Focus Questions Flashcards

1
Q
Healthcare reform that deals with placing capitations on pain and suffering and limits attorney fees is called:
A.  Malpractice litigation reform
B.  Provider reform
C.  Scope of practice reform
D.  Health service planning reform
A

A. Malpractice litigation reform

Rationale: malpractice litigation reform deals with limits on attorney fees and limits on liability and capitation set for pain and suffering.

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2
Q

In recognition of World Patient Safety day- Practice Question #50:
According to the Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ) a culture of safety includes all of the following except:
A. Acknowledgement of high-risk activities
B. Provider and staff engagement
C. Blame-free environments
D. Organization commitment to safe operations

A

B. Provider and staff engagement

Rationale: The Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ) defines a “culture of safety” as encompassing acknowledgment of the high-risk nature of activities and the determination to achieve safe operations, blame-free environments, encouragement of collaboration across ranks and disciplines, and organizational resource commitment to address safety concerns. Engagement of providers and staff is related, but is not part of the definition.

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3
Q
Robert and Susan are discussing discrimination. Susan does not believe Robert when he says discrimination is still a problem. Robert uses this scenario to illustrate his point: “Last night at the local emergency room, four people arrived at the same time. All four are the same age, have similar symptoms and vital signs. One person was white, one was Asian, one was African-American, and one was Hispanic. Based on statistics, of the four people who arrived, which one will wait the longest to be seen?”
A.  African-American
B.  Asian
C.  White
D.  Hispanic
A

A. African-American

Rationale: African-Americans are more likely to visit but leave the emergency department without being seen, compared to whites, and African-Americans wait longer to be seen then other groups. African Americans were 30% more likely than whites to die prematurely from heart disease in 2010 and African-American men are twice as likely as whites to die prematurely from stroke. African Americans, Asians, American Indians/Alaska natives, and Hispanics continue to lag behind whites in the percentage of the population over 50 who received colon cancer screening, and this gap has widened in recent years.

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4
Q
Betty is transferring to a skilled nursing facility. Which rule for extended Medicare benefit applies to clients transferring to a skilled nursing facility?
A.  Observation rule
B.  The three midnight rule
C.  Transition rule
D.  Stop loss rule
A

B. The three midnight rule

Rationale: skilled nursing facility SNF is covered if it follows within 30 days of a hospital stay in which the person was inpatient for three days or more and is deemed medically necessary.

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5
Q
What type of hospice program has no facility except an office?
A.  Inpatient-based program
B.  Inpatient-based hospice team program
C.  Community-based program
D.  Freestanding Hospice
A

C. Community-based program

Rationale: a community-based hospice has no facility, just an office, and care is the focus.

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6
Q

Robert’s client has recently had knee replacement surgery. While in the rehabilitation facility, the client and Robert are increasingly concerned about the care he is receiving. The client has been left in his wheelchair and has only been up to walk once in the last two days. Physical therapy has not been completed as ordered. Robert attempted to speak to the nursing staff and administration, but was told he needed to take it up with the doctors. Robert is meeting with a group of physicians regarding his clients care. Which of the following strategies will serve Robert best in this meeting?
A. Cite the guidelines for rehabilitation after near replacement surgery
B. Threaten legal action of care does not improve
C. Using peer pressure to imply that care is substandard
D. Suggest remedies without being overly directive

A

D. Suggest remedies without being overly directive

Rationale: with an audience of experts such as physicians, the advocate should be careful not to be excessively directive and suggesting solutions for the client. The tone of communication is essential in medical settings were power disparities exist. Citing guidelines can certainly be a part of this, but it needs to be done in a collaborative matter.

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7
Q

Mrs. Brown was just diagnosed with diabetes. Robert is looking for a health coach for her. He knows that a health coach can:
A. Teach Mrs. Brown about diabetes
B. Teach Mrs. Brown how to prevent complications
C. Help Mrs. Brown achieve her goals
D. Help Mrs. Brown understand their insurance plans

A

C. Help Mrs. Brown achieve her goals

Rationale: the purpose of health coaching or wellness coaching is to help clients achieve their goals

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8
Q
Palliative care focuses on:
A.  Pain management
B.  Symptom management
C.  Family
D.  All of these
A

C. Symptom management

Rationale: palliative care is intended for clients who need to improve their quality of life by managing symptoms, including pain management. Palliative care can begin at any time during an illness and is unrelated to the diagnosis or life expectancy. Clients can continue to receive curative treatment. Clients with life-threatening diseases can begin with palliative care to control pain and other symptoms and then made progress to hospice care as the disease progresses.

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9
Q
Beginning in 2020, once a Medicare part D beneficiary has reached $\_\_\_\_\_\_, (includes what the patient and the plan of paid) in drug costs, they are responsible for 25% of the cost of their drugs.
A.  4020
B.  6350
C.  5340
D.  2480
A

A. 4020

Rationale: in 2020, once a patient has reached $4020 (includes what the patient and the plan have paid) in drug costs, they are responsible for 25% of the cost of their drugs. For example, if a drug cost $100 and the patient previously paid a co-pay of $20 during the initial coverage, (up to $4020), the patient will now pay $25, 25% of $100, during the coverage gap after ($4020 has been reached).

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10
Q

People with low annual incomes:
A. Are 10 times more likely to have an adverse chemotherapy event.
B. Rarely experience 80 final difference in cancer survivorship or treatment outcomes based solely on their economic status
C. Are twice as likely to experience recurrence, treatment failure, or death as those with higher annual incomes
D. Or 3 to 7 times more likely to die of cancer than those with high annual incomes

A

D. Are 3 to 7 times more likely to die of cancer than those with high annual incomes.

Rationale: people with low incomes or 3 to 7 times more likely to die of cancer than those with high annual incomes

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11
Q

Mr. Green is on Medicare and has abdominal pain, he sees his PCP on Tuesday at 9 AM, who sent him to urgent care. Urgent care sent him to the emergency room. The emergency room since I’m up to the med/surge floor at noon where he is giving a room and treated just like any other patient on the floor. Mr. Green receives an MRI and has several tests to isolate the cause of his abdominal pain. He has also given IV antibiotics and anti-nausea medication. The next morning, Mr. Green is giving a MOON form. Which of the following is true?
A. The MOON form is a Medicare notice letting Mr. Green know that he has officially been admitted to the hospital
B. Mr. Green will need to pay the 20% copayment for all the tests and medications he received in the hospital and there’s no limit to the out-of-pocket expenses he may have to pay
C. Mr. Green will not have to pay a copayment if he is transferred to an SNF
D. Medicare pays for all of us to Green’s treatment since he has a room on the med/surge floor

A

B. Mr. Green will need to pay the 20% copayment for all the tests and medications he received in the hospital and there is no limit to the out-of-pocket expenses he may have to pay

Rationale: the MOON form is a standardized a notice to inform beneficiaries that they are an outpatient receiving observation services that are not an inpatient of the hospital. What that means is that Medicare treats Mr. Green as if you were still at the clinic, even though he spent the night. That means that Mr. Green needs to pay the 20% copayment for all the tests and medications he received in the hospital and there is no limit to the out-of-pocket expenses he may have to pay.

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12
Q
What does the suffix -desis mean?
A.  Hardening
B.  Binding, fusion
C.  A breaking down
D.  Surgical fixation
A

B. Binding, fusion

Rationale: -desis means binding or fusion, and example is arthrodesis. A surgical fixation is pixie as in urethropexy.

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13
Q
Most medical insurance will not cover:
A.  Intermediate care
B.  Skilled nursing facilities
C.  Hospice
D.  ambulatory care
A

A. Intermediate care

Rationale: well most patients use Medicare or Medicaid for hospice services, some patients he’s private health insurance plans to cover hospice care. Most private insurance plans cover hospice care and other end of life services. These insurance plans typically cover the full cost of hospice services. Most policies pay for care received in home or at an accredited medical facility. Intermediate care is a level of care for patients who require more assistance than custodial care, and may require nursing supervision, but do not have a true skilled need. Most insurance companies do not cover intermediate care.

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14
Q

Susan has been asked to locate an alternative care setting for Mrs. LIS. Along with quantity and quality of care, another important factor for Susan to consider is:
A. Distance to the nearest acute care hospital
B. Cost and Mrs. Lee’s financial resources
B. Policies relating to a multidisciplinary team approach
D. Professionals

A

B. Cost and Mrs. Lee’s financial resources

Rationale: evaluation and assessment of alternative care arrangements requires attention to the needs and goals of Mrs. Lee. In addition to the quantity and quality of the care, two important considerations are cost and Mrs. Lee’s resources, including insurance coverage and benefits.

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15
Q

Mr. White is 74 years old and has fractured his knee. Immediately, following surgery to repair his knee, he had a heart attack. Susan, his patient advocate, knows that a denial or non-certification of services may result if:
A. Mr. White dies
B. The hospitalization is extended because PT is not available on the weekends
C. The hospitalization is extended due to the heart attack
D. There’s a change in policy after the services are rendered

A

B. The hospitalization is extended because PT is not available on the weekends

Rationale: Denial or noncertification may result from an extended hospital position if PT or other services are not available on the weekend. If there is a cost, such as the heart attack, a concurrent authorization may be required to notify the payer of the change in condition. A change in policy after services are rendered would not affect this, as the policy that is in place when services were rendered at the time of the authorization is the policy that informs this. The death of Mr. White would terminate benefits rather than a denial.

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16
Q

Susan is the advocate for Mrs. Lee, and Asian woman. Mrs. Lee has just received a diagnosis of breast cancer. She appears distressed and withdrawn. The most appropriate action for Susan is to:
A. Touch her hand and ask if she needs to talk about the situation
B. Ask her if she would like to discuss any of her concerns or fears
C. Sit and provide a silent presence to show support
D. Sit next to Mrs. Lee, take her hand, and provide silent presence to show support

A

C. Sit and provide a silent presence to show support

Rationale: the Asian culture generally prefers personal space not to be invaded, touched to be reused rarely, and silence as a method of communication.

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17
Q
Dr. Black is a primary care provider. He carries a typical patient load. He strives to adhere to current guidelines. According to Duke University, how many hours a day with Dr. Black need to work?
A.  18.9
B.  10.8
C.  13.2
D.  22.6
A

D. 22.6

Rationale: Duke university researchers estimate, they given the typical patient load and the current guidelines for care, a PCP should be spending 7.4 hours per day on preventive care, 10.6 hours on managing chronic diseases, and 4.6 hours on handling acute illness, totaling 22.6 hours a day. When your clients wonder why appointments are short or there’s a long wait time, this is part of the reason why this is also another contributor to the primary care physician shortage.

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18
Q
What is the third largest health problem in the world and consumes 80% of primary care visits?
A.  Heart disease
B.  Chronic pain
C.  Diabetes
D.  Depression
A

B. Chronic pain

Rationale: chronic pain is the third largest health problem in the world and affects 116 million Americans. Pain related problems account for 80% of primary care office visits.

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19
Q

The type of managed care plan that combines features of HMOs and PPOs and allows a person to see Physicians and care providers within a network and seek outside treatment in some situations is:
A. Exclusive provider organization (EPO)
B. Integrated care organization (ICO)
C. Point of service plan (POS)
D. Preferred provider organization (PPO)

A

C. Point of service plan (POS)

Rationale: the POS is a hybrid the combines features of HMOs and PPOs. This hybrid allows the client to choose a physician that is either in network or out of network. The clients PCP oversees referrals to out of network providers. In contrast to a PPO, when the services are obtained out of network, the beneficiary has a higher deductible, higher coinsurance, and higher copayments to make. To receive services, the beneficiary must first pay the deductible and the co-pay.

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20
Q

Susan’s client has a regular healthcare provider but has recently broken her foot and is unable to drive. She also has congestive heart failure. She recently experienced a 5 pound weight gain in the last three days. Which of the following demonstrates Susan promoting equitable access to appropriate and safe healthcare and treatment?
A. Arranging for transportation to her regular healthcare provider for an appointment today
B. Do nothing, it is reasonable to have a 5 pound weight gain in three days
C. Calling an ambulance to take her to the nearest emergency room
D. Taking her to the nearest urgent care center

A

A. Arranging for transportation to her regular healthcare provider for an appointment today

Rationale: this is the most appropriate action for the given situation in the scenario

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20
Q
Mr. Peters has become incompetent. He has no surviving relatives, no close friends, and no legal surrogate. Which of the following should serve as a surrogate to make medical decisions?
A.  The medical ethics committee
B.  Robert
C.  A hospital social worker
D.  Two Physicians
A

D. Two Physicians

Rationale: in this case in which there is no legal surrogate, family, close friends, or significant other, two physicians can serve as surrogates.

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21
Q

You’ve just been called by your client, Mary, who was in tears. Mary has worked as a clerk at a local department store for 12 years. She has just been laid off by her employer because the other states the cost of healthcare for all 11 employees is too expensive. Mary has metastatic cancer and his fridge cannot afford her own insurance. Your recommendation to her is based on which of the following?
A. Mary qualifies for protection from the American with disabilities act, ADA, and the family medical leave act, FMLA, and should apply for assistance.
B. Mary should sue her employer for discrimination
C. The ADA and FMLA only apply to employers with more than 15 and 50 employees, respectively
D. Mary should apply for long-term disability and Medicaid

A

C. The ADA and FMLA only apply to employers with more than 15 and 50 employees, respectively.

Rationale: because Mary works for a small business owner with you were than 15 employees, she is not protected at the workplace by ADA and the FMLA. The Americans with disabilities act applies to employers with 15 or more workers. The family and medical leave act applies to our government employers (local, state, and federal) and a private businesses with 50 or more workers within 75 miles with some exceptions. She would not wear a suit against her employer given these conditions. She would not qualify for long-term disability since she is no longer employed. She should apply for Medicaid, for which she qualifies.

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22
Q

You are Mr. Green’s advocate. Today marks the third day he has been listed as observation status. Following rounds this morning, the discharge coordinator is now talking about discharging him to an SNF tomorrow. Mr. Green lives alone and has nearest relative is 500 miles away. What is your best course of action?
A. Advocate for admission status right away
B. Explore alternatives such as if home health or home infusion can provide the same services as the SNF safely
C. Have Mr. Green apply for financial assistance with the hospital
D. Do nothing. Since he has met the three midnight rule, Medicare will pay for the SNF

A

B. Explore alternatives such as if home health or home infusion can provide the same services as the SNF safely

Rationale: the hospital is ready to discharge Mr. Green and is unlikely to agree to admission in order to meet the requirements. If Mr. Green had just been placed in the hospital there are some options for advocates.

  • Seek the doctors help to admit the patient as an inpatient
  • Remind the hospital of Medicare’s to midnight rule. If the doctor expects the patient to require hospital care for at least you’ve been nice to the hospital should be able to admit the patient as an inpatient
  • Consider other post hospital sources of care inpatient rehabilitation hospital (also known as inpatient rehabilitation facility), home health, outpatient therapy - that do not require a three day inpatient stay
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23
Q

Roberts client, Mr. Green, has just been diagnosed with adenocarcinoma. He has selected an oncologist that Robert knows has a reputation of having a poor track record with this type of cancer and has had multiple malpractice lawsuits. Which ethical standards would best guide Roberts choice of action?
A. Avoidance of discriminatory practices, avoidance of impropriety and conflict of interest, and transparency and honest disclosure
B. Advocate role, fostering autonomy, protecting confidentiality and privacy, and continuing education and professional development
C. Continuing education and professional development, advocate role, avoidance of impropriety and conflict of interest, and provision of competent services
D. Advocate role, transparency and honest disclosure, provision of competent services, and fostering autonomy

A

D. Advocate role, transparency and honest disclosure, provision of competent services, and fostering autonomy

Rationale: the advocate role speaks to Robert’s role as a facilitator and guide which provides clients with information to make informed choices. Transparency and honesty disclosure speaks to the mandate for Robert to maintain integrity in the conduct of his practice. Provision of competent Services requires that Robert refrain from offering opinions about the skills or aptitude of other healthcare professionals. Fostering autonomy requires that Robert respect Mr. Green’s ability to choose, provided that Mr. Green has complete and accurate information.

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24
Q
As part of patients rights, basic rules of conduct between patients and medical caregivers includes:
A.  Quality and safety
B.  Caring practice
C.  Privacy and confidentiality
D.  The code of ethics
A

C. Privacy and confidentiality

Rationale: patient rights are those basic rules of conduct between patients and medical caregivers as well as the institutions and people that support them which are the following: informed consent, right to treatment, privacy and confidentiality, medical experimentation, advanced directives, and right to die.

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25
Q
In 2020, once a Medicare part D beneficiary has reached $6350 in out-of-pocket drug expenses, they are moved in what kind of coverage?
A.  Pharmacy assistance program
B.  Donut hole coverage
C.  Extra help program
D.  Catastrophic coverage
A

D. Catastrophic coverage

Rationale: between $4020 and $6350, patients pay the 25% co-pay once a person reaches $6350 in out-of-pocket drug expenses, they are moved in a catastrophic coverage. Catastrophic coverage will lower co-pays and coinsurance for the remainder of the year. The person in catastrophic coverage will pay 5% of the cost of the drug or $3.60 for generics and $8.95 for brand-name drugs

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26
Q

The patient self-determination act (PSDA) of 1990 requires that all healthcare institutions which receive funding from Medicare or Medicaid to do which of the following?
A. Ensure healthcare to all patients regardless of ability to pay
B. Provide all patients with a written information about advance directives
C. Provide all patients with written information regarding financial obligations
D. Vital patients with written information regarding informed consent

A

B. Provide all patients with a written information about advance directives

Rationale: PSDA requires all healthcare institutions receiving Medicare or Medicaid reimbursement to ask patients that they admit if they have an advance directive. If the patient does not, the institution is required to provide written information about advance directives.

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27
Q

People with low annual incomes:
A. Are 10 times more likely to have an adverse chemo therapy event
B. Are twice as likely to experience recurrence, treatment failure, or death as those with higher annual incomes
C. Are 3 to 7 times more likely to die of cancer than those with high annual incomes
D. Rarely experience a definable difference in cancer survivorship or treatment outcomes based solely on their economic status

A

C. Are 3 to 7 times more likely to die of cancer than those with high annual incomes

Rationale: people with low incomes are 3 to 7 times more likely to die of cancer than those with high annual incomes

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28
Q

With Medicare, the benefit period ends:
A. 30 days after discharge from an inpatient facility
B. 60 days after discharge from an inpatient facility
C. At the time of discharge from an inpatient facility
D. 150 days after discharge from an inpatient facility

A

B. 60 days after discharge from an inpatient facility

Rationale: the benefit. Begins when the person is first admitted to the hospital and ends when the person has been out of the hospital or skilled nursing facility for 60 consecutive days.

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29
Q
What is the percentage of medication errors after leaving the hospital for patients over 65?
A.  55%
B.  70%
C.  30%
D.  40%
A

D. 40%

Rationale: studies have shown that as many as 40% of patients over 65 had medication errors after leaving the hospital, and 18% of Medicare patients discharged from the hospital or readmitted within 30 days.

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30
Q

Robert’s client, Mr. Fredericks, has an extremely rare disorder and is having a hard time finding a position familiar with the disorder. What would be the first step for Robert to take in helping Mr. Fredericks?
A. Determine what Mr. Fredericks insurance will pay for
B. Refer Mr. Fredericks to another advocate familiar with the disorder
C. Research local physicians to determine who is familiar with Mr. Fredericks disorder
D. Determine Mr. Fredericks preferences and goals in a patient/physician relationship

A

D. Determine Mr. Fredericks preferences and goals in a patient/physician relationship

Rationale: advocates honor their client’s personal values concerning care and the right to be involved in all decisions that affect their care. Advocates ensure that a client’s wishes, if known, are the guiding force behind decisions affecting medical care received or medical care that is withheld.

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31
Q
The primary purpose of pharmacy benefit management is to:
A.  Increase the use of generic drugs
B.  Reduce costs of drugs
C.  Provide a drug formulary for clients
D.  Promote drug safety
A

B. Reduce costs of drugs

Rationale: PBM’s and insurance plans try to keep their costs low by steering patient’s to generics and other cheaper drugs

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32
Q
Before receiving benefits, the person with a preferred provider organization, PPO, insurance plan may have to pay:
A.  The deductible and a copayment
B.  The deductible
C.  A copayment
D.  The premium only
A

A. The deductible and the copayment

Rationale: in a PPO, in order to receive services, the beneficiary must first pay the deductible and a co-pay.

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33
Q
A decision by a patient about a diagnostic or therapeutic procedure based on choice, which requires the decision to be voluntary by the person who has the capacity to understand information and make decisions on a set of values and goals is the definition of:
A.  Ethical standard
B.  Empowerment
C.  Informed consent
D.  Shared Decision support
A

D. Shared decision support

Rationale: informed decision making, also known as share decision support - a decision by a patient about a diagnostic or therapeutic procedure based on choice, which requires a decision to be voluntary by the person who has the capacity to understand information and make decisions on a set of values and goals.

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34
Q

John running wolf is a Native American and member of the Shoshone-Bannock tribe. John was traveling when he became very ill. He was hospitalized for four days and released. He receives a bill for $56,983.32. Which of the following is true in this situation?
A. He will need to petition I HS for reimbursement after he pays the bill
B. Medicaid will pay for this
C. Native Americans receive free healthcare
D. IHS will cover his expenses

A

A. He will need to petition I HS for reimbursement after he pays the bill

35
Q
Which reimbursement method gives providers a blank check?
A.  Cost based reimbursement
B.  Fee-for-service
C.  Charge based
D.  Perspective payment
A

A. Cost based reimbursement

36
Q
Which of these is eligibility criteria for the SCHIP program?
A.  Person over the age of 65
B.  Low income
C.  Outpatient coverage only
D.  Having supplemental insurance
A

B. Low income

Rationale: to be eligible for state children’s health insurance program, federal income guidelines must be met.

37
Q
What is the percentage of people with medical debt who have to reduce spending on food, clothing and basic household items?
A.  About 55%
B.  About 70%
C.  About 80%
D.  About 65%
A

B. About 70%

38
Q

One of the primary goals of care coordination is a high-quality referral or transitions. A referral occurs when a patient requires additional, specialized care by a medical consultant or community agency, and a transition is when a patient’s overall care is being transferred between institutions, such as from the hospital back to primary care. What constitutes high-quality?
A. Patients receive needed transitions and consultative services without unnecessary delays
B. Referrals and transitions are limited to those that are likely to benefit patients, and avoid unnecessary duplication of services
C. I’ll patient referrals and transitions should meet the six Institute of medicine and (IOM) aims of high-quality healthcare
D. Referrals and transitions are planted manage to prevent harm to patients from Medical or administrative errors

A

C. I’ll patient referrals and transitions should make the six Institute of medicine and (IOM) aims of high-quality healthcare

39
Q

Which patient Bill of Rights for bids the transfer of patients when they refuse certain kinds or levels of care?
A. National Institute of health patient bill of rights
B. Affordable care act patient protections
C. Hospice Association of America patient Bill of Rights
D. American hospital association patient Bill of Rights

A

D. American hospital association patient Bill of Rights

40
Q
What is the percentage of medical bills reported to collections that are the result of billing or administrate of errors?
A.  10%
B.  20%
C.  5%
D.  30%
A

B. 20%

National: an estimated 20% of all medical bills that are reported to collection or the result of a billing or other administrative error, affecting the credit of about 7 million Americans.

41
Q
Which of the following is not one of the main types of compensation for healthcare services?
A.  Pay for performance
B.  Fee-for-service
C.  Capitation
D.  Episode of care
A

A. Pay for performance

Rationale: there are three main types of compensation for healthcare services these are fee for service, capitation and episode of care.

42
Q
Under the health insurance portability and accountability act HIPAA regulations, clients request copies of imaging results must receive them within:
A.  48 hours
B.  24 hours
C.  14 days
D.  30 days
A

A. 48 hours

43
Q

Bettys legal surrogate and healthcare durable power of attorney have requested Susan to release all of her records that she has for Betty. Susan has received a signed and dated authorization. Susan should:
A. Release the records in 60 days
B. Not release the records since she is not a provider or health plan
C. Release the records within 90 days
D. Release the records within 30 days

A

D. Release the records within 30 days

44
Q
And insurance plan that supplement service is not covered by Medicare is known as:
A.  Medicaid
B.  Medigap
C.  TRICARE
D.  SSDI
A

B. Medigap

45
Q
Jones family still owes $105 to the hospital where their son was born. How many points can this drop their credit score?
A.  40 to 60 points
B.  100 to 150 points
C.  60 to 80 points
D.  20 to 40 points
A

B. 100 to 150 points

46
Q
What is the fifth leading cause of death in the United States?
A.  Diabetes
B.  Stroke
C.  Cancer
D.  Medical errors
A

D. Medical errors

47
Q

Which of the following has been shown to result in better health outcomes?
A. The use of an integrated health system
B. The use of alternative medicine
C. The use of primary care
D. Do use of specialty care

A

A. The use of primary care

48
Q
Eddie is covered by Medicare a. If he is admitted to rehabilitation hospital is ation, admission functional independence measure FIM assessment must be obtained during the first:
A.  72 hours
B.  48 hours
C.  Five days
D.  24 hours
A

A. 72 hours

49
Q
The division of the federal government that enforces privacy standards is:
A.  HIPAA
B.  OSHA
C.  OCR
D.  OIG
A

C. OCR

Rationale: office of civil rights OCR is the federal government division that enforces the privacy standards

50
Q
Which of the following is not one of the main types of compensation for healthcare services?
A.  Fee-for-service
B.  Pay for performance
C.  Capitation
D.  Episode of care
A

B. Pay for performance

Rationale: there are three main types of compensation for healthcare services. These are fee-for-service, capitation and episode of care.

51
Q
Under the health insurance portability and accountability act HIPAA regulations, client to request copies of imaging results must receive them within:
A.  24 hours
B.  48 hours
C.  14 days
D.  30 days
A

D. 30 days

Rationale: under HIP AAA regulations, client who request copies of imaging results and other records must generally receive them within 30 days. The request may have to be submitted in writing, and the client may have to pay for any cost such as CDs, copying, and mailing.

52
Q
And insurance plan that supplements services not covered by Medicare is known as:
A.  Medigap
B.  SSDI
C.  Medicaid
D.  TRICARE
A

A. Medigap

Rationale: Medigap plans are insurance plans that supplement services not covered by Medicare.

53
Q
What is the fifth leading cause of death in the United States?
A.  Diabetes
B.  Cancer
C.  Stroke
D.  Medical errors
A

C. Stroke

Rationale: stroke is the fifth leading cause of death.

54
Q

Susan’s contract with Jane includes her fee schedule, resume and references, and the terms of engagement, including criteria for appropriate termination of the relationship. What else does Susan need to include?
A. Details of how Jane information will be stored
B. Insurance policies
C. Clear definition of the scope of practice
D. Nursing license information

A

C. Clear definition of the scope of practice

Rationale: independent advocate who provide service free fee have an obligation to disclose their fees, training, education, experience, and credentials. Independent advocate must provide their clients and guarantors with service agreements or contracts that plainly to find the scope of practice, fee schedule, and terms. They must provide their curriculum vitae or resume and references upon request. Additionally, they must disclose any existing contractual relationships with manufacturers, distributors of products, or providers of services they used to assist clients. The contract was also outlined the projected length and scope of the relationship, as well as criteria for termination of the agreement.

55
Q

Susan’s client Mr. Goldblum lives in California. During a recent hospital stay, his picture was taken, and a social media post was made about his illness on Instagram. The hospital is penalized for this transgression, why is this?
A. American Association of retired persons, AARP, guaranteed protection
B. Hospital policy guaranteed protection
C. His insurance company guaranteed protection
D. Some state laws offer additional protection

A

D. Some state laws offer additional protection

Rationale: HIPAA standards represent a uniform, federal floor privacy protections for consumers across the country. State laws provide additional protections to consumers. California has an acted legislation that penalize hospitals and healthcare organizations that fail to protect patient information.

56
Q

Which group is at greater risk of experiencing one of the seven problems of healthcare?
A. White men aged 30 to 55
B. Teachers in an inner-city neighborhood
C. Hispanic college graduates
D. African-American women

A

D. African-American women

Rationale: everyone is at risk; however, the population in D is included in to vulnerable populations, women and African-Americans.

57
Q
An adult who is appointed to make medical decisions for another person when the person is unable to make decisions for themselves is a(n):
A.  Ombudsman 
B.  Delegate
C.  Legal surrogate
D.  Patient advocate
A

C. Legal surrogate

Rationale: a surrogate is an adult who is appointed to make healthcare decisions for a person when the person is unable to make decisions for themselves.

58
Q

Which of the following is true of healthcare coverage in an equitable access environment?
A. There is no difference between those who have coverage in those who don’t and outcomes
B. Uninsured or more likely to receive medical care
C. It is what allows entry into the healthcare system
D. All Americans have healthcare coverage

A

C. It is what allows entry into the healthcare system

Rationale: coverage is a persons ticket into the healthcare system

59
Q

What does access to healthcare mean?
A. Ensuring that all clients have a primary care provider
B. Timely use of personal health services to achieve the best health outcomes
C. How clients access resources
D. Making sure clinic hours reflect bankers hours

A

B. The timely use of personal health services to achieve the best health outcomes

Rationale: access to healthcare means having the time of use of personal health services to achieve the best health outcomes. Access to healthcare consists of four components.

60
Q
Legally executed documents that detail in individuals healthcare related wishes and decisions for end of life are called:
A.  Durable power of attorney
B.  Advance directives
C.  Do not resuscitate, DNR, orders
D.  Living will
A

B. Advance directives

National: advance directives are legally executed documents that detailing individuals healthcare related wishes and decisions for end of life care.

61
Q
This enables a person to appoint an agent, such as a trusted relative, friend, or attorney to handle specific health, legal, and financial responsibilities:
A.  Advance directives
B.  Durable power of attorney
C.  Do not resuscitate, DNR, orders
D.  Living will
A

B. Durable power of attorney

Rationale: a durable power of attorney, POA, enables a person to appoint an agent, such as a trusted relative, friend, or attorney to handle specific health, legal, and financial responsibilities.

62
Q

What are the four ethical principles of the Beauchamp and Childress?
A. Nonmaleficence, confidentiality, veracity, and justice
B. Autonomy, beneficence, nonmaleficence, and justice
C. Veracity, justice, beneficence and autonomy
D. Veracity, truth telling, beneficence, and confidentiality

A

B. Autonomy, beneficence, nonmaleficence, and justice

Rationale: known as the big four, they are autonomy, beneficence, nonmaleficence, and justice.

63
Q

What are four components of access?
A. Coverage, mental health services, vision, and dental
B. Timeliness, coverage, telemedicine, and virtual visits
C. Workforce, coverage, timeliness, and service
D. Service, workforce, timeliness, and urgent care service

A

C. Workforce, coverage, timeliness, and service

Rationale: the four components of access are covered, service, timeliness, and workforce

64
Q
What are the four C’s of culture?
A.  Call, care, culture, concerns
B.  Cause, culture, concern, cope
C.  Call, cause, cope, concerns
D.  Case, care, call, cope
A

C. Call, cause, cope, concerns

Rationale: the forces of culture or call, causes, cope, and concerns

65
Q

What are the four tenants of advocates?
A. Help clients access resources, access preventive services, encourage conflict resolution, promote cultural awareness
B. Promote access, alleviate pain, provide advance directives, and sure laws and regulations are adhered to
C. Alleviate conflict, promote well-being, promote independence, and support decision makers
D. Alleviate suffering, promote health, promote safe care, encourage well-being whenever and wherever possible

A

D. Alleviate suffering, promote health, promote safe care, encourage well-being whenever and wherever possible

Rationale: these are the four main tenants of board-certified patient advocates

66
Q
Which of the following groups is more likely to experience harm from a medical error?
A.  Russians
B.  African Americans
C.  Limited English speaking persons
D.  Buddhist
A

C. Limited English speaking persons

Rationale: limited English speaking people are less likely to have a usual source of care, utilize fewer preventive services, or more likely to experience harm from an adverse event, and tend to be less satisfied.

67
Q

MOON

A

Medicare outpatient observation notice. Must be given to a patient within 36 hours if the patient is receiving observation services as an outpatient for 24 hours. Hospitals must also orally explain observation status and its financial consequences for patients. Medicare treats them as an outpatient. Which means that if the person has Medicare part B, they are subject to the co-pays as if they were in an outpatient setting, if they do not have part B, the person is responsible to pay the entire bill. There is no limit on out of pocket expenses. An SNF will not be covered by Medicare, since the patient was in observation status and not admitted. The patient would have to be admitted to be covered.

68
Q

Administrative service workers include:

A

CEO, vice president, department heads, who run the hospital on a day today basis. They execute hospital policy, manage finances and budgetary planning, and handle marketing and public relations.

69
Q

Therapeutic services:

A

The staff to provide the care normally associated with hospitals, such as physician visits, drugs, surgery, physical therapy, social work, psychiatry, etc. These are the services that directly make the patient feel better.

70
Q

Diagnostic services:

A

Comprised of workers who administer the laboratory testing, imaging facilities that help those in therapeutic services to figure out what care is needed.

71
Q

Informational services:

A

Document and process information, such as medical records, billing, admissions, human resources, computer systems, and health education. Some of this may be performed by employees in dedicated roles such as medical billers, and some by other staff, for example, Nurse is performing registration.

72
Q

Support services:

A

Workers that maintain the hospital as a functioning facility. Areas of operation include food services, supply management, maintaining bio technology equipment, and housekeeping. Each hospital has a number of committees, many of which are headed by the medical staff that make decisions regarding hospital management, regulation, and the care delivered in that institution. A few of these committees include pharmacy and therapeutics, infection control, and quality improvement.

73
Q

Three main types of compensation for healthcare services:

A

Fee for service, capitation, episode of care

74
Q
When Nicole took John to the ER after an accident, there were several safety violations including failure to transport and a medication error. Which agency can Nicole file a complaint with?
A.  Joint commission
B.  medicare.gov
C.  Attorney general
D.  hhs.gov
A

A. Joint commission

Rationale: the joint commission link can be used to report poor medical care, safety concerns, and hospital acquired infections.

75
Q
Which of the following has experienced rapid growth in the last 20 years and are an increasing area of concern for Medicare spending?
A.  Network hospitals
B.  Specialty hospitals
C.  Post acute care
D.  Emergent care
A

C. Post acute care

Rationale: there are thousands of facilities that also provide inpatient care. This facility is known as post acute care have experience rapid growth in the past 20 years and are increasing area of concern for Medicare spending and quality improvement.

76
Q
Susan was able to enroll Betty in a program and helps her remain in her home. Program provides a nurse, occupational therapist and a handyman who can put up handrails in her home. This program is called:
A.  CAPABLE
B.  GRACE
C.  Guide
D.  PACE
A

A. CAPABLE

Rationale: community aging in place – Advancing Better Living for Elders (CAPABLE) helps older adults remain at home. Based on financial need, this program helps people who have a hard time completing daily tasks, like taking a bath or cooking a meal. The CAPABLE care team includes a nurse, occupational therapist, and Handyman. These helpers visit the home and take care of individual needs. The CAPABLE team works closely with the client to identify goals. CAPABLE is currently available in 9 states.

77
Q

All of the following have created dramatic changes in healthcare costs except:
A. Increase in family coverage plans
B. 1.9 million new beneficiaries added to Medicare advantage
C. Decreased worker/employer share
D. Increase in overall insurance costs

A

A. Increase in family coverage plans

78
Q
What does the root brachi/o describe?
A.  Foot
B.  Arm
C.  The color blue
D.  Vein
A

B. Arm

Rationale: brachi/o means arm, and example is brachialgia.

79
Q
A model of care that focuses on the health and overall wellness of a broader population is:
A.  Integrated care model
B.  Chronic care model
C.  Community health
D.  Population health
A

D. Population health

Rationale: the population health approach describes a shift in our healthcare system from a narrow model of acute care targeted at the individual patient, to one that focuses on the health and overall wellness of a broader population it serves.

80
Q
Which type of cancer is the most common call, begins in the skin or tissue that covers the surface of organs and glands and is usually solid?
A.  Lymphoma
B.  Sarcoma
C.  Leukemia 
D.  Carcinoma
A

D. Carcinoma

Rationale: a carcinoma begins in the skin or the tissue that covers the surface of internal organs and glands. Carcinomas usually form solid tumors. They are the most common type of cancer. Examples of carcinomas include prostate cancer, breast cancer, lung cancer, and colorectal cancer.

81
Q
Mr. Green’s doctor has ordered a spirometry test. Robert explained to Mr. Green that spirometry test measures:
A.  Resting heart rate
B.  Lung capacity
C.  Lung function and detect COPD
D.  Size of lung tumor
A

C. Lung function and detect COPD

Rationale: a simple test, called spirometry, can be used to measure pulmonary - or long - function and detect COPD and anyone with breathing problems.

82
Q
Dr. Stanton has diagnosed several patients with gastrointestinal reflux recently. When Mr. small comes into see him with chest pain, he diagnosed gastrointestinal reflux and sent him home. Mr. small died later that night due to a myocardial infarction. What did Dr. Stanton rely on to make his diagnosis?
A.  Blind obedience
B.  Framing effects
C.  Anchoring heuristic or bias
D.  Availability heuristic or bias
A

D. Availability heuristic or bias

Rationale: availability heuristic or bias is the diagnosis of current patient biased by experience with past cases.

83
Q
Therapy that helps a person with a disability keep, learn, or improve skills and functioning for daily living is called:
A.  Habilitation
B.  Social services
C.  Physical therapy
D.  Occupational therapy
A

A. Habilitation

Rationale: habilitation - healthcare services that help an individual with a disability keep, learn, or improve skills and functioning for daily living.

84
Q
Roberts client has recently lost his job, is facing losing insurance and is due to start a new treatment for multiple sclerosis. Robert Nese’s client community services for rent and utility assistance, helps him fill out applications for free or reduced prescriptions and find a support group for him. What kind of care is Robert providing?
A.  Holistic care
B.  Advocacy care
C.  Fragmented care
D.  Cultural care
A

A. Holistic care

Rationale: holistic care involves treating the whole person: mind, body, and spirit. Advocates play in a central role by using a client centered approach to address the multiple means of their clients. Advocates can help consumers obtain mental health services while also identifying family, economic, and social factors that contribute to their health problems.