoms such as abdominal pain and diarrhea.

A

(T)

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22
Q

(T/F) Human cases of Salmonella are associated mainly with GI signs and it is usually a self-limiting disease.

A

(T)

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23
Q

What animal species are human cases of Campylobacter jejuni typically acquired from? Two answers.

A

(Dogs and cats, usually from shelters)

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24
Q

What are the two forms of leptospirosis humans can get?

A

(Icteric → jaundice, petechiae, hepatomegaly, renal insufficiency, and aseptic meningitis; and anicteric → flu like so fever, chills, malaise, myalgia, stiff neck, vomiting)

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25
Q

What animal is the main reservoir of leptospirosis?

A

(Rodents → also in swine, cattle, deer, raccoons and more)

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26
Q

How is Chlamydophila psittaci transmitted to humans?

A

(It is inhaled usually when clean the cage of an infected bird)

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27
Q

Compare and contrast the clinical signs of psittacosis in humans and birds.

A

(Humans → respiratory signs; birds → either inapparent infection or GI signs)

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28
Q

What drug class is used to treat psittacosis in birds?

A

(Tetracyclines, have to treat for 45 days)

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29
Q

What is the causative agent of chlamydiosis in sheep that causes abortion in pregnant women who can acquire this agent from fetal and uterine fluids from infected ewes?

A

(Chlamydophila abortus)

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30
Q

What is the causative agent of Q fever?

A

(Coxiella burnetii)

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31
Q

Do animals show similar signs to humans (flu-like symptoms) if they have Q fever?

A

(No, animals are inapparent carriers with the exception of possible abortion in goats and sheep)

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32
Q

How are humans infected with Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae?

A

(Through wounds)

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33
Q

What is the term for Erysipeloid disease in pigs?

A

(Diamond skin disease)

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34
Q

What is the term for Erysipeloid disease in poultry?

A

(Blue comb)

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35
Q

Compare and contrast the symptoms of Streptococcus suis infections in suckling versus weaned pigs.

A

(Suckling - peracute meningitis and septicemia; weaned - arthritis and/or septicemia)

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36
Q

How is Streptococcus suis transmitted to humans?

A

(Via butchering/necropsy)

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37
Q

Which species of Streptococcus is a common cause of human neonatal septicemia?

A

(Streptococcus agalactia → but not the same as what is found in cows)

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38
Q

What species of Streptococcus is associated with Strep throat?

A

(Streptococcus pyogenes)

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39
Q

(T/F) Animals are essential for transmission of Bacillus anthracis to humans.

A

(T)

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40
Q

What are the three forms of anthrax infections in people?

A

(Cutaneous → vesicle at the inoculation sight, develops into a black depressed area with a thick crust; pulmonary → initially mild and resembles a mild URI, 3-5 days later present with acute fever, shock, and death; GI → vomiting, bloody stool)

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41
Q

What are the two ways that humans can contract ovine contagious ecthyma?

A

(Virus enters broken skin or iatrogenic inoculation when vaccinating animals with the live vaccine)

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42
Q

What is the main clinical sign of new castle disease in humans?

A

(Conjunctivitis)

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43
Q

What disease results in calve infections with the same parapoxvirus that causes pseudocowpox?

A

(Bovine papular stomatitis → humans can get milkers nodules from both adult cattle and calves)

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44
Q

(T/F) Human to human transmission is very, very rare for H1N1/swine flu.

A

(F, it is very rare for AVIAN influenza to pass from human to human but that is actually how it is spread for swine flu, swine do not appear to play a role in transmission of swine flu)

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45
Q

Is H1N1 or H3N2v associated with disease in adults between the ages of 20-40, young children, and pregnant women?

A

(H1N1; H3N2v is typical influenza → most susceptible being at risk such as young, old, and compromised immune systems)

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46
Q

How do you know if a cow is over the age of 30 months (which changes what is removed to prevent the transmission of BSE to humans)?

A

(If one of the second incisors are present, they are over the age of 30 months)

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47
Q

What two species can transmit Nipah virus to humans?

A

(Pigs and bats)

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48
Q

What are the three major contaminants of water that is provided to cattle?

A

(Blue-green algae, sulfur, and feces)

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49
Q

What populations of cattle is the BCS best used for?

A

(Cows, it was not designed for bulls or heifers)

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50
Q

How long should small ruminants be quarantined to prevent disease from entering a herd?

A

(30 days)

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51
Q

Animals should be at least how old prior to serological testing to make sure they are actually indicating disease instead of colostral immunity?

A

(6 months old)

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52
Q

How many small ruminants equate to one cow/calf unit?

A

(5)

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53
Q

How much acreage of pasture does a single cow/calf unit require?

A

(2 acres → i.e. 5 small ruminants need 2 acres)

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54
Q

What percentage of a small ruminant’s maintenance diet should be protein?

A

(8%)

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55
Q

What percentage of their body weight will a small ruminant eat on a dry matter basis?

A

(2% of the BW → if lactating 4% and if growing 5%)

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56
Q

When should artificially fed lambs and kids be weaned?

A

(When they achieve a BW of 20lbs and are eating 0.5 lbs of creep feed)

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57
Q

How much milk in percent of body weight do lambs and kids consume?

A

(20%, depending on age this amount is split up into multiple feedings)

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58
Q

What is the age range that lambs and kids who are naturally feeding wean off of mom?

A

(8-12 weeks of age)

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59
Q

(T/F) You should avoid adding calcium to a small ruminant diet when in late gestation.

A

(F, should ADD calcium to the diet during late gestation to avoid hypocalcemia)

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60
Q

What is the purpose of maintaining a calcium:phosphorus ratio of 2:1 in mineral rations fed to small ruminants?

A

(To avoid urolithiasis)

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61
Q

(T/F) Shearing prior to lambing can decrease pregnancy toxemia.

A

(T)

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62
Q

What treatment should be done concurrently to shearing?

A

(Lice treatment)

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63
Q

What solution is used for foot baths in small ruminants?

A

(10% zinc sulfate solution)

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64
Q

What is the best strategy used for choosing animals for targeted selected treatment in sheep?

A

(FAMACHA scoring)

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65
Q

What is the best strategy used for choosing small ruminants to breed that will have worm resistance?

A

(Fecal egg count)

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66
Q

(T/F) There are no FDA approved drugs for treatment of coccidiosis in sheep and goats.

A

(T)

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67
Q

(T/F) Sheep are more susceptible than goats to Haemonchus infections i.e. a higher proportion of them show clinical haemonchosis, even in adults.

A

(F, goats are more susceptible than sheep)

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68
Q

(T/F) You should assume that on ANY farm, Haemonchus is at least partially resistant to one or more drug groups.

A

(T)

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69
Q

What is the goal of integral parasite management?

A

(Keep worms at a level that does not have a detrimental health effect)

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70
Q

(T/F) Targeted selective treatment is the practice of treating only individuals that seem to suffer consequences of parasitism or are likely to benefit from receiving a treatment.

A

(T)

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71
Q

Do you want a higher or lower FAMACHA score?

A

(Lower; 1 → not anemic; 5 → severely anemic)

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72
Q

The addition of what type of wire particles with your anthelmintic treatment can boost the activity of your drug of choice even if the Haemonchus is resistant?

A

(Copper oxide)

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73
Q

Increase of what diet component (protein, carbohydrates, or fat) may have a beneficial effect on parasite levels in young or lactating animals?

A

(Protein)

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74
Q

What is the name of the fungus that feeds on nematodes and can reduce the number of larvae on pasture?

A

(Duddingtonia flagrans)

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75
Q

What time period (range in weeks) should BCS be performed on late gestation cows?

A

(6-8 weeks prior to calving)

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76
Q

What are the two most important times to check BCS on beef cows?

A

(6-8 weeks prior to both breeding and calving)

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77
Q

What range in days do you want to palpate cows for pregnancy after you remove the bull?

A

(35-60 days, lower end if you are very experienced or have an ultrasound, higher end if you are newer and/or want to be fast)

78
Q

What are the two requirements for immunization?

A

(Proper vaccination and an immunocompetent animal)

79
Q

What are the four F rules to help in choosing which vaccines to use?

A

(Frequent disease, fatal disease, financially sound, and effective vaccines)

80
Q

What are the four viruses associated with the bovine respiratory disease complex?

A

(BVDV, IBR, BRSV, and PI-3)

81
Q

What are the two main bacteria associated with the bovine respiratory disease complex?

A

(Mannheimia haemolytica and Pasterulla multocida; can also see Mycoplasmas and Histophilus somni)

82
Q

(T/F) The bacteria associated with the bovine respiratory disease complex are both normal flora of the upper respiratory tract.

A

(T)

83
Q

What is the vaccine timeline for killed vaccines in beef calves?

A

(1st dose at “branding” time which is 2-4 months of age and 2nd dose at preweaning)

84
Q

Why is BVDV not included in the intranasal bovine respiratory disease complex vaccine used in calves?

A

(Bc vaccine producers have been unable to figure out how to give BVDV intranasally without causing disease)

85
Q

Intranasal bovine respiratory complex disease vaccines given to calves stimulate the production of what type of antibodies?

A

(IgA)

86
Q

What species of Clostridium are we primarily trying to prevent here in SW Virginia?

A

(Clostridium chauvoei)

87
Q

(T/F) The only vaccination option for the 7 way vaccine is a killed vaccine.

A

(T)

88
Q

Which of the Clostridium species causes malignant edema?
C. perfringens C or D
C. septicum
C. novyi
C. sordelli

A

(C. septicum)

89
Q

Which of the Clostridium species causes sudden death in feedlot cattle primarily?
C. perfringens C or D
C. septicum
C. novyi
C. sordelli

A

(C. sordelli)

90
Q

Which of the Clostridium species causes Blacks disease?
C. perfringens C or D
C. septicum
C. novyi
C. sordelli

A

(C. novyi)

91
Q

What additional Clostridium species are included in a 9-way vaccine?

A

(Clostridium tetani and Clostridium hemolyticum)

92
Q

Why are clostridial diseases unavoidable? Two answers.

A

(They are either in the environment/soil or a natural inhabitant of the GI tract i.e. always present)

93
Q

How many times should the killed 10-way (BVD, IBR, BRSV, PI-3, and 5 different lepto serovars) be given in a year?

A

(2x a year)

94
Q

When and to whom should you administer the killed scours vaccine in beef cattle/calves?

A

(You vaccinate the dam just prior to calving)

95
Q

What is the primary production sequela with pinkeye in beef cattle?

A

(Corneal ulcers induce reduced feed intake and subsequent loss of weaning weight)

96
Q

What are the two advantages of identifying calves with ear tags or some other form of ID?

A

(Calf ID allows producer to track cow productivity and need to know for withdrawal times of vaccines/treatments for each calf)

97
Q

(T/F) Weaning weight is an important number used to monitor calf performance and nutrition.

A

(F, weaning weight is an important number used to monitor COW performance, nutrition, and reproductive efficiency)

98
Q

What are the three reasons beef cattle are castrated?

A

(Reduces aggression, prevents unwanted pregnancies, and improved beef product)

99
Q

Of spring or fall born beef cattle, which have a longer weaning period?

A

(Fall born, they are weaned typically a month later than spring born calves for gained wean weight purposes)

100
Q

(T/F) On a farm with a defined calving season, all calves are weaned on the exact same day no matter when they were born during calving season.

A

(T)

101
Q

What are preconditioned calves?

A

(Calves that have been weaned for a minimum of 45 days, been processed (vaccinated, castrated, dehorned, and identified), and that are ‘bunk broke’ so can eat from a bunk and drink from a trough)

102
Q

How do you calculate weaning percentage?

A

(Divide the number of successfully weaned calves by the number of cows exposed to a bull)

103
Q

What is the key to getting a cow to calve early in the calving season?

A

(Calving early as a heifer will set her up to calve early for the rest of her life optimally)

104
Q

What are the two major effectors of the length of the postpartum anestrus period in beef cows?

A

(Age of the cow and body condition of the cow at calving)

105
Q

(T/F) You should not use LA-200 for beef cattle with respiratory disease.

A

(T)

106
Q

How much feed in lbs is needed per head per day in a breeding herd of pigs for maintenance purposes?

A

(6 lb/hd/day, this should be at least doubled for lactating sows)

107
Q

How many more times the usual maintenance food amount in lbs/head/day should a lactating sow receive?

A

(At least 2x)

108
Q

Sows should return to estrus how many days post-weaning? Answer is a range.

A

(4-7 days)

109
Q

What is a non-productive sow day?

A

(Any time a female pig is in the breeding herd and is not pregnant or nursing a litter)

110
Q

What are the three time intervals that can affect the non productive days of a pig breeding herd?

A

(Preservice interval (weaning to service or gilt entering breeding herd to service), postservice interval (breeding to return to heat or breeding to open at preg check), and removal interval (culling decision to leaving))

111
Q

What are the three factors that can change the % of sows cycling post weaning?

A

(BCS/feeding, low protein diets, and less than 21 day lactation)

112
Q

What are some of the factors that affect the sow cull rate? Four answers.

A

(Poor performance, failure to return to heat, lameness, and death)

113
Q

What is the goal maximum sow cull rate?

A

(Should be less than 40%)

114
Q

When are sows moved into their farrowing crates? Answer is a range.

A

(5-7 days prior to their due date)

115
Q

What is the goal maximum return to service rate for a pig breeding herd?

A

(Should be less than 20%)

116
Q

What is the minimum period in days that quarantine should last for swine facilities?

A

(60 days)

117
Q

How far should separate swine facilities be located from each other?

A

(At least 2 miles)

118
Q

What is the minimum down time that should be taken between visiting swine facilities for visitors?

A

(24 hours minimum, 72 hours is the true goal)

119
Q

Pre-breeding vaccines are administered to pig breeding herds how many weeks prior to breeding?

A

(2-3 weeks)

120
Q

What are the three agents that are given pre-breeding to pigs?

A

(Parvovirus, leptospira, and erysipelas)

121
Q

How do gilts acquire natural immunity to parvovirus?

A

(By exposing them to sow feces)

122
Q

What agents are vaccinated against pre-farrowing? Five answers.

A

(E. coli, Clostridium perfringens type C, erysipelas, and the atrophic rhinitis agents (Bordetella bronchisepticum and Pasteurella multocida type D))

123
Q

Why are TGE and rotavirus not included in prefarrowing vaccination?

A

(They don’t offer much protection)

124
Q

For which agent is an autogenous vaccine better than the commercially available vaccines?

A

(Streptococcus suis)

125
Q

If you vaccinate a piglet with Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae at 1 week of age and you are boostering, when should that booster occur?

A

(2-3 weeks later so 3-4 weeks of age; other options are vaccinate with single dose from 1 day of age or older OR vaccinate sow and then vaccinate piglets at weaning)

126
Q

(T/F) The PRRS vaccines (which is a MLV that can be used in ANY stage of production in pigs 3 weeks of age or older as long as you ensure the PRRS farm status is known) is used to prevent both reproductive losses and respiratory disease.

A

(F, just reproductive losses)

127
Q

What is the vaccine protocol for a pet pot bellied pig that is not going to be bred?

A

(Atrophic rhinitis agents and Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae twice then boostered yearly → if breeding, add parvo, lepto, and erysipelas)

128
Q

When are breeding gilts/sows dewormed? Two answers.

A

(Prior to farrowing and if in a contaminated environment, early gestation)

129
Q

When should growing pigs be dewormed? Three answers.

A

(+/- when entering the nursery (depends on if coughing, or on fecal exam), when moving to grower, and when moving to finisher)

130
Q

When should boars be dewormed? Two answers.

A

(Twice a year if in a confinement facility OR every 3 months if in a contaminated environment or on pasture)

131
Q

What are the two most commonly used anthelmintics in pigs?

A

(Ivermectin and fenbendazole)

132
Q

When should sows and gilts be treated for external parasites?

A

(Prefarrowing)

133
Q

When should growing pigs be treated for external parasites?

A

(Consistently when weaned and then in other stages as needed)

134
Q

How often should boars be treated for external parasites?

A

(Twice a year)

135
Q

200 mg of what mineral is given injectably to piglets at processing?

A

(Iron)

136
Q

Neonatal ruminants are born without an active immune system and must survive how many weeks of life with just the passive immunity they get from colostrum?

A

(The first 4-5 weeks of life)

137
Q

How many liters of colostrum should the average Holstein calf receive at the first feeding?

A

(4 L)

138
Q

What is the maximum amount of time you can wait to give a dairy calf colostrum before it starts to lose efficacy quickly?

A

(6 hours)

139
Q

Why are dairy calves removed from the dam ASAP?

A

(To prevent the calf from contracting illness from the dam that she may not be bothered by but that could kill the calf → Crypto, E. coli, IBR, BVD, Johne’s)

140
Q

What is used for dipping the navel in dairy calves?

A

(7% strong iodine aka tincture → includes some alcohol for drying purposes)

141
Q

Is the cold or heat worse for calves?

A

(Cold)

142
Q

What are the two advantages of traditional dairy calf rearing which involves ‘limit feeding’ individual animals?

A

(Accelerates the calf eating starter grain and rumen development and reduces management costs and time)

143
Q

What are the four advantages to ‘high plane of nutrition feeding’ in dairy calves?

A

(Increased average daily gain, earlier onset of puberty, quicker to first calving, and some evidence of great 1st lactation milk yields)

144
Q

When a dairy calf is eating how much starter grain and for how long should you then start weaning them?

A

(Start weaning when a calf is eating 2.5-3lbs of starter grain for a minimum of 3 days)

145
Q

(T/F) There is increased overall productivity for the life of a dairy cow if she calves for the first time at 2 years of age.

A

(T)

146
Q

What portion of the starter grain (carb, protein, or fat) can be reduced as dairy calves age?

A

(Protein → saves money but otherwise concentrate is required for dairy calves to gain well)

147
Q

How do you monitor ADG progress in developing dairy heifers?

A

(By weight, NOT BCS)

148
Q

Would you choose a MLV or killed vaccine for a dairy calf?

A

(MLV)

149
Q

If a dairy calf received good passive immunity from colostrum, when should you administer their first viral respiratory parental vaccine?

A

(3-4 months of age, booster at 6 months)

150
Q

What type of immunity is triggered by the RB 51 brucella vaccine, which is given to heifers between the age of 4-12 months?

A

(Cellular immunity, NO humoral immunity so not antibody production)

151
Q

How long is the voluntary waiting period in dairy cows?

A

(~60 days)

152
Q

Does the voluntary waiting period or the dry period allow for the uterus to rest and reset?

A

(The voluntary waiting period; dry period is for the udder)

153
Q

When should lactating dairy cows be given vaccines? Answer is a time period, not a specific set of days or weeks.

A

(During the voluntary wait period since this is the only time she is not pregnant)

154
Q

What is a key number to assessing the reproductive health of a dairy farm?

A

(Days open)

155
Q

What is the goal for days open on a dairy farm?

A

(Less than 115 days → 150 sucks a lot)

156
Q

What are the two goals of dry treatments in dairy cows?

A

(Eliminate existing mastitis and prevent new infections during the dry period)

157
Q

What type of vaccine is given to prevent mastitis and that protects against several major players in toxic coliform mastitis such as E. coli, Klebsiella, and Enterobacter?

A

(Gram negative core antigen bacterins)

158
Q

What are the 5 + 1 fresh cow diseases?

A

(Hypocalcemia, retained placenta, metritis, ketosis, displaced abomasum, and the plus one is mastitis)

159
Q

Preventing which of the fresh cow diseases is the key to reducing all of the others?

A

(Hypocalcemia)

160
Q

Do you want to feed low or high calcium during the dry period to prevent hypocalcemia during the voluntary wait period?

A

(Low)

161
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary ketosis?

A

(Primary → occurs during peak lactation where the cow cannot eat enough to make up for loss to milking; secondary → occurs during the fresh period where the cow is not eating enough because something is making her feel icky)

162
Q

What condition cows are at a higher risk for ketosis?

A

(Over conditioned)

163
Q

Any illness causing a cow to pause which normal action increases her risk of a displaced abomasum?

A

(Eating → any illness that causes a cow to NOT eat increases her risk of a DA)

164
Q

What is the goal for somatic cell count in a healthy dairy farm?

A

(For it to be less than 200,000/ml)

165
Q

Do you want to walk with or against a cow’s direction of travel if you want to make them speed up?

A

(Against)

166
Q

Do you want to walk with or against a cow’s direction of travel if you want to make them slow down?

A

(With)

167
Q

What is the difference between a cow looking at you with both eyes versus one eye?

A

(Both - indicates interest in you; one - just wants to make sure where you are)

168
Q

What is the point of balance for a cow?

A

(Point of the shoulder)

169
Q

What is the concept behind the Grandin handling system?

A

(That cows what to return where they came from so they are circular chutes)

170
Q

What is the key to working with a calf in the field with mom present?

A

(Keep the calf between you and mom at all times)

171
Q

What is the purpose of a tail jack? Two answers.

A

(To immobilize the cow or to take blood)

172
Q

What is the difference between a tail jack and a tail twist?

A

(Tail jack is for immobilization or drawing blood; tail twist is to get them moving → should be released as soon as the cow is moving)

173
Q

What is low stress handling?

A

(Not the absence of pressure but the appropriate application and RELEASE of pressure; also pulling cattle around instead of pushing from behind and minimal to no use of sticks, prods, yelling, and running)

174
Q

How many males are needed per 100 female small ruminants for breeding purposes?

A

(3)

175
Q

What agents are vaccinated against prebreeding in rams/bucks?

A

(Clostridium tetani and perfringens type C and D; some people just use the 8-way to cover those three and others)

176
Q

What agents are vaccinated against prebreeding in ewes/does? Four answers.

A

(Campylobacter fetus and jejuni, Chlamydophila abortus, and +/- lepto)

177
Q

When are female small ruminants vaccinated for Campylobacter fetus and jejuni, Chlamydophila abortus, and +/- lepto in terms of prebreeding? Be specific.

A

(60 days before exposure to ram/buck)

178
Q

FAMACHA scores should be checked how many weeks prior to breeding?

A

(2 weeks)

179
Q

What anthelmintic should not be used during the first 30 days of gestation in small ruminants?

A

(Albendazole)

180
Q

If utilizing copper boluses during worm season, you can administer 0.5g of copper a maximum of how many times?

A

(4; if you were administering 1-2g you can only do that 2x)

181
Q

What type of pasture should be avoided because it can have an estrogen-like effect on the body?

A

(Clover)

182
Q

What is flushing?

A

(Feeding ewes/does 1lb of corn for the two weeks prior to and the two weeks into breeding season)

183
Q

During the small ruminant breeding season, if the sire is not an important factor, how often should males be changed out?

A

(Every 2 weeks)

184
Q

When is the earliest you can use ultrasound to diagnose pregnancy in ewes/does?

A

(40 days of gestation)

185
Q

What should dams be vaccinated with 2-4 weeks prior to lambing/kidding? Four answers.

A

(Clostridium tetani and perfringens type C and D, +/- PI-3 → can use 8 way as long as C. tetani is included and E. coli K99 vaccine but these are optional)

186
Q

What is the purpose of feeding dams hay for the first day after birth?

A

(Prevents them from being distracted by grain and so they will focus on baby for the first day)

187
Q

When should lambs/kids be vaccinated with CD&T?

A

(2 weeks prior to weaning and then two weeks later at weaning or shortly after)

188
Q

(T/F) The caseous lymphadenitis vaccination prevents only the formation of abscesses, not general infection.

A

(T)

189
Q

Contrast the difference between the synchronization protocols used in fall versus spring breeding.

A

(Fall - use PGF 9-11 days apart, 90% of the ewe/does should come into heat at the same time; Spring - use a CIDR for 5 days)

190
Q

What is the purpose of starting to feed pregnant ewes/does extra grain 6 weeks prior to lambing/kidding?

A

(To prevent pregnancy toxemia)

191
Q

If it is winter time or the pastures are in poor health, what should ewe/doe diets be supplemented with? Be specific.

A

(4 lbs of hay)

Healthy Pop Exam 2 (4 decks)

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