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Healthy Pop Exam 2 > Equine > Flashcards

Equine Flashcards

Covers - Equine Management Systems - Equine Prevention Medicine - Equine Parasite Control - Equine Zoonoses - Camelid Population Health - Basic Hoof Care for Horses - Equine Behavior - Large Animal Euthanasia

1
Q

(T/F) How horses are kept has a great deal to do with what their purpose is.

A

(T)

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2
Q

Where are show horses primarily kept?

A

(In a stall with limited turn out the caveat being that they may get more exercise from working)

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3
Q

Where are breeding horses kept?

A

(On pasture in herds)

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4
Q

Why should black walnut wood shavings be avoided for use as bedding in stalls for a horse?

A

(Horses will absorb toxins from the wood shavings and it will cause laminitis)

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5
Q

What type of wood shaving bedding should be avoided to prevent it from causing laminitis?

A

(Black walnut)

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6
Q

What is the disadvantage to using dirt for the floor of your horse’s stall?

A

(It is impossible to disinfect → ex. Salmonella shed in diarrhea)

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7
Q

What type of tack do we use to lead horses for horse labs?

A

(A halter and lead rope)

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8
Q

What is tack?

A

(Equipment used to control a horse; saddle, bridle, halter, etc.)

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9
Q

Which of the following health concerns are pertinent to thoroughbred racing?
A - Musculoskeletal
B - Respiratory
C - Cardiac
D - Infectious Disease
E - Reproduction
F - Drug Administration
G - Electrolyte

A

(A, B, C, D, E, F)

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10
Q

Which of the following health concerns are pertinent to harness racing?
A - Musculoskeletal
B - Respiratory
C - Cardiac
D - Infectious Disease
E - Reproduction
F - Drug Administration
G - Electrolyte

A

(A, B, C, D)

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11
Q

Which of the following health concerns are pertinent to endurance racing?
A - Musculoskeletal
B - Respiratory
C - Cardiac
D - Infectious Disease
E - Reproduction
F - Drug Administration
G - Electrolyte

A

(A, B, C, G)

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12
Q

Which of the following health concerns are pertinent to dressage?
A - Musculoskeletal
B - Respiratory
C - Cardiac
D - Infectious Disease
E - Reproduction
F - Drug Administration
G - Electrolyte

A

(A, B)

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13
Q

Which of the following health concerns are pertinent to show jumping?
A - Musculoskeletal
B - Respiratory
C - Cardiac
D - Infectious Disease
E - Reproduction
F - Drug Administration
G - Electrolyte

A

(A, B)

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14
Q

Which of the following health concerns are pertinent to hunters?
A - Musculoskeletal
B - Respiratory
C - Cardiac
D - Infectious Disease
E - Reproduction
F - Drug Administration
G - Electrolyte

A

(A, B, F)

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15
Q

Which of the following health concerns are pertinent to eventing?
A - Musculoskeletal
B - Respiratory
C - Cardiac
D - Infectious Disease
E - Reproduction
F - Drug Administration
G - Electrolyte

A

(A, B)

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16
Q

Which of the following health concerns are pertinent to saddle seat?
A - Musculoskeletal
B - Respiratory
C - Cardiac
D - Infectious Disease
E - Reproduction
F - Drug Administration
G - Electrolyte

A

(A, B, F)

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17
Q

Which of the following health concerns are pertinent to western pleasure?
A - Musculoskeletal
B - Respiratory
C - Cardiac
D - Infectious Disease
E - Reproduction
F - Drug Administration
G - Electrolyte

A

(A, B, F)

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18
Q

Which of the following health concerns are pertinent to reining?
A - Musculoskeletal
B - Respiratory
C - Cardiac
D - Infectious Disease
E - Reproduction
F - Drug Administration
G - Electrolyte

A

(A, B)

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19
Q

Which of the following health concerns are pertinent to rodeo/ranch?
A - Musculoskeletal
B - Respiratory
C - Cardiac
D - Infectious Disease
E - Reproduction
F - Drug Administration
G - Electrolyte

A

(A, B)

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20
Q

What are the male and female terms for donkeys?

A

(Jack and jenny)

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21
Q

What is a hinny?

A

(The result of breeding a female donkey to a male horse; a mule is breeding a female horse to a male donkey)

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22
Q

What is the difference between ponies and miniature horses?

A

(Miniature horses are conformationally similar to horses whereas ponies are conformationally different from horses)

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23
Q

A horse needs to be above what height (in hands) to be a horse and not either a pony or miniature horse?

A

(14.3 hands or 59 inches)

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24
Q

What type of general breed category are draft horses?

A

(Coldbloods)

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25
Q

Why are warmblood horses called warmbloods?

A

(Bc they result from the breeding of hotbloods to coldbloods)

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26
Q

Although American quarter horses are considered ‘all around horses’, they are primarily good for what disciplines?

A

(Western disciplines)

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27
Q

What are the main health concerns related to American quarter horses?

A

(Feet and muscle conditions)

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28
Q

What are the main health concerns related to Appaloosa horses?

A

(Ocular and skin conditions, specifically they are predisposed to recurrent equine uveitis and squamous cell carcinoma)

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29
Q

What were/are thoroughbred horses bred for?

A

(Speed → used mainly for flat racing but also excel at other English sports)

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30
Q

Which horse breeds are predisposed to developmental orthopedic disease? Three answers.

A

(Thoroughbreds, American saddlebreds, and warmbloods)

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31
Q

Within which breed of horse has a higher prevalence of equine viral arteritis been found?

A

(Standardbred)

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32
Q

What breed of horse is most commonly used for harness racing?

A

(Standardbred horses)

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33
Q

What is the main health concern related to Arabian horses?

A

(They have multiple hereditary disorders)

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34
Q

Of the draft horse breeds, which has laryngeal hemiplegia as a health concern?

A

(Clydesdale)

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35
Q

What are the two health concerns for Tennessee walking horses?

A

(Inhumane training methods and their stoicism)

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36
Q

Are epidemic or endemic disease vaccinations included in core horse vaccinations?

A

(Endemic)

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37
Q

Diseases need to be highly/lowly (choose one) infectious or virulent and have the potential to cause mild/severe (choose one) disease to be qualified as a core vaccine by the AAEP guidelines.

A

(Highly and severe)

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38
Q

What are the four core equine vaccinations?

A

(Tetanus, eastern and western encephalitides, west nile virus, and rabies)

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39
Q

Risk-based vaccines are only included in a vaccination program after what is performed?

A

(A risk-benefit analysis)

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40
Q

(T/F) All horses are at risk for the ubiquitous soil-borne organism tetanus.

A

(T)

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41
Q

Is the tetanus vaccine required by law or pose a significant public health risk?

A

(No)

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42
Q

What type of vaccine is the tetanus vaccine?

A

(Inactivated toxoid)

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43
Q

How often is the tetanus vaccine administered past the initial vaccination protocol?

A

(Annually)

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44
Q

Compare and contrast the response to a tetanus exposure in an unvaccinated adult horse versus a previously vaccinated adult horse.

A

(Unvaccinated → adm antitoxin and toxoid at distant sites, risk of theiler’s dz with antitoxin; vaccinated → if >6 months post previous vaccination give booster)

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45
Q

Is the rabies vaccine required by law in horses?

A

(No)

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46
Q

What type of vaccine is the rabies vaccine?

A

(Inactivated)

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47
Q

How often is the rabies vaccine administered past the initial vaccination protocol?

A

(Annually)

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48
Q

Compare and contrast the response to a rabies exposure in an unvaccinated adult horse versus a previously vaccinated adult horse.

A

(Unvaccinated → call state public health official; vaccinated → immediately revaccinate and observe under the direction of state public health officials)

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49
Q

Does eastern/western equine encephalitis pose a significant public health risk and/or is it required by law?

A

(No)

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50
Q

Why is eastern/western equine encephalitis vaccinated against as a part of the core equine vaccines? Three AAEP guideline answers.

A

(Endemic in birds and mosquitos, highly infectious/virulent, and the disease is severe; this is the same for west nile virus)

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51
Q

What type of vaccine is the eastern/western equine encephalitis vaccine?

A

(Inactivated)

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52
Q

When is the eastern/western equine encephalitis vaccine boostered? Two answers.

A

(Annually prior to vector season or biannually in high risk areas; this is the same for west nile virus)

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53
Q

Is equine herpes virus endemic in horse populations?

A

(Yes)

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54
Q

(T/F) The modified live equine herpes virus is commonly associated with vaccination reactions but provides protection against equine herpes myeloencephalopathy.

A

(F, no EHV vaccines are protective against EHM)

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55
Q

How often should EHV vaccinations be boostered in high risk populations (i.e. horses less than 5 yoa, horses on breeding farms, horses at high-traffic facilities, and performance horses)?

A

(Biannually)

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56
Q

About equine influenza, is it…
- Endemic
- Of public health significance?
- Required by law?
- Highly infectious?
- Associated with severe disease?
- What type of vaccines are available?
- Needs to be boostered when?

A
  • Endemic (Yes)
  • Of public health significance? (No)
  • Required by law? (No)
  • Highly infectious? (Yes)
  • Associated with severe disease? (No)
  • What type of vaccines are available? (Inactivated vaccine and IN modified live)
  • Needs to be boostered when? (Annually; facilities/shows may require q 6 mos vaccines)
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57
Q

Why is the potomac horse fever vaccine not a core vaccine? Two answers.

A

(Bc the disease is regional and the vaccine has a low efficacy)

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58
Q

When should the 2 dose annual series of potomac horse fever vaccines be administered?

A

(Prior to peak season)

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59
Q

About strangles, is it…
- Endemic
- Of public health significance?
- Required by law?
- Highly infectious?
- Associated with severe disease?
- What type of vaccines are available?
- Needs to be boostered when?

A
  • Endemic (No)
  • Of public health significance? (No)
  • Required by law? (No)
  • Highly infectious? (Yes)
  • Associated with severe disease? (Yes)
  • What type of vaccines are available? (Inactivated vaccine and IN modified live)
  • Needs to be boostered when? (Annually)
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60
Q

What are the three issues with the modified live intranasal strangles vaccine?

A

(1. Can induce non-infectious disease, 2. Can affect testing, 3. Can contaminate needles and cause abscesses)

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61
Q

(T/F) Pregnant mares should be vaccinated after breeding season.

A

(F, should be vaccinated prior to breeding season)

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62
Q

Why should you avoid vaccinating a mare in the first 90 days of pregnancy?

A

(The inflammatory response to the vaccine could potentially lead to lysis of the CL and subsequent loss of the pregnancy)

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63
Q

What type of EHV vaccine should be administered to mares and when?

A

(High antigen load vaccines; should be administered at 5,7, and 9 months of gestation)

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64
Q

Generally you start the vaccination program for a foal anywhere between what months of age?

A

(4-6 moa)

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65
Q

How long is a certificate of veterinary inspection valid for usually?

A

(30 days)

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66
Q

What does a certificate of veterinary inspection for a horse ensure?

A

(Ensures that the horse has been examined by a veterinarian recently)

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67
Q

(T/F) Certificates of veterinary inspection are required for interstate travel and most equine events.

A

(T)

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68
Q

(T/F) Vaccination will prevent infectious disease no matter what the management is like at a facility.

A

(F, vaccination without management factors will not prevent infectious disease)

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69
Q

(T/F) Vaccinations minimize risk but will not always prevent disease.

A

(T)

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70
Q

(T/F) Vaccinations guarantee equal protection for an equal duration for all horses in a population.

A

(F, each horse is not protected equally or for an equal duration)

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71
Q

Anthelmintic resistance in cyathostomins is less common in…
A - Benzimidazoles
B - Macrocyclic lactones
C - Nicotinics
D - Praziquantel

A

(B)

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72
Q

What happens when cyathostomins are killed by an anthelmintic drug?
A - Horses gain weight
B - Larvae repopulate the intestine
C - Reinfection does not occur for one month
D - It is impossible to kill cyathostomins

A

(B)

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73
Q

What anthelmintic can kill hypobiotic larvae of small strongyles?
A - Pyrantel
B - Praziquantel
C - Moxidectin
D - Oxibendazole

A

(C)

74
Q

What are the major parasites in horses? Five answers.

A

(GI strongylid nematodes (large and small strongyles), Parascaris, Oxyuris, Anoplocephala, and flies (including bots))

75
Q

What populations of animals should be placed on the pastures with the fewest worms?

A

(The most vulnerable animals so young, early lactation, others)

76
Q

How long should you leave a pasture ungrazed to help with strongylid worm control?

A

(A minimum of 60 days)

77
Q

How long can you use a pasture before reinfection with strongylids will occur?

A

(5 days)

78
Q

What is the term for the length of time it takes cyathostomin eggs to appear after treatment?

A

(Egg reappearance period)

79
Q

What is reflected (i.e. what knowledge is gained) from the egg reappearance period?

A

(That the larvae that were not removed by the treatment are now mature)

80
Q

What egg per gram of feces indicates a high shedder horse?

A

(Greater than or equal to 500 epg)

81
Q

(T/F) High shedders probably have a high parasite burden.

A

(F, egg counts do not reflect clinical parasitism)

82
Q

(T/F) Horses less than three years of age are treated as high shedders regardless of their egg count.

A

(T, bc of higher susceptibility to all parasites)

83
Q

When is the best time to use dewormers in horses?

A

(Right before grazing season)

84
Q

Why should praziquantel be included in your fall deworming regimen (along with MLs)?

A

(To include bot fly and tapeworm coverage)

85
Q

What is the purpose of harrowing a pasture and when should it occur?

A

(Harrowing breaks up horse manure and exposes larvae to desiccation, this should be performed AFTER horses are removed from a pasture)

86
Q

What animal population is the reservoir for St. Louis Encephalitis virus?

A

(Birds, specifically passerines)

87
Q

How is St. Louis Encephalitis virus transmitted?

A

(Via mosquito bites)

88
Q

Less than what percent of human cases of St. Louis Encephalitis are clinically apparent?

A

(1%)

89
Q

Are animal cases of St. Louis Encephalitis acute/severe, subclinical, or latent?

A

(Subclinical)

90
Q

Clinical disease caused by West Nile virus are seen in what three species?

A

(Birds, horses, and humans; infrequently seen in goats, sheep, dogs, llamas, bears, and various reptiles)

91
Q

West Nile virus can be acquired in three ways, what are they?

A

(Mosquito bites, blood transfusions, and organ transplants)

92
Q

What percentage of human cases of West Nile virus result in mild symptoms such as fever, headache, sore threat, backache, myalgia, and lymphadenopathy?

A

(20%, the rest (80%) are asymptomatic)

93
Q

What are the two main effects of West Nile virus infection in horses? Two answers.

A

(Fever and encephalomyelitis → most frequently observed clinical signs include incoordination or ataxia, especially of the hindlimbs and twitching)

94
Q

What are the two main methods of control used for West Nile virus?

A

(Serological monitoring and mosquito control)

95
Q

What human populations are more susceptible to Eastern Equine Encephalitis?

A

(Children under 15 yoa and adults over 50)

96
Q

What human populations are more susceptible to Western Equine Encephalitis?

A

(Children under 1 yoa and young adults)

97
Q

Is the epidemic or endemic strain of Venezuelan Equine Encephalitis associated with first horse infections then subsequent human cases?

A

(Epidemic)

98
Q

How is Venezuelan Equine Encephalitis transmitted? Two answers.

A

(Mosquitoes and biting flies)

99
Q

(T/F) Man and horse get Venezuelan Equine Encephalitis from mosquitoes and biting flies that obtain the virus from infected birds.

A

(F, birds are not related to Venezuelan Equine Encephalitis at all, man gets infection from mosquitoes that feed on infected horses)

100
Q

Compare and contrast the reservoirs for the endemic and epidemic strains of Venezuelan Equine Encephalitis.

A

(Endemic - rodents and mosquitoes; epidemic - mosquitoes and horses)

101
Q

Where in the world is Equine Hendra Virus found?

A

(Australia)

102
Q

What is the reservoir for Equine Hendra Virus?

A

(Bats, specifically fruit eating bats)

103
Q

How are horses infected with Equine Hendra Virus?

A

(Eating material contaminated with the virus from bat urine)

104
Q

(T/F) From current knowledge of Equine Hendra Virus, the only way humans receive it is through contact with infected horses, not through contact with infected bats.

A

(T)

105
Q

What two strains of rabies are most likely to be in our area?

A

(Raccoon and bat)

106
Q

What two forms of rabies are most commonly found in infected horses?

A

(The paralytic and dumb forms)

107
Q

Vesicular stomatitis usually occurs in the warm months in what location in the US?

A

(The 4 corners i.e. the southwest)

108
Q

Can humans get vesicular stomatitis?

A

(Yes, mainly found in laboratory personnel, results in flu-like symptoms that lasts for a few days, prevention is wearing protective clothing and gloves)

109
Q

What is the most common serotype of Salmonella that is isolated from horses?

A

(Salmonella typhimurium)

110
Q

What is the specific multi-drug resistant strain of Salmonella typhimurium?

A

(DT104 → higher than average mortality rate in people and reported to have an increased potential for zoonotic transmission)

111
Q

What is the route of transmission for zoonotic cases of Salmonella?

A

(Fecal-oral)

112
Q

What is the main preventative measure you can take to prevent getting Salmonella from an infected horse?

A

(Wash your damn hands, should also use barrier protection and disinfection of contaminated instruments)

113
Q

Where does Rhodococcus equi live?

A

(Contaminated soil)

114
Q

What population of humans is more susceptible to Rhodococcus equi infections?

A

(Severely compromised patients such as those with HIV)

115
Q

(T/F) Horses are more susceptible to Bacillus anthracis infections when compared to cattle.

A

(F, less susceptible)

116
Q

Why is it essential that carcasses of suspected cases of anthrax infection not be cut open?

A

(That will result in spore formation which will then infect other organisms via inhalation, ingestion, or contact with abrasions)

117
Q

What is the treatment of choice for anthrax infections?

A

(Penicillin)

118
Q

How do horses obtain Brucella infections when they are accidental hosts and typically resistant?

A

(From being housed or sharing pastures with infected cattle or swine)

119
Q

What is the common clinical manifestation of Brucellosis in horses?

A

(Fistulous withers and/or poll evil)

120
Q

Though not considered high risk, how can humans obtain Brucella infections from horses?

A

(Exposure to an open infected lesions on the horse)

121
Q

How are dermatomycosis causative agents (of which there are a lot so I’m not listing them) transmitted from horses to humans?

A

(Direct contact with the horse or things that contacted the horse such as blankets, equipment, brushes and other items)

122
Q

What organism develops characteristic septate filaments with parallel rows of coccoid cells that form motile flagellated zoospores and is the causative agent of rain rot in horses?

A

(Dermatophilus congolensis)

123
Q

What are the characteristic lesions associated with dermatophilosis in horses?

A

(Exudative, crusted lesions in which the hairs are cemented together into characteristic ‘paint-brush’ clumps)

124
Q

What clinical sign does a human with dermatophilosis develop?

A

(Pustular desquamative dermatitis)

125
Q

What species shed Sporothrix schenckii from their wounds and in their feces after it has penetrated their wounds from the environment?

A

(Cats)

126
Q

(T/F) For a human to get sporotrichosis from a cat, they need to have an open wound.

A

(F)

127
Q

Horses with sporotrichosis usually present with nodules that frequently ulcerate then may progress to infections of what body system?

A

(Lymphatics → results in cording disease where the lymphatic chains become enlarged and rupture, usually occurs on the distal limbs)

128
Q

What results from Staph aureus having the mecA gene that makes it methicillin resistant?

A

(Beta lactams cannot bind to the bacterial cell wall)

129
Q

What are the two types of MRSA in human populations?

A

(Community associated with nosocomial/hospital associated MRSA)

130
Q

Compare and contrast alpacas and llamas when it comes to their weight, height, topline, ears, and tail.

A

(Weight - llamas weigh more; height - llamas are taller; topline - llamas straight, alpaca convex; ears - llamas banana shaped, alpaca pointy; tail - llamas high set, alpaca low set)

131
Q

What are the two breeds of alpaca?

A

(Suri and huacaya)

132
Q

What is the main way to tell the difference between a dromedary and bactrian camel?

A

(Dromedaries have one hump, bactrians have two humps)

133
Q

What are the female and male terms used for alpacas?

A

(Females are hembra and males are macho or gelding)

134
Q

Of alpacas and llamas, which are more inclined to their herd animal instinct?

A

(Alpacas)

135
Q

Where especially do camelids not like to be touched? Two answers.

A

(Head and legs)

136
Q

Why is shearing typically performed in the spring?

A

(So as to prevent heat stress in the subsequent summer)

137
Q

Do alpacas or llamas live longer?

A

(Llamas, they live 15-20 yrs whereas alpacas live 10-15 yrs)

138
Q

Where should you palpate a llama or alpaca to determine body condition scoring?

A

(Their back/epaxials, should be a 45 degree angled slope of muscle from their dorsal spinal processes)

139
Q

Which side of the neck is typically used for jugular venipuncture in camelids and why?

A

(Right side, to avoid the esophagus)

140
Q

(T/F) Camelids tend to have lower PCV and RBC numbers than other species.

A

(F, lower PCV is true but they tend to have HIGHER RBC numbers than other species)

141
Q

(T/F) It is normal for a stressed camelid to be hypoglycemic.

A

(F, hyperglycemic)

142
Q

What product is frequently used for the prevention of P. tenuis in camelids?

A

(Ivermectin products)

143
Q

What coccidian causes weight loss, anemia, and hypoalbuminemia in camelids?

A

(Eimeria macusaniensis)

144
Q

What drug is used to treat coccidian infections in camelids?

A

(Ponazuril)

145
Q

(T/F) All vaccines used in camelids are off label.

A

(T)

146
Q

What is considered the “core” vaccine in camelids?

A

(CD/T vaccine → covers clostridium perfringens type C and D and clostridium tetani)

147
Q

Castration of camelids is delayed until at least what time period to prevent prolonged bone growth which can result in joint hyperextension and osteoarthritis?

A

(18 months of age)

148
Q

Is camelid ovulation more similar to a dog or cat?

A

(Cat, they are induced ovulators like cats)

149
Q

What parasites of camelids are prevented with frequent deworming with ivermectin?

A

(Parelaphostrongylus tenuis)

150
Q

You are presented with a camelid that has been off feed for 1-2 days and their PCV is < 8%, what is at the top of your differential list?

A

(Haemonchus contortus)

151
Q

What is the least amount of experience a farrier needs prior to becoming an AFA certified farrier?

A

(At least one year of experience)

152
Q

What prior level of AFA certification is needed to then become an AFA certified journeyman farrier?

A

(AFA certified farrier)

153
Q

What is the least amount of experience a farrier needs prior to becoming an AFA certified journeyman farrier?

A

(At least two years of experience)

154
Q

What is an ‘underrun heel’?

A

(A heel angle that has a greater than 5 degree difference from the dorsal hoof wall angle)

155
Q

How often are horse hooves trimmed? Range in weeks.

A

(Every 4-8 weeks)

156
Q

What are the four main reasons why horses wear shoes?

A

(Protection, traction, treatment, and gait alteration)

157
Q

Where should nails enter the hoof for the purpose of attaching a horse shoe?

A

(The outer edge of the white line)

158
Q

What are the three hoof structures that a nail should pierce through before exiting the hoof wall when shoeing a horse?

A

(The white line, the nonpigmented stratum media, and the pigmented stratum externum)

159
Q

What is the easiest way to tell the difference between shoe pullers and nippers?

A

(Nippers have flared ends, shoe pullers ends usually have a little circle bit)

160
Q

(T/F) For a horse to be able to see anything beneath their nose, they need to angle their head downward.

A

(T)

161
Q

Why do we as vets care about horse herd behavior? Two answers.

A

(We need to assess how the herd behavior is impacting the horses’ access to resource and it can lead to injuries)

162
Q

(T/F) Almost all horse behavioral problems and the majority of health problems are attributable to domestication.

A

(T)

163
Q

Aggression towards people in horses is typically expressed in what locations?

A

(When they are in confined spaces such as stalls)

164
Q

(T/F) Maternal aggression usually does not warrant treatment.

A

(T)

165
Q

What is the term for repetitive behavior that serves no purpose?

A

(Stereotypies aka compulsive behavior)

166
Q

What is usually the cause of compulsive behavior in horses? Two answers.

A

(Confinement and management practices)

167
Q

What are the main health concerns associated with locomotory compulsive behavior? Three answers.

A

(Musculoskeletal damage, fatigue, and hoof wear)

168
Q

(T/F) Cribbing/aerophagia can decrease a horse’s heart rate, reduce stress, lead to a release of beta endorphins, and lower serotonin.

A

(T)

169
Q

What are the four main consequences of cribbing?

A

(Dental wear, colic, undernourishment, and fence/barn/etc. destruction)

170
Q

Geophagia can indicate what about the horse’s diet?

A

(The diet lacks roughage and/or tract minerals)

171
Q

What is thought to be a common cause of head shaking in horses that is associated with an adult onset and neuropathic pain?

A

(Trigeminal neuropathy → horses will experience sudden itching, burning, tingling or electric sensations, may be triggered by sunlight)

172
Q

What are the three possible causes/reasons a horse might self mutilate?

A

(As a displacement behavior, if they have skin or musculoskeletal disease, if they have neuropathic pain)

173
Q

Sedation prior to euthanasia in horses is achieved with what class of drugs preferably?

A

(Alpha 2 agonists)

174
Q

What are the advantages of intravenous barbiturates for horse euthanasia? Two answers.

A

(They are dependable and safe)

175
Q

What are the disadvantages of intravenous barbiturates for horse euthanasia? Three answers.

A

(They are expensive, controlled, and have drug residues)

176
Q

What are the disadvantages of intrathecal local anesthetics for horse euthanasia? Two answers.

A

(Requires both general anesthesia and the ability to perform a CSF centesis)

177
Q

(T/F) Horses need to be under general anesthesia if you are planning to utilize intravenous potassium chloride for euthanasia.

A

(T)

178
Q

Why is euthanasia in a stall avoided for horses? Two answers.

A

(Can be unsafe for personnel involved and carcass removal can be very difficult)

179
Q

What are common ways to confirm death in horses? Three answers.

A

(Auscultate the heart, observe for respiration, and testing the corneal reflex (this one Dr. McKenzie prefers))

180
Q

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A

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Healthy Pop Exam 2 (4 decks)

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