Equine Flashcards
Covers - Equine Management Systems - Equine Prevention Medicine - Equine Parasite Control - Equine Zoonoses - Camelid Population Health - Basic Hoof Care for Horses - Equine Behavior - Large Animal Euthanasia (180 cards)
1
Q
(T/F) How horses are kept has a great deal to do with what their purpose is.
A
(T)
2
Q
Where are show horses primarily kept?
A
(In a stall with limited turn out the caveat being that they may get more exercise from working)
3
Q
Where are breeding horses kept?
A
(On pasture in herds)
4
Q
Why should black walnut wood shavings be avoided for use as bedding in stalls for a horse?
A
(Horses will absorb toxins from the wood shavings and it will cause laminitis)
5
Q
What type of wood shaving bedding should be avoided to prevent it from causing laminitis?
A
(Black walnut)
6
Q
What is the disadvantage to using dirt for the floor of your horse’s stall?
A
(It is impossible to disinfect → ex. Salmonella shed in diarrhea)
7
Q
What type of tack do we use to lead horses for horse labs?
A
(A halter and lead rope)
8
Q
What is tack?
A
(Equipment used to control a horse; saddle, bridle, halter, etc.)
9
Q
Which of the following health concerns are pertinent to thoroughbred racing?
A - Musculoskeletal
B - Respiratory
C - Cardiac
D - Infectious Disease
E - Reproduction
F - Drug Administration
G - Electrolyte
A
(A, B, C, D, E, F)
10
Q
Which of the following health concerns are pertinent to harness racing?
A - Musculoskeletal
B - Respiratory
C - Cardiac
D - Infectious Disease
E - Reproduction
F - Drug Administration
G - Electrolyte
A
(A, B, C, D)
11
Q
Which of the following health concerns are pertinent to endurance racing?
A - Musculoskeletal
B - Respiratory
C - Cardiac
D - Infectious Disease
E - Reproduction
F - Drug Administration
G - Electrolyte
A
(A, B, C, G)
12
Q
Which of the following health concerns are pertinent to dressage?
A - Musculoskeletal
B - Respiratory
C - Cardiac
D - Infectious Disease
E - Reproduction
F - Drug Administration
G - Electrolyte
A
(A, B)
13
Q
Which of the following health concerns are pertinent to show jumping?
A - Musculoskeletal
B - Respiratory
C - Cardiac
D - Infectious Disease
E - Reproduction
F - Drug Administration
G - Electrolyte
A
(A, B)
14
Q
Which of the following health concerns are pertinent to hunters?
A - Musculoskeletal
B - Respiratory
C - Cardiac
D - Infectious Disease
E - Reproduction
F - Drug Administration
G - Electrolyte
A
(A, B, F)
15
Q
Which of the following health concerns are pertinent to eventing?
A - Musculoskeletal
B - Respiratory
C - Cardiac
D - Infectious Disease
E - Reproduction
F - Drug Administration
G - Electrolyte
A
(A, B)
16
Q
Which of the following health concerns are pertinent to saddle seat?
A - Musculoskeletal
B - Respiratory
C - Cardiac
D - Infectious Disease
E - Reproduction
F - Drug Administration
G - Electrolyte
A
(A, B, F)
17
Q
Which of the following health concerns are pertinent to western pleasure?
A - Musculoskeletal
B - Respiratory
C - Cardiac
D - Infectious Disease
E - Reproduction
F - Drug Administration
G - Electrolyte
A
(A, B, F)
18
Q
Which of the following health concerns are pertinent to reining?
A - Musculoskeletal
B - Respiratory
C - Cardiac
D - Infectious Disease
E - Reproduction
F - Drug Administration
G - Electrolyte
A
(A, B)
19
Q
Which of the following health concerns are pertinent to rodeo/ranch?
A - Musculoskeletal
B - Respiratory
C - Cardiac
D - Infectious Disease
E - Reproduction
F - Drug Administration
G - Electrolyte
A
(A, B)
20
Q
What are the male and female terms for donkeys?
A
(Jack and jenny)
21
Q
What is a hinny?
A
(The result of breeding a female donkey to a male horse; a mule is breeding a female horse to a male donkey)
22
Q
What is the difference between ponies and miniature horses?
A
(Miniature horses are conformationally similar to horses whereas ponies are conformationally different from horses)
23
Q
A horse needs to be above what height (in hands) to be a horse and not either a pony or miniature horse?
A
(14.3 hands or 59 inches)
24
Q
What type of general breed category are draft horses?
A
(Coldbloods)
25
Why are warmblood horses called warmbloods?
(Bc they result from the breeding of hotbloods to coldbloods)
26
Although American quarter horses are considered ‘all around horses’, they are primarily good for what disciplines?
(Western disciplines)
27
What are the main health concerns related to American quarter horses?
(Feet and muscle conditions)
28
What are the main health concerns related to Appaloosa horses?
(Ocular and skin conditions, specifically they are predisposed to recurrent equine uveitis and squamous cell carcinoma)
29
What were/are thoroughbred horses bred for?
(Speed → used mainly for flat racing but also excel at other English sports)
30
Which horse breeds are predisposed to developmental orthopedic disease? Three answers.
(Thoroughbreds, American saddlebreds, and warmbloods)
31
Within which breed of horse has a higher prevalence of equine viral arteritis been found?
(Standardbred)
32
What breed of horse is most commonly used for harness racing?
(Standardbred horses)
33
What is the main health concern related to Arabian horses?
(They have multiple hereditary disorders)
34
Of the draft horse breeds, which has laryngeal hemiplegia as a health concern?
(Clydesdale)
35
What are the two health concerns for Tennessee walking horses?
(Inhumane training methods and their stoicism)
36
Are epidemic or endemic disease vaccinations included in core horse vaccinations?
(Endemic)
37
Diseases need to be highly/lowly (choose one) infectious or virulent and have the potential to cause mild/severe (choose one) disease to be qualified as a core vaccine by the AAEP guidelines.
(Highly and severe)
38
What are the four core equine vaccinations?
(Tetanus, eastern and western encephalitides, west nile virus, and rabies)
39
Risk-based vaccines are only included in a vaccination program after what is performed?
(A risk-benefit analysis)
40
(T/F) All horses are at risk for the ubiquitous soil-borne organism tetanus.
(T)
41
Is the tetanus vaccine required by law or pose a significant public health risk?
(No)
42
What type of vaccine is the tetanus vaccine?
(Inactivated toxoid)
43
How often is the tetanus vaccine administered past the initial vaccination protocol?
(Annually)
44
Compare and contrast the response to a tetanus exposure in an unvaccinated adult horse versus a previously vaccinated adult horse.
(Unvaccinated → adm antitoxin and toxoid at distant sites, risk of theiler’s dz with antitoxin; vaccinated → if >6 months post previous vaccination give booster)
45
Is the rabies vaccine required by law in horses?
(No)
46
What type of vaccine is the rabies vaccine?
(Inactivated)
47
How often is the rabies vaccine administered past the initial vaccination protocol?
(Annually)
48
Compare and contrast the response to a rabies exposure in an unvaccinated adult horse versus a previously vaccinated adult horse.
(Unvaccinated → call state public health official; vaccinated → immediately revaccinate and observe under the direction of state public health officials)
49
Does eastern/western equine encephalitis pose a significant public health risk and/or is it required by law?
(No)
50
Why is eastern/western equine encephalitis vaccinated against as a part of the core equine vaccines? Three AAEP guideline answers.
(Endemic in birds and mosquitos, highly infectious/virulent, and the disease is severe; this is the same for west nile virus)
51
What type of vaccine is the eastern/western equine encephalitis vaccine?
(Inactivated)
52
When is the eastern/western equine encephalitis vaccine boostered? Two answers.
(Annually prior to vector season or biannually in high risk areas; this is the same for west nile virus)
53
Is equine herpes virus endemic in horse populations?
(Yes)
54
(T/F) The modified live equine herpes virus is commonly associated with vaccination reactions but provides protection against equine herpes myeloencephalopathy.
(F, no EHV vaccines are protective against EHM)
55
How often should EHV vaccinations be boostered in high risk populations (i.e. horses less than 5 yoa, horses on breeding farms, horses at high-traffic facilities, and performance horses)?
(Biannually)
56
About equine influenza, is it…
- Endemic
- Of public health significance?
- Required by law?
- Highly infectious?
- Associated with severe disease?
- What type of vaccines are available?
- Needs to be boostered when?
- Endemic (Yes)
- Of public health significance? (No)
- Required by law? (No)
- Highly infectious? (Yes)
- Associated with severe disease? (No)
- What type of vaccines are available? (Inactivated vaccine and IN modified live)
- Needs to be boostered when? (Annually; facilities/shows may require q 6 mos vaccines)
57
Why is the potomac horse fever vaccine not a core vaccine? Two answers.
(Bc the disease is regional and the vaccine has a low efficacy)
58
When should the 2 dose annual series of potomac horse fever vaccines be administered?
(Prior to peak season)
59
About strangles, is it…
- Endemic
- Of public health significance?
- Required by law?
- Highly infectious?
- Associated with severe disease?
- What type of vaccines are available?
- Needs to be boostered when?
- Endemic (No)
- Of public health significance? (No)
- Required by law? (No)
- Highly infectious? (Yes)
- Associated with severe disease? (Yes)
- What type of vaccines are available? (Inactivated vaccine and IN modified live)
- Needs to be boostered when? (Annually)
60
What are the three issues with the modified live intranasal strangles vaccine?
(1. Can induce non-infectious disease, 2. Can affect testing, 3. Can contaminate needles and cause abscesses)
61
(T/F) Pregnant mares should be vaccinated after breeding season.
(F, should be vaccinated prior to breeding season)
62
Why should you avoid vaccinating a mare in the first 90 days of pregnancy?
(The inflammatory response to the vaccine could potentially lead to lysis of the CL and subsequent loss of the pregnancy)
63
What type of EHV vaccine should be administered to mares and when?
(High antigen load vaccines; should be administered at 5,7, and 9 months of gestation)
64
Generally you start the vaccination program for a foal anywhere between what months of age?
(4-6 moa)
65
How long is a certificate of veterinary inspection valid for usually?
(30 days)
66
What does a certificate of veterinary inspection for a horse ensure?
(Ensures that the horse has been examined by a veterinarian recently)
67
(T/F) Certificates of veterinary inspection are required for interstate travel and most equine events.
(T)
68
(T/F) Vaccination will prevent infectious disease no matter what the management is like at a facility.
(F, vaccination without management factors will not prevent infectious disease)
69
(T/F) Vaccinations minimize risk but will not always prevent disease.
(T)
70
(T/F) Vaccinations guarantee equal protection for an equal duration for all horses in a population.
(F, each horse is not protected equally or for an equal duration)
71
Anthelmintic resistance in cyathostomins is less common in…
A - Benzimidazoles
B - Macrocyclic lactones
C - Nicotinics
D - Praziquantel
(B)
72
What happens when cyathostomins are killed by an anthelmintic drug?
A - Horses gain weight
B - Larvae repopulate the intestine
C - Reinfection does not occur for one month
D - It is impossible to kill cyathostomins
(B)
73
What anthelmintic can kill hypobiotic larvae of small strongyles?
A - Pyrantel
B - Praziquantel
C - Moxidectin
D - Oxibendazole
(C)
74
What are the major parasites in horses? Five answers.
(GI strongylid nematodes (large and small strongyles), Parascaris, Oxyuris, Anoplocephala, and flies (including bots))
75
What populations of animals should be placed on the pastures with the fewest worms?
(The most vulnerable animals so young, early lactation, others)
76
How long should you leave a pasture ungrazed to help with strongylid worm control?
(A minimum of 60 days)
77
How long can you use a pasture before reinfection with strongylids will occur?
(5 days)
78
What is the term for the length of time it takes cyathostomin eggs to appear after treatment?
(Egg reappearance period)
79
What is reflected (i.e. what knowledge is gained) from the egg reappearance period?
(That the larvae that were not removed by the treatment are now mature)
80
What egg per gram of feces indicates a high shedder horse?
(Greater than or equal to 500 epg)
81
(T/F) High shedders probably have a high parasite burden.
(F, egg counts do not reflect clinical parasitism)
82
(T/F) Horses less than three years of age are treated as high shedders regardless of their egg count.
(T, bc of higher susceptibility to all parasites)
83
When is the best time to use dewormers in horses?
(Right before grazing season)
84
Why should praziquantel be included in your fall deworming regimen (along with MLs)?
(To include bot fly and tapeworm coverage)
85
What is the purpose of harrowing a pasture and when should it occur?
(Harrowing breaks up horse manure and exposes larvae to desiccation, this should be performed AFTER horses are removed from a pasture)
86
What animal population is the reservoir for St. Louis Encephalitis virus?
(Birds, specifically passerines)
87
How is St. Louis Encephalitis virus transmitted?
(Via mosquito bites)
88
Less than what percent of human cases of St. Louis Encephalitis are clinically apparent?
(1%)
89
Are animal cases of St. Louis Encephalitis acute/severe, subclinical, or latent?
(Subclinical)
90
Clinical disease caused by West Nile virus are seen in what three species?
(Birds, horses, and humans; infrequently seen in goats, sheep, dogs, llamas, bears, and various reptiles)
91
West Nile virus can be acquired in three ways, what are they?
(Mosquito bites, blood transfusions, and organ transplants)
92
What percentage of human cases of West Nile virus result in mild symptoms such as fever, headache, sore threat, backache, myalgia, and lymphadenopathy?
(20%, the rest (80%) are asymptomatic)
93
What are the two main effects of West Nile virus infection in horses? Two answers.
(Fever and encephalomyelitis → most frequently observed clinical signs include incoordination or ataxia, especially of the hindlimbs and twitching)
94
What are the two main methods of control used for West Nile virus?
(Serological monitoring and mosquito control)
95
What human populations are more susceptible to Eastern Equine Encephalitis?
(Children under 15 yoa and adults over 50)
96
What human populations are more susceptible to Western Equine Encephalitis?
(Children under 1 yoa and young adults)
97
Is the epidemic or endemic strain of Venezuelan Equine Encephalitis associated with first horse infections then subsequent human cases?
(Epidemic)
98
How is Venezuelan Equine Encephalitis transmitted? Two answers.
(Mosquitoes and biting flies)
99
(T/F) Man and horse get Venezuelan Equine Encephalitis from mosquitoes and biting flies that obtain the virus from infected birds.
(F, birds are not related to Venezuelan Equine Encephalitis at all, man gets infection from mosquitoes that feed on infected horses)
100
Compare and contrast the reservoirs for the endemic and epidemic strains of Venezuelan Equine Encephalitis.
(Endemic - rodents and mosquitoes; epidemic - mosquitoes and horses)
101
Where in the world is Equine Hendra Virus found?
(Australia)
102
What is the reservoir for Equine Hendra Virus?
(Bats, specifically fruit eating bats)
103
How are horses infected with Equine Hendra Virus?
(Eating material contaminated with the virus from bat urine)
104
(T/F) From current knowledge of Equine Hendra Virus, the only way humans receive it is through contact with infected horses, not through contact with infected bats.
(T)
105
What two strains of rabies are most likely to be in our area?
(Raccoon and bat)
106
What two forms of rabies are most commonly found in infected horses?
(The paralytic and dumb forms)
107
Vesicular stomatitis usually occurs in the warm months in what location in the US?
(The 4 corners i.e. the southwest)
108
Can humans get vesicular stomatitis?
(Yes, mainly found in laboratory personnel, results in flu-like symptoms that lasts for a few days, prevention is wearing protective clothing and gloves)
109
What is the most common serotype of Salmonella that is isolated from horses?
(Salmonella typhimurium)
110
What is the specific multi-drug resistant strain of Salmonella typhimurium?
(DT104 → higher than average mortality rate in people and reported to have an increased potential for zoonotic transmission)
111
What is the route of transmission for zoonotic cases of Salmonella?
(Fecal-oral)
112
What is the main preventative measure you can take to prevent getting Salmonella from an infected horse?
(Wash your damn hands, should also use barrier protection and disinfection of contaminated instruments)
113
Where does Rhodococcus equi live?
(Contaminated soil)
114
What population of humans is more susceptible to Rhodococcus equi infections?
(Severely compromised patients such as those with HIV)
115
(T/F) Horses are more susceptible to Bacillus anthracis infections when compared to cattle.
(F, less susceptible)
116
Why is it essential that carcasses of suspected cases of anthrax infection not be cut open?
(That will result in spore formation which will then infect other organisms via inhalation, ingestion, or contact with abrasions)
117
What is the treatment of choice for anthrax infections?
(Penicillin)
118
How do horses obtain Brucella infections when they are accidental hosts and typically resistant?
(From being housed or sharing pastures with infected cattle or swine)
119
What is the common clinical manifestation of Brucellosis in horses?
(Fistulous withers and/or poll evil)
120
Though not considered high risk, how can humans obtain Brucella infections from horses?
(Exposure to an open infected lesions on the horse)
121
How are dermatomycosis causative agents (of which there are a lot so I’m not listing them) transmitted from horses to humans?
(Direct contact with the horse or things that contacted the horse such as blankets, equipment, brushes and other items)
122
What organism develops characteristic septate filaments with parallel rows of coccoid cells that form motile flagellated zoospores and is the causative agent of rain rot in horses?
(Dermatophilus congolensis)
123
What are the characteristic lesions associated with dermatophilosis in horses?
(Exudative, crusted lesions in which the hairs are cemented together into characteristic ‘paint-brush’ clumps)
124
What clinical sign does a human with dermatophilosis develop?
(Pustular desquamative dermatitis)
125
What species shed Sporothrix schenckii from their wounds and in their feces after it has penetrated their wounds from the environment?
(Cats)
126
(T/F) For a human to get sporotrichosis from a cat, they need to have an open wound.
(F)
127
Horses with sporotrichosis usually present with nodules that frequently ulcerate then may progress to infections of what body system?
(Lymphatics → results in cording disease where the lymphatic chains become enlarged and rupture, usually occurs on the distal limbs)
128
What results from Staph aureus having the mecA gene that makes it methicillin resistant?
(Beta lactams cannot bind to the bacterial cell wall)
129
What are the two types of MRSA in human populations?
(Community associated with nosocomial/hospital associated MRSA)
130
Compare and contrast alpacas and llamas when it comes to their weight, height, topline, ears, and tail.
(Weight - llamas weigh more; height - llamas are taller; topline - llamas straight, alpaca convex; ears - llamas banana shaped, alpaca pointy; tail - llamas high set, alpaca low set)
131
What are the two breeds of alpaca?
(Suri and huacaya)
132
What is the main way to tell the difference between a dromedary and bactrian camel?
(Dromedaries have one hump, bactrians have two humps)
133
What are the female and male terms used for alpacas?
(Females are hembra and males are macho or gelding)
134
Of alpacas and llamas, which are more inclined to their herd animal instinct?
(Alpacas)
135
Where especially do camelids not like to be touched? Two answers.
(Head and legs)
136
Why is shearing typically performed in the spring?
(So as to prevent heat stress in the subsequent summer)
137
Do alpacas or llamas live longer?
(Llamas, they live 15-20 yrs whereas alpacas live 10-15 yrs)
138
Where should you palpate a llama or alpaca to determine body condition scoring?
(Their back/epaxials, should be a 45 degree angled slope of muscle from their dorsal spinal processes)
139
Which side of the neck is typically used for jugular venipuncture in camelids and why?
(Right side, to avoid the esophagus)
140
(T/F) Camelids tend to have lower PCV and RBC numbers than other species.
(F, lower PCV is true but they tend to have HIGHER RBC numbers than other species)
141
(T/F) It is normal for a stressed camelid to be hypoglycemic.
(F, hyperglycemic)
142
What product is frequently used for the prevention of P. tenuis in camelids?
(Ivermectin products)
143
What coccidian causes weight loss, anemia, and hypoalbuminemia in camelids?
(Eimeria macusaniensis)
144
What drug is used to treat coccidian infections in camelids?
(Ponazuril)
145
(T/F) All vaccines used in camelids are off label.
(T)
146
What is considered the “core” vaccine in camelids?
(CD/T vaccine → covers clostridium perfringens type C and D and clostridium tetani)
147
Castration of camelids is delayed until at least what time period to prevent prolonged bone growth which can result in joint hyperextension and osteoarthritis?
(18 months of age)
148
Is camelid ovulation more similar to a dog or cat?
(Cat, they are induced ovulators like cats)
149
What parasites of camelids are prevented with frequent deworming with ivermectin?
(Parelaphostrongylus tenuis)
150
You are presented with a camelid that has been off feed for 1-2 days and their PCV is < 8%, what is at the top of your differential list?
(Haemonchus contortus)
151
What is the least amount of experience a farrier needs prior to becoming an AFA certified farrier?
(At least one year of experience)
152
What prior level of AFA certification is needed to then become an AFA certified journeyman farrier?
(AFA certified farrier)
153
What is the least amount of experience a farrier needs prior to becoming an AFA certified journeyman farrier?
(At least two years of experience)
154
What is an ‘underrun heel’?
(A heel angle that has a greater than 5 degree difference from the dorsal hoof wall angle)
155
How often are horse hooves trimmed? Range in weeks.
(Every 4-8 weeks)
156
What are the four main reasons why horses wear shoes?
(Protection, traction, treatment, and gait alteration)
157
Where should nails enter the hoof for the purpose of attaching a horse shoe?
(The outer edge of the white line)
158
What are the three hoof structures that a nail should pierce through before exiting the hoof wall when shoeing a horse?
(The white line, the nonpigmented stratum media, and the pigmented stratum externum)
159
What is the easiest way to tell the difference between shoe pullers and nippers?
(Nippers have flared ends, shoe pullers ends usually have a little circle bit)
160
(T/F) For a horse to be able to see anything beneath their nose, they need to angle their head downward.
(T)
161
Why do we as vets care about horse herd behavior? Two answers.
(We need to assess how the herd behavior is impacting the horses’ access to resource and it can lead to injuries)
162
(T/F) Almost all horse behavioral problems and the majority of health problems are attributable to domestication.
(T)
163
Aggression towards people in horses is typically expressed in what locations?
(When they are in confined spaces such as stalls)
164
(T/F) Maternal aggression usually does not warrant treatment.
(T)
165
What is the term for repetitive behavior that serves no purpose?
(Stereotypies aka compulsive behavior)
166
What is usually the cause of compulsive behavior in horses? Two answers.
(Confinement and management practices)
167
What are the main health concerns associated with locomotory compulsive behavior? Three answers.
(Musculoskeletal damage, fatigue, and hoof wear)
168
(T/F) Cribbing/aerophagia can decrease a horse’s heart rate, reduce stress, lead to a release of beta endorphins, and lower serotonin.
(T)
169
What are the four main consequences of cribbing?
(Dental wear, colic, undernourishment, and fence/barn/etc. destruction)
170
Geophagia can indicate what about the horse’s diet?
(The diet lacks roughage and/or tract minerals)
171
What is thought to be a common cause of head shaking in horses that is associated with an adult onset and neuropathic pain?
(Trigeminal neuropathy → horses will experience sudden itching, burning, tingling or electric sensations, may be triggered by sunlight)
172
What are the three possible causes/reasons a horse might self mutilate?
(As a displacement behavior, if they have skin or musculoskeletal disease, if they have neuropathic pain)
173
Sedation prior to euthanasia in horses is achieved with what class of drugs preferably?
(Alpha 2 agonists)
174
What are the advantages of intravenous barbiturates for horse euthanasia? Two answers.
(They are dependable and safe)
175
What are the disadvantages of intravenous barbiturates for horse euthanasia? Three answers.
(They are expensive, controlled, and have drug residues)
176
What are the disadvantages of intrathecal local anesthetics for horse euthanasia? Two answers.
(Requires both general anesthesia and the ability to perform a CSF centesis)
177
(T/F) Horses need to be under general anesthesia if you are planning to utilize intravenous potassium chloride for euthanasia.
(T)
178
Why is euthanasia in a stall avoided for horses? Two answers.
(Can be unsafe for personnel involved and carcass removal can be very difficult)
179
What are common ways to confirm death in horses? Three answers.
(Auscultate the heart, observe for respiration, and testing the corneal reflex (this one Dr. McKenzie prefers))
180
aa
bb
