BCPA STUDY TEST QUESTIONS Flashcards

1
Q

Susan’s client wants to use coral calcium to treat her breast cancer. What is Susan’s best course of action?
A. Do not provide further information and respect her clients choice
B. Elicit help from her clients oncologist to convince her client continue chemotherapy
C. Make sure that her client has received accurate information about treatment choices and respect the client’s decision
D. Work to convince her that coral calcium is not a recommended treatment for cancer

A

D. Make sure that her client has received accurate information about treatment choices and respect the client’s decision.

Rationale: by providing complete and accurate information, advocates work to ensure the clients are cognizant of and understand all care and treatment options, including the potential risks and benefits, and available alternatives. Advocates ensure that a client’s wishes, if known, are the guiding force behind decisions affecting medical care received and medical care that is withheld.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Susan’s client Betty is interested in trying acupuncture for her arthritis pain. She needs a referral from her primary care provider to ensure that her insurance will pay for it. Her provider is reluctant to provide a referral for this. What can Susan do?
A. Nothing, as it is the providers decision
B. Recommend the Betty pay for it out of pocket
C. Inform the provider of research that shows the effective treatment of arthritis with acupuncture
D. Convince Betty that it is not that effective anyway

A

C. Inform the provider of research that shows the effective treatment of arthritis with acupuncture.

Rationale: advocates contribute to the professional development of colleagues by sharing information and resources for the benefit of the profession and the public.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
Despite Jane’s insistence, Susan steadfastly declines to offer her nursing opinion on which treatment plan Jane should choose. Instead, she ensures Jane of the information she needs and encourages her to make the decision. What advocacy guiding principle is Susan demonstrating?
A.  Competent services
B.  Honesty
C.  Fostering autonomy
D.  Transparency
A

C. Fostering autonomy

Rationale: advocates foster autonomy by encouraging their clients right to exercise autonomous decision making and meaningful informed consent. By providing complete and accurate information, advocates work to ensure the clients are cognizant of and understand all care and treatment options, including the potential risks and benefits, and I’ll available alternatives. Susan delivers competent services through fostering autonomy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When Susan accompanied Jane to her PCP appointment, she recognize the physician is someone she went to high school with. What should Jane do?
A. Nothing this is not a conflict of interest
B. Politely ask to be excused on the exam room
C. Decline the case as this is a conflict of interest
D. Referred Jane to another advocate

A

A. Nothing. This is not a conflict of interest.

Rationale: the patient advocate board to find a conflict of interest as a situation with the potential to undermine the impartiality of a person because of the possibility of a clash between the persons self interest and professional interest or public interest.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Susan’s contract with Jane includes her fee schedule, resume and references, and the terms of engagement, including criteria for appropriate termination of the relationship. What else does Susan need to include?
A. Details of how genes information will be stored
B. Insurance policies
C. Clear definition of the advocate’s scope of practice
D. Nursing license information

A

C. Clear definition of the advocate scope of practice.

Rationale: independent advocate to provide a service for a fee have an obligation to disclose their fees, training, education, experience, and credentials. Independent advocates must provide their clients and guarantors with service agreements or contracts that plainly to find the scope of practice, fee schedule, and terms. They must provide the curriculum vitae or resume and references upon request. Additionally, they must disclose any existing contractual relationships with manufacturers, distributors of products, or providers of services they used to assist clients. The contract must also outlined the projected length and scope of the relationship, as well as criteria for termination of the agreement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Susan is visiting Betty in the hospital. Betty is asleep when her nurse comes into the room to administer medication. The nurse asked Susan if she will give Betty her medication when she wakes up, since Susan is a nurse. What is the best response for Susan?
A. Sorry, I cannot, that is outside of my scope of practice in my role as a board-certified patient advocate. I am sure she won’t mind if you wake her up, so that her medication is given on time.
B. Sure. No problem. I am happy to help.
C. No, I cannot do your job for you.
D. No, I cannot, but I can let you know when she wakes up.

A

A. Sorry, I cannot, that is outside of my scope of practice in my role as a board-certified patient advocate. I am sure she won’t mind if you wake her up, so that her medication is given on time.

Rationale: board-certified patient advocates who are licensed medical professionals cannot provide clinical opinion or perform medical care of any kind. This role is maintained at all times that the title board-certified patient advocate is used regardless of the relationship status with the client.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The guarantor for Betty requests that Susan sent him the last physician notes. What should Susan do?
A. Send them as soon as possible.
B. Ask Betty if that is something she would like Susan to do.
C. Demand a written request.
D. Refuse to send them since this is protected information.

A

B. Ask Betty if that is something she would like Susan to do.

Rationale: advocate will respect the client’s decisions concerning what health information is disclosed to others, including the guarantor, in circumstances where the guarantor is not the client.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Susan is an independent advocate. She has been contacted about advocating for Jane. Jane asked Susan to find her the best treatment for breast cancer. What is Susan’s best response?
A. I am happy to conduct research and assist you in understanding the options available to you.
B. Oh, I know just the place. Many of my clients have had great success there.
C. I will work with your doctor to find the best treatment for you.
D. I can help you find a place, but I cannot make any recommendations.

A

A. I am happy to conduct research and assist you in understanding the options available to you.

Rationale: Board certified patient advocates who are licensed medical professionals cannot provide clinical opinions or perform medical care of any kind. Instead, they can do research and assist the patient/family and understanding their conditions and the options available to meet their needs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Susan learns of high rates of stage for breast cancer diagnosis occurring at a nearby American Indian reservation. Which of the following actions is most effective and demonstrating Susan’s commitment to support the rights of disenfranchised people and communities?
A. Raise awareness of hospice services.
B. Distribute flyers about breast self exam on the reservation.
C. Organize a woman’s health fair with travel leaders and ensure a mobile mammogram is available on site.
D. Petition Indian health services to increase the number of mammograms.

A

C. Organize a women’s health fair with tribal leaders and I’m sure he mobile mammogram is available on site.

Rationale: Advocates treat all clients with respect and compassion. They respect all patients rights through promoting the recognition of existing statutory rights and supporting the rights of disenfranchised people and communities to receive fair and equal treatment. This option provides the best chance to identify any breast cancer early and save lives.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Chain off and insist that she buy lunch for Susan after their visits. James has also begun referring her friends and coworkers to Susan. Jane has even posted an ad for Susan’s services in her newsletter at her own expense. Lately, Gina’s been calling Susan on her personal phone, and yesterday she invited Susan to go shopping with her. What should Susan do?
A. Thank you for the referrals and enjoy your day of shopping.
B. Remind Jane of the scope of the relationship and establish boundaries.
C. Thank change for the personal interest, but declined the shopping trip.
D. Nothing, unless Jane spends over $75.

A

B. Remind Jane of the scope of the relationship and establish boundaries.

Rationale: advocates are cognizant of situations in which a conflict of interest may arise. The conflict of interest occurs when there is a substantial risk that the advocates services will be materially limited by the advocates personal or professional interests. If Susan is not able to establish boundaries with Jane, she will need to terminate the relationship.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Susan’s client Mr. White is hospitalized with a new illness. He requires a procedure to prolong his life. He is awake, alert, I had previously created an advance directive, in which she requested that all measures be performed. Mr. White affirms his previous wishes and gives consent for the procedure. However, Dr. Strong tries to convince Mr. White that he should be a DNR and not accept the procedure because he will die anyway. What is the best course of action for Susan to take?
A. Agree with Dr. Strong.
B. Say nothing, but call the hospital supervisor and complain.
C. Demand that Dr. strong leave the room.
D. Privately remind Dr. strong of your role and politely ask her to remove herself from Mr. White’s care.

A

D. Privately remind Dr. strong of your role and politely ask her to remove herself from Mr. White’s care.

Rationale: advocates ensure that a client wishes if known, or the guiding force behind decisions affecting medical care received and medical care that is withheld. As the advocate, you need to stand up for your clients decisions in an environment in which there are power differentials, and providers are reluctant to abide by a persons previous decision.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
Susan is a professional whose role is informational and not medical. She is committed to helping clients make informed choices, and even though she is a registered nurse, she does not provide any clinical opinions. Susan is a:
A.  Research assistant
B.  Board certified patient advocate
C.  Home health aide
D.  Case manager
A

B. Board certified patient advocate

Rationale: advocates act as a facilitator and a guide, providing their clients with information to enable to client and client communities to make informed decisions. They may help the client access resources and determine specific treatment choices. It is important to note that the advocate does not make recommendations for clients, nor make decisions on behalf of the client.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Susan’s client, Emily, is moving several thousands of miles away to another state. She has asked Susan for a referral to another patient advocate. Susan’s network of referrals does not reach the state. How should Susan proceed?
A. Post a question in the BCPA community on Facebook.
B. Ask other advocates if they can recommend someone.
C. Look on the PACB board website and pick a BCPA near Emily’s new address.
D. After finding a list of likely be BCPA’s from the PACB, research each one, then interview each one to see which ones would be the best qualified to help Emily.

A

D. After finding a list of likely BCPA’s from the PACB, research each one, then interview each one to see which ones would be the best qualified to help Emily.

Rationale: remember, Susan is responsible for who she refers to, so she will want to make sure that person is qualified. While all of these would work, researching the choices and interviewing them, would be the best option. If a client requires assistance that is outside of the advocates expertise, the advocate is obligated to refer the client to the appropriate system or resource for support. The board-certified patient advocate must have an adequate referral system in place to assist those clients who need services the Avenue a kit is not qualified to provide. Additionally, the referring Advocate’s needs To ensure that the person he/she refers to the client is qualified to help the client.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Susan accompanies Betty to her physician appointment and notices that an Asian patient is ignored while everyone else is greeted in a friendly manner. She observes that when the patient request to make an appointment through an interpreter, he is told that none are available and a provider is not taking new patients. But the person who is Caucasian and a new patient is able to make an appointment. What should Susan do?
A. Nothing, as the Asian person should’ve gotten in sooner.
B. Ignore the situation since it’s not her client and she does not know all the facts.
C. Talk about it with her colleagues.
D. Speak to the practice manager and express her concerns.

A

D. Speak to the practice manager and express her concerns.

Rationale: advocates respect all patients rights through promoting the recognition of existing statutory rights and supporting the rights of disenfranchised people and communities to receive fair and equal treatment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of the following is a violation of Jane’s right to privacy?
A. Jane asked Susan to let her boss know her medical condition.
B. Susan keeps Jane’s medical records secured at all times.
C. Susan tells Jane’s sister about Jane’s treatment plan when her sister asks.
D. Susan lets Jane know she will keep her records for five years following termination of their agreement.

A

C. Susan tells Jane’s sister about Jane’s treatment plan when our sister asks.

Rationale: advocate will respect the clients decisions concerning what health information is disclosed to others (family, friends, etc.), including the guarantor, in circumstances where the guarantor is not the client.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
A \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_acts as a facilitator and provides information rather than medical services.
A.  Receptionist
B.  Volunteer
C.  Social worker
D.  Patient advocate
A

D. Patient advocate

Rationale: this is the role of the patient advocate. Advocates act as a facilitator and a guide, providing their clients with information to enable to client and client communities to make an informed choice to access resources and determine specific treatment choices.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Fee for service advocates must:
A. Disclose fees, training, education, experience and credentials.
B. Provide clients with copies of existing contracts with other clients.
C. Provide medical services.
D. Refrain from communicating with people who are significant to the client.

A

A. Disclose fees, training, education, experience and credentials.

Rationale: advocates providing fee-for-service assistance are obligated to present their clients and guarantors with service agreements that clearly defined their scope of practice, fee schedule, and terms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Susan is advocating for a patient who has suddenly become unresponsive before he has made a decision regarding his treatment options. Susan should:
A. Avoid making any decision for her or on behalf of her client.
B. Make the decision for him, because it is what he would’ve wanted.
C. Inform his designated representative what she thinks his decision would be.
D. Make the decision for him, because it is the best choice.

A

A. Avoid making any decision for or on behalf of the client.

Rationale: fourth certified patient advocates never make decisions on behalf of patients. In this case, the legal surrogate would become the decision-maker. If Susan was aware of the client’s choices, she could then convey them to the decision maker. However, in this case as it does not know what decision the client would choose.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
Farrah Fawcett had a dispute with UCLA medical center in regards to:
A.  Her privacy.
B.  The way her treatment was delivered.
C.  Lack of adequate parking.
D.  The timing of her appointments.
A

A. Her privacy.

Rationale: this case illustrates that no matter who your client is, they have a right to privacy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

And is having a hard time choosing among several treatment options for her breast cancer. She asks Susan, “if you were me, what would you do?” Susan’s best response is:
A. I have seen clients do well on all of these.
B. I can see that this decision is difficult. Would you like to know more about the different treatment options?
C. The decision is completely up to you.
D. I would choose the treatment with the best outcomes.

A

B. I can see that this decision is difficult. Would you like to know more about the different treatment options?

Rationale: board-certified patient advocates are dedicated to promoting their clients right to exercise autonomous decision making and meaningful informed consent. They strive to ensure that their clients are fully aware of and understand all care and treatment options, including potential risks, benefits, and available alternatives (Western, traditional, alternative, complementary, integrity of, or others). Advocates will attempt to provide clients with complete information to facilitate informed decision making.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
Fostering autonomy is:
A.  Only used for people in vulnerable populations
B.  A common pitfall
C.  Not necessary to be a good advocate
D.  An ethical standard
A

D. An ethical standard

Rationale: fostering autonomy is the third ethical standard.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Robert asks his client to tell him what his goal is for their interaction. The client responds, “I need something to help me sleep. The doctor won’t give me anything.” What is Roberts best response?
A. Of course. I will call him right away.
B. I know some great home remedies to help with sleep.
C. Have you tried exercise? Exercise really helps me get a good nights sleep.
D. Can you tell me more about that?

A

D. Can you tell me more about that?

Rationale: Robert needs to clarify his client’s expectations; by choosing the correct response, it begins dialogue to explore the problem. Upon exploration, Robert learns that his client is worried about his finances due to a new cancer diagnosis. He thinks he will lose his house and retirement. Now that Robert knows the real issue, he is better equipped to help his client.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Robert is a patient advocate for Mrs. Sterling. Mrs. Sterling is 89. She lives alone and has family nearby, who are very involved in her life. Today, Mrs. Sterling calls Robert crying. She states my doctor put me on insulin for my diabetes. I don’t want to be on insulin. She didn’t even ask me. I just got a call from the pharmacy telling me it was ready. Robert knows that Mrs. Sterling‘s lab report last week showed an HbA1C of 7.9%. Robert exemplifies the advocate role by:
A. Arranging for Mrs. Sterling to meet with a diabetes educator to learn how to administer insulin.
B. Tell Mrs. Sterling to pick up the insulin and ensure her that people take is on all the time.
C. Ask the physician to call Mrs. Sterling and explain why she needs insulin.
D. Arranging a meeting with Mrs. Sterling, her physician, and Robert to improve understanding of the need for the insulin.

A

D. Arrange a meeting with Mrs. Sterling, her physician, and Robert to improve understanding of the need for the insulin.

Rationale: the patient advocate certification board states that an advocate is a professional who provide services to patients and those supporting them who are navigating the complex Healthcare continue on. Advocates ensure patients have a voice in their care and information to promote informed decision making. While Robert cannot make recommendations or offer an opinion, he knows that the elderly diabetic patients do not need to take control of their diabetes. Starting insulin with Mrs. Sterling could be very dangerous. Arranging a meeting in which all parties are present (Mrs. Sterling and her advocate) can help improve understanding and ensure that informed consent is obtained.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Due to an unforeseen landslide, Robert now needs to take a ferry to see Mrs. Sterling. This adds considerable time and expense to his commute. Per the contract he has with Mrs. Sterling, he is not able to be compensated for this. What is missing from the contract?
A. Advocates do not work with contracts
B. No mention of limitations of the work
C. Out of pocket expenses
D. The terms of canceling the agreement or not included

A

C. Out of pocket expenses

Rationale: make sure to address how out-of-pocket expenses will be covered. Some will be a normal part of doing business, however, others should be reimbursable. For example, mileage, if you were driving a long distance to meet the client.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Advocates respect each client’s right to privacy and abide by:
A. All relevant laws and regulations as they pertain to the confidentiality of personal information and personally identifiable information.
B. Insurance requirements
C. The rules of the facility
D. Their own policies

A

A. All relevant laws and regulations as they pertain to the confidentiality of personal information and personally identifiable information.

Rationale: board-certified patient advocates respect each client’s right to privacy and abide by all relevant laws and regulations as they pertain to the confidentiality of personal information and personally identifiable information.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

A benefit of being clear on expectations is:
A. The advocate receives additional money
B. Happy family members
C. A strong working relationship and productive advocacy
D. Testimonials on the advocates website

A

C. A strong working relationship and productive advocacy.

Rationale: being clear on expectations will help build a strong working relationship and a productive outcome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Susan’s client Mr. Goldblum lives in California. During a recent hospital stay, his picture was taken, and a social media post was made about his illness on Instagram. The hospital is penalized for this transgression, why is this?
A. The American Association of retired persons AARP guaranteed protection
B. Some state laws offer additional protection
C. Hospital policy guaranteed protection
D. His insurance company guarantees protection

A

A. Some state laws offer additional protection

Rationale: HIPAA standards represent a uniform, federal for privacy protections for consumers across the country. State laws provide additional protections to consumers. California has enacted legislation that penalize hospitals and healthcare organizations that fail to protect patient information.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q
A nurse advocate may:
A.  Help clients access resources
B.  Recommend treatment options
C.  Fill a patient’s pillbox
D.  Give medical advice as long as he/she is licensed in the state.
A

A. Help clients access resources

Rationale: advocate refrain from diagnosing or prescribing any medical/mental health treatment for clients, even if the advocate has additional licensure or training.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which of the following is an allowed exception to PHI protections under HIPAA?
A. People who are famous have no PHI protections
B. Using PHI to assess quality of services
C. Informing curious family members
D. Using PHI for advertising

A

B. Using PHI to assess quality of services

Rationale: HIPAA does allow some exceptions to PHI protections. These include: using PHI to assess the quality of services through outcome evaluations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Susan is a patient advocate whose client has become embroiled in conflict between family members and hospital administration. Despite several attempts to resolve the issue, Susan has been unsuccessful. What should her next step be?
A. Call a third care conference
B. Terminate her involvement with a client
C. Report the family for abuse
D. Refer the client to a professional mediator

A

D. Refer the client to a professional mediator

Rationale: if a client needs assistance in an area in which an advocate does not have sufficient knowledge or training, the advocate is a black obligated to refer the client on appropriate system or resource for assistance. An example would be if the situation warrants advanced skills and conflict management or professional mediation, it is outside of your scope of practice to perform this.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Excluding emergencies, which of the following is true about informed consent?
A. Any healthcare provider included nurses can obtain consent.
B. And informed consent can be given in English as long as there are family members who can interpret.
C. Starting a patient on insulin for the first time does not require informed consent.
D. Medical providers cannot treat patients without their consent, unless there is a court order.

A

D. Medical providers cannot treat patients without their consent unless there is a court order.

Rationale: medical providers cannot treat patients without their consent except in emergencies or under court order when patients are incompetent or minors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q
Which common problem poses ethical concerns in regards to conflict of interest?
A.  Technology
B.  Preventative services
C.  Commercialized medicine
D.  Cultural care
A

C. Commercialized medicine

Rationale: private physicians who are paid fee-for-service can increase profits by raising fees or providing more services. Healthcare in the US is organized as a business as positions and patience are organized into a relationship that can be financially exploited.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q
Promoting clients engagement begins with:
A.  Providing information
B.  Self determination
C.  Telling them what they should do
D.  Empowering patients
A

D. Empowering patients

Rationale: before clients can be engaged, they must be empowered. Providing information as part of empowering patients. Self-determination happens after clients feel empowered.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q
An adult who is appointed to make medical decisions for another person when a person is unable to make decisions for themselves is a(n):
A.  Patient advocate
B.  Delegate
C.  Legal surrogate
D.  Ombudsman
A

C. Legal surrogate

Rationale: a surrogate is an adult who is appointed to make healthcare decisions for a person when a person is unable to make decisions for themselves.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which of the following statements about healthcare reform is false?
A. Harry Truman tried to include the right to medical care and good health in his economic bill of rights in 1944
B. Healthcare reform began with Massachusetts in 2006
C. Medicare and Medicaid were incorporated into the Social Security act of 1965
D. Healthcare reform began with Theodore Roosevelt in 1912

A

B. Healthcare reform began with Massachusetts in 2006

Rationale: the first efforts at healthcare reform began with Theodore Roosevelt in 1912. As a US entered World War I, interest in healthcare reform wind. Harry Truman made another attempt in 1944 with the ‘economic bill of rights’ which included the right to medical care and good health. To provide healthcare for the elderly, Medicare and Medicaid for incorporated into the Social Security act in 1965. Massachusetts was the inspiration for the affordable care act, but it was not the beginning of healthcare reform.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q
This enables a person to appoint an ‘agent’, such as a trusted relative, friend, or attorney to handles pacific health, legal, and financial responsibilities:
A.  Durable power of attorney
B.  Advance directives
C.  Living will
D.  Do not resuscitate DNR orders
A

A. Durable power of attorney

Rationale: a durable power of attorney (POA) enables a person to appoint an “agent”, such as a trusted relative, friend, or attorney to handle specific health, legal, and financial responsibilities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What does fair treatment mean?
A. Treat people with fair skin differently than others
B. Three clients fairly regardless of age, race, religious/spiritual practice, culture, ethnicity, sexual orientation or gender identity, and immigration status.
C. Treat everyone the same as long as they are US citizens
D. This is an outdated term as medical staff are never prejudiced

A

B. Treat clients fairly regardless of age, race, religious/spiritual practice, culture, ethnicity, sexual orientation or gender identity, and immigration status.

Rationale: the board-certified patient after treats all clients fairly regardless of age, race, religious/spiritual practice, culture, listening, sexual orientation or gender identity, and immigration status.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q
Legally executed documents that detail individuals healthcare related wishes and decisions for end of life are called:
A.  Do not resuscitate (DNR) orders
B.  Living will
C.  Advance directives
D.  Durable power of attorney
A

C. Advance directives

Rationale: advanced directives are legally executed documents that detailing individuals healthcare related wishes and decisions for end of life.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Which of the following is true of healthcare coverage in an equitable access environment?
A. It is what allows entry into the healthcare system
B. All Americans have health care coverage
C. Uninsured are more likely to receive medical care
D. There’s no difference between those who have coverage and those who doubt and outcomes

A

A. It is what allows entry into the healthcare system

Rationale: coverage is a persons ticket into the healthcare system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Which of the following is true of healthcare timeliness in an equitable access environment?
A. Timely delivery of appropriate care can help reduce mortality and morbidity for chronic conditions
B. Patients are seen within 24 hours
C. Phone calls are answered by the third ring
D. The amount of time it takes to get a patient to the hospital by ambulance

A

A. Timely delivery of appropriate care can help reduce mortality and morbidity for chronic conditions

Rationale: timely delivery of appropriate care can help reduce mortality and morbidity for chronic conditions, such as kidney disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the four ethical principles of the Beauchamp and Childress?
A. Veracity, justice, beneficence and autonomy
B. Veracity, truth telling, beneficence, and confidentiality
C. Nonmaleficence, confidentiality, veracity and justice
D. Autonomy beneficence nonmaleficence and Justice

A

D. Autonomy, beneficence, nonmaleficence and Justice

Rationale: known as the big four, they are autonomy, beneficence, nonmaleficence, and justice.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Anne is a middle-aged woman caring for her mother, who has Alzheimer’s disease. Which of the following actions on the part of the clinicians office staff would demonstrate client centered care for Anne?
A. Call Anne at work weekly until she comes in for the tests
B. Send a certified letter notifying her of the importance of the screening tests
C. Enrolling Anne in a wellness class
D. Offering an evening or Saturday appointment for screening tests

A

D. Offering an evening or Saturday appointment for screening tests

Rationale: By offering a more convenient time for the screening, Anne may be able to fit this into her busy life. If Anne asks for help, every effort should be made to help her cope with the situation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What does access to healthcare mean?
A. The timely use of personal health services to achieve the best health outcomes
B. Making sure clinic hours reflect bankers hours
C. How clients access resources
D. Ensuring that all clients have a primary care provider

A

A. The time we use a personal health services to achieve the best health outcomes

Rationale: access to healthcare means having the timely use of personal health services to achieve the best health outcomes. Access to healthcare consists of four components.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q
Which ethical principle is maintaining what is right and fair?
A.  Confidentiality
B.  Autonomy
C.  Justice
D.  Veracity
A

D. Justice

Justice is maintaining what is right and fair; making decisions that are good for a person.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are four components of access?
A. Coverage, mental health services, vision, and dental
B. Service, workforce, timeliness, and urgent care service
C. Workforce, coverage, timeliness, and service
D. Timeliness, coverage, telemedicine, and virtual visits

A

C. Workforce, coverage, timeliness, and service

Rationale: the four components of access our coverage, service, timeliness, and workforce.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q
Which group is less likely to receive medical care and more likely to have poor health status?
A.  Women
B.  Latinos
C.  Uninsured
D.  Children
A

C. Uninsured

Rationale: The uninsured or less likely to receive medical care and more likely to have poor health status.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Which group is at greater risk of experiencing one of the seven problems of healthcare?
A. Hispanic college graduates
B. White men age 30 to 55
C. Teachers in an inner-city neighborhood
D. African-American women

A

D. African-American women

Rationale: everyone is at risk; however, the population of African-American women, is included into vulnerable populations: women and African-Americans.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

In regards to equitable access it is the advocates responsibility to:
A. Arrange for transportation to take clients to appointments
B. Find a facility that is within walking distance for the client
C. Promote equitable access to appropriate and safe healthcare and treatment
D. Find a facility that is open when the client is off of work

A

C. Promote equitable access to appropriate and safe healthcare and treatment

Rationale: the board-certified patient advocate promotes equitable access to appropriate and safe health care and treatment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q
Which ethical principle is linked to self determination?
A.  Veracity
B.  Confidentiality
C.  Justice
D.  Autonomy
A

D. Autonomy

Rationale: the term autonomy refers to the right of self determination. By law, patients have a right to make choices independently. Informed consent was also be present for biomedical research. The ultimate responsibility for discussing treatment options, plan of care, and obtaining informed consent rests with the physician. This includes, but is not limited to, advanced directives. Evidence must appear in the client’s record.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q
Which patient bill allows the patient to request a change in caregiver without reprisal or discrimination?
A.  AHA patient’s Bill of Rights
B.  Hospice bill of rights
C.  ACA patient’s bill of rights
D.  Self-determination act
A

B. Hospice bill of rights

Rationale: The hospice Bill of Rights allows the client to request a change in caregiver without reprisal or discrimination.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Susan met with Mr. Gonzalez and his physician in the patient room at the hospital and was immediately called away to deal with another patient situation when the meeting was over. When should she document?
A. As soon as she is able to ensure her memory of the meeting remains accurate.
B. She does not need to document the meeting
C. It does not matter if she documents or not because Mr. Gonzalez cannot read English
D. Within 48 hours, before she forgets what happened.

A

A. As soon as she is able to ensure her memory of the meeting remains accurate.

Rationale: document as soon after the fact as you can; while it is happening is best.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q
In order to gain the greatest clarity about a situation, the advocate needs to engage in:
A.  Insular Care
B.  Active listening
C.  Assessment
D.  Review of chart
A

B. Active listening

Rationale: active listening can help provide you with greater clarity about a situation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Which of the following is true of refugees?
A. They have a high respect for authority
B. They are more likely to access medical care
C. They believe illness is caused by loss of soul
D. They may have a general distrust or fear of government that can extend to healthcare

A

D. They may have a general distrust or fear of government that can extend healthcare

Rationale: migrants who have fled the country store escape persecution, violence, or war may have general distrust her fear of government they can extend it to Healthcare.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q
Which of the following groups is more likely to experience harm from a medical error?
A.  Limited English speaking persons
B.  African Americans
C.  Russians
D.  Buddhists
A

A. Limited English speaking persons

Rationale: limited English speaking people are less likely to have a usual source of care, utilize for your preventative services, or more likely to experience home from an adverse event, and tend to be less satisfied.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is an effective strategy to meet the clients literacy, cognitive, and personality characteristics?
A. Make sure informational materials are mostly pictures
B. Communicate through the family representative
C. Create an atmosphere of acceptance
D. Provide multiple handouts

A

C. Create an atmosphere of acceptance

Rationale: create an atmosphere where clients who lack understanding of key information do not feel belittled or ashamed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q
Susan is Mr. Brown’s patient advocate. Due to his hospitalization, Susan wants to make sure that Mr. Brown has the correct treatment instructions to manage his diabetes when he goes home. What method should Susan ask the diabetes educator to use to ensure Mr. Brown understands the information?
A.  Teach back or show me
B.  Demonstration
C.  Handouts
D.  Video
A

A. Teach back or show me

Rationale: using tactics such as teach back or show me to evaluate understand it can be very helpful. Teach back as a method of explaining information to the client and asking the client to restate the information. It has been demonstrated to be an effective method for client teaching.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q
What are the four C’s of culture?
A.  Cause, culture, concern, cope
B.  Call, care, culture, concerns
C.  Case, care, call, cope
D.  Call, cause, cope, concerns
A

D. Call, cause, cope, concerns

Rationale: the forces of culture or call, clause, cope and concerns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Which of the following is not a conflict management strategy?
A. Influence level of conflict
B. Shared collective interests
C. Avoidance
D. Voicing concerns to all staff who will listen

A

D. Voicing concerns to all staff who will listen

Rationale: Influencing the level of conflict, avoidance and shared collective interests are always to manage conflict.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Networks provide many benefits for advocates. Strategies to expand and advocates network include:
A. Taking a position out to lunch
B. Offering to babysit for the unit secretary
C. Getting involved in social movements
D. Mediation

A

C. Getting involved in social movements

Rationale: strategies to expand a persons networking include increasing visibility, seeking inclusion in decision-making bodies, cultivating mentors, obtaining access to informal groups and developing links with social movements.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Susan is having problems with a nurse caring for her client. The nurse continuously ignore Susan and does not include her and important discussions regarding her client’s care. What would be the best action for Susan to take?
A. Inform the nurse of her role as a board-certified patient advocate
B. Avoid the nurse and direct all communication to the nurse manager
C. Report the nurse to administration
D. Confront the nurse and let her know you will have her fired if she does not cooperate

A

A. Inform the nurse of her role as a board-certified patient advocate

Rationale: some staff may not understand the advocate role. As this is a relatively new role, the patient advocate may need to help to inform staff of the advocate role, as misunderstanding can sometimes create conflict.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q
Who owns the documentation in an advocate/client relationship?
A.  The advocate
B.  The client
C.  The legal surrogate
D.  Both the client and the advocate
A

B. The client

Rationale: documentation belongs to the client. However, you should keep copies for your records.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the first step in the planning process?
A. Make a list of assets and liabilities
B. Determine specific actions
C. Establish a goal and timeframe for completion with the client
D. Assign responsibility

A

C. Establish a goal and timeframe for completion with the client

Rationale: establishing a goal and timeframe for completion with a client is the first step in the planning process.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What are the four tenants of advocates?
A. Alleviate suffering, promote health, promote safe care, encourage well-being whenever and wherever possible
B. Promote access, alleviate pain, provide advanced directives, and sure laws and regulations are adhere to
C. Help clients access resources, access preventative services, encourage conflict resolution, promote cultural awareness
D. Alleviate conflict, promote well-being, promote independence, and support decision makers

A

A. Alleviate suffering, promote health, promote safe care, encourage well-being whenever and wherever possible.

Rationale: Ford certified patient advocates have four main tenants to alleviate suffering, promote health, promote safe care, and encourage well-being whenever and wherever possible.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

The most important guiding principle in planning is:
A. Have a Plan B in case something goes wrong
B. Based everything on facts
C. Document everything you do
D. The plan is client centered and client directed

A

D. The plan is client centered and client directed

Rationale: advocacy planning must begin and end with the expressed needs, interests, or preference of the client.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q
Who is the best person to guide the planning process?
A.  The advocate
B.  The client
C.  The physician
D.  The client’s family
A

B. The client

Rationale: first advocacy planning must begin and end with the expressed needs, interests, or preference of the client.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Mr. Oh is 68, married and retired. He’s been in the hospital under observation status for two days. Mr. Oh does not have Medicare B. Who will pay his hospital bill and as his advocate what would you recommend?
A. Medicare part A will pay his bill, because as his advocate I will demand that he be admitted.
B. Mr. I was responsible for the entire bill. As his advocate, I will explore eligibility for Medicaid.
C. Mr. Oh is responsible for his entire bill. As his advocate, I will explore enrollment in Medicare part B
D. Medicare advantage will pay his bill. As his advocate I will contact the insurance company.

A

B. Mr. Earl is responsible for the entire bill. As his advocate, I will explore eligibility for Medicaid.

Rationale: as long as Mr. ours an observation status, he is responsible for the entire bill since he doesn’t have Medicare part B. He has missed the enrollment. To get part B now and will have to wait until next year. However, he may qualify for Medicaid, which is retroactive three months. We don’t know if he has Medicare advantage or not.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q
Frank is a retired colonel from the Air Force. He has been admitted with terminal illness. Who will pay his hospital bill?
A.  Veteran’s health
B.  CHAMPVA
C.  TRICARE
D.  Medicare
A

C. TRICARE

Rationale: TRICARE is a department of defense program that provides care to the dependence of active duty military members and military retirees and their dependence. There are several options for TRICARE, such as an HMO type plan, a PPO type plan, and a fee for service plan.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q
Miss Ross is 86. Which insurance does she most likely have?
A.  Medicare
B.  CHIP
C.  Medicaid
D.  TRICARE
A

A. Medicare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q
Sharon is 34, unmarried, and pregnant. Which program is she must likely to qualify for?
A.  CHIP
B.  CHAMPVA
C.  Medicare
D.  Medicaid
A

D. Medicaid

Rationale: Medicaid covers pregnant women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q
Sally is 52 and unemployed. What program might pay for her office visit today?
A.  IHS
B.  Medicare part A
C.  Medicare part B
D.  Medicaid
A

D. Medicaid

Rationale: due to her unemployment, she will most likely qualify for Medicaid. We don’t know if she’s Native American and she does not qualify for Medicare that we know of.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q
When Nicole took John to the ER after an accident, there were several safety violations including failure to transport and a medication error. Which agency can Nicole file a complaint with?
A.  Attorney general
B.  Joint commission
C.  Medicare.gov
D.  HHS.gov
A

B. Joint commission

Rationale: the joint commission link can be used to report for medical care, safety concerns, and Hospital acquired infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q
What is the predominant method of obtaining insurance in the US?
A.  Employment sponsored insurance
B.  Public insurance programs
C.  Medicare
D.  Medicaid
A

A. Employment sponsored insurance

Rationale: employment sponsored insurance (ESI) has become the predominant method of obtaining insurance in the US

73
Q
Which of the following describes a payment model in which insurers take a more active role in managing the care of their beneficiaries receive?
A.  Indemnity
B.  Managed care organization
C.  Accountable care organizations
D.  Consumer driven health plans
A

B. Managed care organization

Rationale: as the name implies, managed-care organizations take a more active role in managing the care of their beneficiaries receive, and thus the cost incurred, rather than focusing solely on premiums and reimbursements

74
Q
Which of the following has experience rapid growth in the last 20 years and are an increasing area of concern for Medicare spending?
A.  Specialty hospitals
B.  Emergency rooms
C.  Network hospitals
D.  Post acute care
A

D. Post acute care

Rationale: there are thousands of facilities are also providing patient care. These facilities known as post acute care I have experience rapid growth in the past 20 years and are increasing area of concern from Medicare spending and quality improvement.

75
Q
Which part of Medicare allows beneficiaries to enroll in a private insurance plan which will cover all regular Medicare benefits and may cover more or required reduced co-pays and deductibles?
A.  Part A
B.  Part C
C.  Part B
D.  Part D
A

B. Part C

Rationale: Medicare part C is also called Medicare advantage, it allows beneficiaries to enroll in a private insurance plan, like an outside HMO, which will cover all regular Medicare benefits and may cover more or require reduced co-pays and deductibles. Medicare pays these private insurers a fixed amount per month, per beneficiary.

76
Q

Susan is advocating for a family in which one of the children, Anna, has a learning disability. The school that Anna attends does not provide any special services for her, even though her individual education plan requires it. What can Susan do?
A. Remove her from school and look for another school
B. Inform school personnel about her rights
C. Inform her parents
D. Look for a home tutor

A

C. Inform her parents

Rationale: while Susan can inform school personnel, this will not empower the parents. Informing the parents and supporting them in the next steps is the better answer.

77
Q
A healthcare network that provides different types of services is known as:
A.  Horizontal network
B.  Vertical network
C.  Shriners hospital
D.  Conglomeration
A

B. Vertical network

Rationale: a vertical network contains different kinds of services. An example is Kaiser Permanente, a network of organizations that function variously as an insurer, and a lot of hospitals and outpatient centers, and an employer of physicians. These are sometimes referred to as integrated care as well.

78
Q
Which part of Medicare is voluntary and operates for contracted private insurers and contains a donut hole until 2020?
A.  Part A
B.  Part B
C.  Part C
D.  Part D
A

D. Part D

Rationale: part do you is voluntary and operates through contracted private insurers. The program is subsidized, particularly for low income beneficiaries. Previously there existed a donut hole, causing certain beneficiaries to lose coverage of most of their prescriptions, but the affordable care act closes the gap through subsidies and rebates.

79
Q
Mr. Green is single, unable to work, age 57 with a LS. Which insurance would he qualify for?
A.  Medicare
B.  Medicaid
C.  Employment sponsored insurance
D.  Public insurance programs
A

A. Medicare

Rationale: to be eligible for Medicare coverage, a person must be at least 65 years old, has been a US citizen or permanent resident for more than five years, and have or have a spouse, who has paid Medicare taxes for at least 10 years; be under age 65, be permanently disabled, and have receive Social Security disability benefits for at least the previous two years; be under age 65 and receive Social Security disability benefits for amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, ALS or Lou Gehrig’s disease; be under age 65 and a continuous dialysis or kidney transplant; or be under age 65 and have developed health conditions following environmental hazard exposure in an emergency declaration area after June 17, 2009.

80
Q

Which of the following is not true:
A. Do US has fewer physicians, hospital beds, physician visits and hospitalizations per capita than most industrialized countries.
B. Do US spends more than 17% of GDP on Healthcare
C. Americans only receive 55 to 70% of recommended care they need and there are huge disparities in health outcomes
D. Commonwealth fun rank the US health systems fifth out of seven countries

A

D. Commonwealth fund ranked the US health system fifth out of seven countries

Rationale: the most recent major international comparison by the Commonwealth fun ranked our system seventh - which isn’t so bad until you realize that the study only included in seven countries.

81
Q
Nancy is 36, a US citizen, single, unemployed and pregnant with no other complications, which health insurance would she qualify for?
A.  Medicaid
B.  CHIP
C.  Employment sponsored insurance
D.  Medicare
A

A. Medicaid

Rationale: Nancy would qualify for Medicaid due to her pregnancy and most likely meet income requirements with her unemployment.

82
Q
The two broad categories of the US healthcare system are:
A.  Inpatient and outpatient
B.  Horizontal and vertical networks
C.  ACO & PPO
D.  Medicare and Medicaid
A

A. Inpatient and outpatient

83
Q

Which of the following describes a tiered formulary?
A. Steering patients to generics and cheaper drugs by setting a lower copayment
B. Automatically substituting a generic for any bioequivalent prescription
C. Formulary regulated by the hospital’s pharmacy and therapeutics committee
D. Using a pharmacy benefit manager to manage pharmaceutical sales

A

A. Steering patients to generics and cheaper drugs by selling a lower copayment

Rationale: PBMs and insurance plans try to keep their costs low by steering patients take generics and other cheaper drugs, so they sent lower patient copayments; the system of classifying drugs by co-pay is known as a “tiered formulary”.

84
Q
Which type of hospital pays taxes, can be of any type and provide shareholders with profits?
A.  Secular
B.  Religious
C.  For profit hospitals
D.  Hospitals of America
A

C. For profit hospitals

Rationale: private corporations earn for profit hospitals, and some of the hospitals profit is giving the shareholders, as opposed to all of it reinvested into operations. I’m like not for profit hospitals, these organizations pay taxes. As of 2013, do US had over 260 physician owned hospitals. The majority are for profit institutions. These hospitals can be of any type that are more likely to be single specialty hospitals, especially orthopedics, Oncology, or Cardiology.

85
Q
Who has the heaviest workload?
A.  Residents 
B.  Primary care doctors
C.  Emergency room doctors
D.  Specialty care doctors
A

B. Primary care doctors

Rationale: less than 40% of physicians practice in primary care, due to this they have a huge workload: do you university researchers estimate that, given the typical patient load and the current guidelines for care, a PCP should be spending 7.4 hours per day on preventive care, 10.6 hours on managing chronic diseases, and 4.6 hours on handling acute illness - totaling 22.6 hours a day.

86
Q
Which of the following dramatically improve the outcome of patients as they move from the hospital to the next level of care?
A.  Caregiver capabilities
B.  Home health
C.  Discharge planning
D.  Help at home
A

C. Discharge planning

Rationale: studies have shown that improvements in a hospital discharge planning can dramatically improve the outcome for patients as they move to the next level of care.

87
Q

What is upcoding?
A. Charging for a procedure that was performed
B. Duplicating charges on a medical bill
C. Criminal act of fraudulently reporting an incorrect diagnosis in order to profit
D. The process of adding fees if the medical bill is not paid in time

A

C. Criminal act of fraudulently reporting an incorrect diagnosis in order to profit

Rationale: upcoding is the criminal act of fraudulently reporting an incorrect diagnosis in order to profit.

88
Q
Which reimbursement model involves both a quality recording system and a payment modifier, penalizing those providing below average care and providing bonuses to those providing above average care?
A.  Value based purchasing
B.  Fee-for-service
C.  Capitation
D.  Prospective payment system
A

A. Value based purchasing (VBP)

Rationale: VBP involves birthday quality reporting system and a payment modifier, penalizing those providing below average care and providing bonuses to those providing above average care.

89
Q
Dr. Rose belongs to a cardiology group practice where he practices with other cardiologist. This form of horizontally integrated organizational structure is known as:
A.  Multi specialty group practice
B.  Single specialty group practices
C.  Multi hospital system
D.  Virtual physician network
A

B. Single specialty group practices

Rationale: the simplest form of horizontal integration is a single specialty group practice. These organizations can be a varying sizes and are composed of Physicians with the common specialty, although in the modern era of subspecialization, related specialties may be aggregated into one organization. For example, non-invasive cardiologist, interventional cardiologist, and electrophysiologists work together in a single specialty cardiology group.

90
Q
Which type of medical error happens when average of one per patient per day in the hospital?
A.  Surgery related
B.  Medication related
C.  Money related
D.  Transport related
A

B. Medication related

Rationale: the average number of medication errors in the hospital is one error per patient per day

91
Q
A model of care that focuses on the health and overall wellness of a broader population is:
A.  Community health
B.  Population health
C.  Integrated care model
D.  Chronic care model
A

B. Population health

Rationale: the population health approach describes a shift in our healthcare system from a narrow model of acute care targeted at the individual patient, to win the focuses on the health and overall wellness of the broader population it serves.

92
Q
What is the most common type of dementia?
A.  Lewy body
B.  Alzheimer’s disease
C.  Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome
D.  Parkinson’s disease
A

B. Alzheimer’s disease

Rationale: Alzheimer’s disease is the most common type of dementia.

93
Q
Mr. Green has been diagnosed with COPD. As his advocate Robert knows that another chronic condition that often accompanies other chronic illness is:
A.  Heart failure
B.  Obesity
D.  Diabetes
D.  Depression
A

D. Depression

Rationale: patients with another chronic illness or 1.5 to 2 times more likely to have depression and have poorer outcomes.

94
Q

All of the following have create a dramatic changes in healthcare costs except:
A. Increase in overall insurance costs
B. 1.9 million new beneficiaries added to Medicare advantage
C. Decreased worker/employer share
D. Increase in family coverage plans

A

C. Decreased worker/employer share

Rationale: work/employer share has increased.

95
Q

Robert is concerned when he sees his clients nurse bring in four different IV medications for administration at one time. He asks a nurse if she is sure there are no interactions between the medications. The nurse states, “the electronica health record will catch any potential drug interactions, and nothing was flagged, so I am not worried”. Robert insists that a pharmacist chat for interactions despite the statement. What may have prompted Robert to take the stance?
A. A recent study found that electronica records miss 33% of medication errors
B. Robert wants to be extra cautious as he knows his client is fearful of a medication error
C. Robert wants to make sure the medication is given to the correct person
D. Robert wants to delay the medication administration to give us client more time to decide if he wants the medication

A

A. A recent study found that electronica health records miss 33% of medication errors

Rationale: researchers at University of Utah health, Harvard university and Brigham and women’s hospital discovered EHRs didn’t detect up to 33% of medical errors in studies simulations. The systems are supposed to issue warnings to doctors if their orders for medication could result in allergic reactions, adverse drug interactions, excessive doses or other potentially harmful effects.

96
Q
Market’s client, Lauren is 67. She suffers from anxiety, fibromyalgia, osteoarthritis, heart failure, and diabetes. She did not graduate high school and was orphaned at the age of 11. Lauren was recently widowed and Market is helping her coordinate her care. Margot knows that Lauren is at risk for which of the following?
A.  Late life depression
B.  Frailty
C.  Fragmented care
D.  Dementia
A

A. Late life depression

Rationale: late life depression is a common psychiatric disorder and people over 65 years of age, occurring in about 15% of that population. Predictors of poorer outcomes include adverse childhood events, age of one set, limited education, number of previous recurrences, and length of untreated episodes. Biological risk factors for late life depression include old age, female sex, family history of mood disorders, poor physical health, medications such as benzodiazepines and frailty. Psychosocial risk factors include a loss of purpose, lower level of education, being single, loneliness, lack of social supports, stressful life events, and poverty.

97
Q
Mr. Green’s doctor has ordered a spirometry test. Robert explained to Mr. Green the spirometry test measures:
A.  Resting heart rate
B.  Lung function and detect COPD
C.  Lung capacity
D.  Size of lung tumor
A

B. Lung function and detect COPD

Rationale: a simple test, called spirometry, can be used to measure pulmonary - or lung - function and detect COPD and anyone with breathing problems.

98
Q
Which type of cancer is the most common, begins on the skin or tissue that covers the surface of organs and glands and is usually solid?
A.  Sarcoma
B.  Carcinoma
C.  Lymphoma
D.  Leukemia
A

B. Carcinoma

Rationale: a carcinoma begins in the skin or the tissue that covers the surface of internal organs and glands. Carson is usually form solid tumors. They are the most common type of cancer. Examples of carcinomas include prostate cancer, breast cancer, lung cancer, and colorectal cancer.

99
Q
Betty tell Susan that she has an action plan and rescue medications on hand. What chronic disease does Susan suspect Betty has?
A.  Heart failure
B.  Osteoarthritis
C.  Asthma
D.  Diabetes
A

C. Asthma

Rationale: the asthma client needs to have a written action plan and rescue medications on hand. The client should know how to avoid triggers.

100
Q
What is the most common type of heart disease?
A.  Angina
B.  Coronary artery disease
C.  Myocardial infarction
D.  Congestive heart failure
A

B. Coronary artery disease

Rationale: coronary artery disease, CAD, is the most common type of heart disease, killing over 370,000 people annually.

101
Q
What does the prefix Endo mean?
A.  On top of
B.  Above
C.  Toward
D.  Within
A

D. Within

Rationale: ending means within, or inside of, endoscopy is an example.

102
Q

In the case of Mr. Kim, what caused the medication error?
A. The pharmacist delivered the oxycodone in the wrong form
B. The physician ordered the wrong oxycodone
C. The error was multi factorial with multiple causes
D. The nurse gave too much oxycodone

A

C. They are was multi factorial with multiple causes

Rationale: medication errors are really caused by failure of a single element or the foot of a single practitioner. Because medication errors are often multi factorial, analysis of errors should always identify weaknesses in the system and correct of plans should include risk reduction strategies that span multiple processes.

103
Q
Dr. Grant works for the advocate health system in Chicago. In which she has a formal partnership between the hospital and other affiliated positions in the group. This type of vertically integrated organizational structure is called:
A.  Clinically integrated network
B.  Management services organization
C.  foundation model
D.  Physician hospital organization
A

D. Physician hospital organization

Rationale: physician hospital organizations, PHO’s, such as Advocate health system in Chicago, or a form of physician hospital integration, although a loser one then certain other models such as medical foundations. PHO’s entail a formal partnership between hospitals and all or some of their affiliated positions for the purposes of contracting with water more health plans.

104
Q
Dr. Stanton has diagnosed several patients with gastrointestinal reflux recently. When Mr. small comes in to see him with chest pain, he diagnosed gastrointestinal reflux and sent him home. Mr. small died later that night due to myocardial infarction. What did Dr. Stanton rely on to make his diagnosis?
A.  Availability heuristic or bias
B.  Anchoring heuristic or bias
C.  Framing effects
D.  Blind obedience
A

A. Availability heuristic or bias

Rationale: availability heuristic or bias is the diagnosis of current patient biased by experience with past cases.

105
Q

Susan’s client, Vivian has just been diagnosed with cancer. Recently, Vivian has been irritable, tearful, and is having difficulty concentrating. Susan expects that Vivian may be experiencing:
A. Anxiety
B. An overdose of caffeine
C. Chemotherapy toxicity
D. Stressed due to the cost of treatment

A

A. Anxiety

Rationale: according to a recent study, 44% of cancer patients reported some anxiety and 23% reported significant anxiety. Anxiety is an emotional and physiological response to a perceived threat with an increase in alertness, tension, and sympathetic nervous system response. Anxiety is a normal response to stressful situations such as a cancer diagnosis or caring for someone with cancer.

106
Q
What is the most common form of disability?
A.  Cancer
B.  Asthma
C.  Diabetes
D.  Osteoarthritis
A

D. Osteoarthritis

National: asked you arthritis is the most common form of arthritis and disability in the US.

107
Q
What life-threatening event does the acronym FAST relate to?
A.  Stroke
B.  Allergic reaction
C.  Heart attack
D.  Asthma attack
A

A. Stroke

Rationale: acting F. A. S. T. Can help stroke patients get the treatments they desperately need.

108
Q
What does the root brachi/o describe?
A.  Vein
B.  Foot
C.  Arm
D.  The color blue
A

C. Arm

Rationale: brachi/o means arm, and example is brachialgia

109
Q
Susan was able to enroll Betty in a program that helps her remain in her home. The program provides a nurse, occupational therapist and a handyman who can put up handrails in our home. This program is called:
A.  Guided care
B.  PACE
C.  CAPABLE
D.  GRACE
A

C. CAPABLE

Rationale: Community Aging in Place - Advancing Better Living for Elders (CAPABLE) helps older adults remain at home. Based on financial need, this program helps people who have a hard time completing daily tasks, like taking a bath or cooking a meal. The CAPABLE team includes a nurse, occupational therapist, and Handyman. These helpers visit the home and take care of individual needs. The CAPABLE team works closely with the client to identify goals. CAPABLE is currently available in nine states.

110
Q

Susan’s client Robert has been feeling tired, weak and has lost 30 pounds in the last three months without trying. Robert was diagnosed with anemia and given a special diet told he needs to start an iron infusion. Robert does not feel his diagnosis is completely accurate. Susan knows that the provider as a share of the infusion center where Robert would receive iron infusion’s. What should Susan recommend?
A. Asked to have the infusion somewhere else
B. Robert follow the doctor’s recommendations
C. A repeat blood test
D. A second opinion

A

D. A second opinion

Rationale: clients should trust their intuition and keep searching if they don’t think the physicians are right.

111
Q
What is the number one cause of death according to the CDC?
A.  Accidents
B.  Cancer
C.  Heart disease
D.  Medical errors
A

C. Heart disease

Rationale: heart disease is the leading cause of death for both men and women.

112
Q

Susan’s client, Mr. Doe,has recently been making comments that he is a burden to others and that everyone will be better off if he was gone. Susan learned that Mr. Doe has recently given away most of his possessions and purchased a gun. How should Susan respond?
A. Ask Mr. Doe’s neighbor to keep an eye on Mr. Doe
B. Consult with Robert
C. Ask Mr. Doe if he’s thinking about killing himself
D. Call Mr. Doe’s primary care provider

A

C. Ask Mr. Doe if he’s thinking about killing himself

Rationale: ASK: “Are you thinking about killing yourself?” It’s not an easy question, but studies show that asking at risk individuals if they are suicidal does not increase suicide or suicidal thoughts.

113
Q
Which chronic disease is a precursor of other chronic disease and it’s becoming more prevalent among children?
A.  Depression
B.  Diabetes
C.  Obesity
D.  Asthma
A

C. Obesity

Rationale: obesity is linked to many other product conditions such as type two diabetes, coronary artery disease, heart failure, hyperlipidemia, hypertension, osteoarthritis, obstructive sleep apnea and depression.

114
Q

Robert’s client has been a victim of identity theft in the past. He wants to know how Robert will keep his information secured. What is Roberts best response?
A. I store everything in a HIPAA compliant cloud and use an encrypted computer
B. I keep this information in my desk, in a locked office
C. I keep this information on an encrypted laptop computer placed in a locked file cabinet
D. I keep this information in my locked car trunk

A

A. I store everything in a HIPAA compliant cloud and use an encrypted computer

Rationale: always keep all client records secured at all times. Use a HIPAA compliant cloud and a computer that is encrypted, hardcopy records should be kept in a locked file cabinet.

115
Q

Which of the following describes professional practice?
A. Charging clients for hours worked
B. Getting clients by hanging out in hospital waiting rooms
C. Disclosing any potential conflicts of interest
D. Threatening hospital administration with a lawsuit when a medication was missed

A

C. Disclosing any potential conflicts of interest

Rationale: an advocate shall not start or continue to provide services to a client with a conflict of interest exists, unless both of the following apply:

  • the advocate will be able to provide competent and diligent services to the client, and
  • the client is informed consent, confirmed in writing.
116
Q
When Susan meets with new prospective clients, she gives each client a brochure. The brochure outlines her credentials, work experience, pricing structure, and any financial relationships that she has with other professionals, businesses, or institutions. Susan is demonstrating her commitment to which professional standard?
A.  Transparency
B.  Lifelong learning
C.  Professional development
D.  Taking initiative
A

A. Transparency

Rationale: board-certified patient advocates shut at all times be transparent with clients, disclosing credentials, work experience, pricing structure, and any financial relationships they hold with other professionals, businesses, or institutions.

117
Q

What is one strategy that Robert can use to stay abreast of laws, policies, research developments, and trends that affect patient advocacy practice?
A. Join the patient safety Facebook group
B. Read the newspaper every day
C. Sign up to receive notices of newsletters from government and other reputable organizations
D. Attend staff meetings

A

C. Sign up to receive notices and newsletters from government and other reputable organizations

Rationale: this is the only choice that would be the most likely to provide credible information.

118
Q

All of the following are ways to maintain professional boundaries except:
A. Ensure clients understand the limits of your practice
B. Declining to except a client when there is a conflict of interest and the client does not want to sign an informed consent
C. Asking clients to subscribe to the advocates monthly newsletter for a fee
D. Separate business from personal

A

C. Asking clients to subscribe to the advocate’s monthly newsletter for a fee

Rationale: advocates shall not except compensation for making referrals to other providers or services, north your clients to products or services from which the advocates will profit financially or earn a commission. Advocates shall not except a paid advertising on their websites for products or other service providers. Advocates shall not require a client to purchase or subscribe to any outside service in order to benefit from the advocate’s services.

119
Q

Robert has recently passed the board certification and patient advocacy. He knows that to maintain his potential, he can either retake the exam or:
A. Obtain 30 continuing education credits with in the next three years
B. Obtain 20 continuing education credits within the next two years
C. Obtain 40 continuing education credits within the next two years
D. Obtain 50 continuing education credits within the next five years

A

A. Obtain 30 continuing education credits within the next three years

Rationale: see the PACB CE handbook

120
Q
Susan is an independent patient advocate. What type of insurance does she need to protect her practice?
A.  Business insurance
B.  Errors and omissions insurance
C.  Home insurance
D.  Auto insurance
A

B. Errors and omissions insurance

Rationale: independent advocates need work insurance commonly called errors and omissions insurance or E and O. This insurance covers the advocate if a mistake is made or something is not done that should have been.

121
Q

Who is responsible for setting boundaries?
A. This is an agreement between the client and the advocate and as outlined in the contract
B. The PACB
C. The client
D. The advocate

A

D. The advocate

Rationale: the advocate is responsible for setting and maintaining boundaries.

122
Q

Susan is giving a presentation on the role of the patient advocate to a group of healthcare professionals. Susan understands that this is an example of:
A. All of these
B. Lifelong learning
C. Providing a benefit to the profession and public
D. Continuing her professional development

A

A. All of these

Rationale: advocates participate in the continued learning other colleagues by sharing information and resources for the benefit of the profession and the public. And example might be teaching a class for other healthcare professionals are creating a list of community resources and sharing with other healthcare professionals.

123
Q

Well Susan is at the hospital with Betty, a pipe breaks in her home and her home office is flooded. All of her equipment is ruined. Which insurance should she submit a claim to first?
A. E and O insurance
B. Homeowners insurance
C. None, this is not covered by insurance
D. Business insurance

A

D. Business insurance

Rationale: business insurance covers your business property, such as computers, office furniture, and other equipment.

124
Q

Which of the following is not an example of lifelong learning?
A. Maintaining continuing education credits for professional licensure
B. Mentoring a new patient advocate
C. Obtaining EOM insurance
D. Teaching a class on advance directives for other healthcare professionals

A

C. Obtaining EOM Insurance

Rationale: board-certified patient at the kids participate and then continued learning of their colleagues by sharing information and resources for the benefit of the profession and the public. And example might be teaching a class for other healthcare professionals or creating a list of community resources and sharing with other healthcare professionals. We are applicable, advocates Shelton continuing education credits as dictated by professional license and regulatory/credentialing bodies. Advocates shall consult with colleagues regarding challenging client situations and view it as an opportunity to learn. To foster the development of the advocacy profession and junior colleagues, advocates will participate in the professional development of other patient advocates by mentoring or participating in professional education programs, as appropriate.

125
Q

What is the primary purpose of participating in the continued learning of colleagues by sharing information and resources?
A. To gain continuing education credits
B. Gain credibility in the profession
C. Benefit the profession and the public
D. Increase client referrals

A

C. Benefit the profession and the Public

Rationale: Advocates participate in the continued learning of their colleagues by sharing information and resources for the benefit of the profession and the public.

126
Q

Susan is meeting with Betty’s son, Victor, at Betty’s house to evaluate the home for Betty’s return. As they are making a list of modifications that need to be done, Victor ask Susan if she can clean the dishes that were left on washed, clean sheets, and tidy up the bedroom. What is Susan’s best response?
A. Let me see if I can find someone who can come in and clean for your mom and if it is covered in her benefits
B. Sure, I am happy to help. Is there anything else I should do?
C. Oh, I think you can do that
D. We can leave those for the home health aide to do

A

A. Let me see if I can find someone who can come in and clean for your mom and if it is covered in her benefits

Rationale: Susan wants to be careful that she does not set an expectation that she will always do housework.

127
Q
Susan is an independent patient advocate. What type of insurance does she need to protect her office equipment?
A.  Home insurance
B.  Auto insurance
C.  Business insurance
D.  Errors and omissions insurance
A

C. Business insurance

Rationale: business insurance covers your business property such as computers, office furniture and other equipment. It does not cover liability.

128
Q

Thanks to Susan’s advocating, Betty has returned home from the hospital. What is one strategy Susan can recommend to prevent further medication interactions?
A. Use one pharmacy
B. Switch doctors
C. Ask for a pharmacy review when she refills her medications
D. Have home health prepare her pillbox each week

A

A. Use one pharmacy

Rationale: clients and caregivers can be educated to use one pharmacy. One pharmacy is safer because if all medications are in one place, the pharmacy can quickly check for interactions. It is always a good idea to have interactions chat anytime a new prescription is added.

129
Q

John, Pharmacy representative, I Purchased Susan with an idea for Susan to post an advertisement for a particular medication on her website. Jon promises Susan that she will receive $200 a week for placing the ad on her website. Which advocacy guiding principles would guide Susan’s response?
A. Advocate role and transparency
B. Advocate role and avoidance of impropriety
C. Avoidance of discriminatory practice and professional development
D. Avoidance of impropriety and transparency

A

B. Advocate role and avoidance of impropriety

Rationale: advocate role - advocates cannot recommend specific treatment choices, provide clinical opinion, or perform medical care of any type, even if they possess the Clinical credentials. Avoidance of impropriety - ever gets cannot except compensation for referring clients to other providers or services, nor can they steal clients to products or services in which the advocate will profit. This applies to paid advertising for Products or other service providers on the advocates website. Additionally, advocates cannot require a client to purchase or subscribe to any outside service to benefit from the advocate’s service.

130
Q
Which law strives to make healthcare more affordable, extends the life of Medicare and improves healthcare quality?
A.  Hospice bill of rights
B.  Affordable care act
C.  AHA patient’s bill of rights
D.  Self-determination act
A

B. Affordable care act

Rationale: the overarching goals of the ACA are to make healthcare affordable, improve quality and safety, and extend the life of Medicare.

131
Q

The patient self-determination act PSDA of 1990 requires that all healthcare institutions which receive funding for Medicare or Medicaid to do which of the following?
A. Provide all patients with a written information regarding informed consent
B. Provide all patients with a written information about advance directives
C. Ensure healthcare to all patients regardless of ability to pay
D. Provide all patients with written information regarding financial obligations

A

B. Provide all patients with written information about advance directives

Rationale: PSDA requires all healthcare institutions receiving Medicare or Medicaid reimbursement to ask patients that they admit if they have an advance directive. If the patient does not, institution is required to provide written information about advance directives.

132
Q
Healthcare reform that deals with placing capitation on pain and suffering and limits attorney fees is called:
A.  Malpractice litigation Reform
B.  Provider reform
C.  Scope of practice reform
D.  Health service planning reform
A

A. Malpractice litigation Reform

Rationale: malpractice litigation reform deals with limits on attorney fees and limits on liability and capitation set for pain and suffering.

133
Q

Which of the following is an acceptable practice for Susan, a board-certified patient advocate?
A. Excepting a commission for referrals to a dietitian
B. Requiring clients to purchase her book before entering into a client/advocate relationship
C. Having paid advertising for a plastic surgeon on her website
D. Allowing her client to buy her dinner, valued at $37.50

A

D. Allowing her client to buy her dinner, valued at $37.50

Rationale: advocates cannot except compensation for referring clients to other providers or services, nor can they steer clients to products or services in which the advocate will profit. This applies to paid advertising for products or other service providers or the advocates website. Additionally, advocates cannot require a client to purchase or subscribe to any outside service in order to benefit from the advocate service. An advocate may except a gift from a client that is not of substantial value, but may not except multiple gifts with a combined value that is substantial. The patient advocacy certification board considers anything valued over $75 as substantial.

134
Q
Robert and Susan are discussing discrimination. Susan does not believe Robert when he says discrimination is still a problem. Robert uses this scenario to illustrate his point: “last night at the local emergency room, four people arrived at the same time. All four of the same age, have similar symptoms and vital signs. One person was white, one was Asian, one was African-American, and one was Hispanic. Based on statistics, of the four people who arrived which one will wait the longest to be seen?”
A.  Hispanic
B.  African-American
C.  White
D.  Asian
A

B. African-American

Rationale: African-Americans are more likely to visit but leave the emergency department without being seen, compared to whites, and African-Americans wait longer to be seen than any other groups. African Americans were 30% more likely than whites to die prematurely from heart disease and 2010, and African-American men are twice as likely as whites to die prematurely from stroke. African-Americans, Asians, American Indians/Alaska native, and Hispanics continue to lag behind whites in the percentage of the population over 50 who receive colon cancer screening, and this gap has widened in recent years.

135
Q
A conglomeration of the same type of hospital is known as a:
A.  Kaiser Permanente
B.  Vertical network
C.  Horizontal network
D.  Integrated
A

C. Horizontal network

Rationale: a horizontal network is a conglomeration of multiple institutions of the same type. And example is Shriners hospital.

136
Q

Roberts client, Mr. Green, has just been diagnosed with Adenor carcinoma. He has selected oncologist that Robert knows has a reputation is having a poor track record with this type of cancer and has had multiple malpractice lawsuits. Which ethical standards would best guide Roberts choice of action?
A. Continuing education and professional development, advocate role, avoidance of impropriety and conflict of interest, and provision of competent services
B. Advocate role, fostering autonomy, protecting confidentiality and privacy, and continuing education and professional development
C. Avoidance of discriminatory practices, avoidance of impropriety and conflict of interest, and transparency and honest disclosure
D. Advocate role, transparency and honest disclosure, provision of competent services, and fostering autonomy

A

D. Advocate role, transparency and honest disclosure, provision of competent services, and fostering autonomy

Rationale: the advocate roll speaks to Roberts role as a facilitator guide which provide clients with information to make informed choices. Transparency and honesty disclosure speaks to the mandate for Robert to maintain integrity and the conduct of his practice. Provision of confidence Services requires that Robert refrain from offering opinions about the skills or attitude of other healthcare professionals. Fostering autonomy requires that Robert respect Mr. Green’s ability to choose, provided Mr. Green has a complete and accurate information.

137
Q

Which of the following adds to healthcare disparity?
A. CLAS
B. Increased number of retail clinics
C. EMTALA
D. 60 million Americans living in a primary care shortage area

A

D. 60 million Americans living in a primary care shortage area

Rationale: there is a shortage of primary care physicians, resulting in 60 million Americans living in a primary care shortage area. Areas with higher ratio is a primary care physicians to population have much lower total healthcare costs and other regions, adding to healthcare disparity.

138
Q
What does the prefix melan/o describe?
A.  Within
B.  The color black
C.  Muscle
D.  Skin
A

B. The color black

Rationale: melan/o means the color black, and example is melanoma

139
Q
Daddy is transferring to a skilled nursing facility. Which rule for extended Medicare benefit applies to clients transferring to a skilled nursing facility:
A.  Observation rule
B.  The three midnight rule
C.  Transition rule
D.  Stop loss rule
A

B. The three midnight rule

Rationale: skilled nursing facility SNF is covered if it follows within 30 days of a hospital stay in which the person was inpatient for three days or more and is deemed medically necessary

140
Q
When interviewing a new client, the patient advocate should avoid questions that begin with:
A.  When
B.  How
C.  Why
D.  What
A

C. Why

Rationale: avoid questions that begin with why because they require the client to provide a reason. Not only do some people find it difficult to explain their actions, but they also may simply feel providing reasons is an invasion of privacy and intrusive. Why questions can also seem accusatory to some people, as if the advocate is finding fault with your actions or choices.

141
Q
What type of hospice program has no facility except an office?
A.  Inpatient-based program
B.  Inpatient-based hospice team program
C.  Community-based program
D.  Free standing Hospice
A

C. Community-based program

Rationale: a community-based hospice has no facility, just an office, and home care is the focus.

142
Q

Susan has identified a conflict of interest in her relationship with Jane. In order for Susan to enter an advocate/client relationship with Jane, Susan will need:
A. Referred Jane to another advocate
B. Jane’s informed consent in writing
C. Have no more contact with Jane’s sister
D. To sell her stocking Herceptin a common breast cancer treatment.

A

B. Jane’s informed consent in writing

Rationale: in the event of a conflict of interest, the average cannot start or continue services with a client unless both of the following are true: 1) The advocate will be able to provide competent and diligent services to the client, and 2) the client gives informed consent in writing.

143
Q

Robert works in a children’s hospital. He has been called the room of Miguel Lopez. His mother is very distraught and is refusing to allow the nursing assistant to remove a bit of ribbon around the child’s wrist. What is Robert’s best course of action?
A. Take the ribbon off Miguel’s wrist himself
B. Advocate of the ribbon stay on Miguel’s wrist
C. Ask the nursing assistant to call pastoral care
D. Explain to Mrs. Lopez that the ribbon must come off

A

B. Advocate that the ribbon stays on Miguel’s wrist

Rationale: in the Mexican culture, jewelry may have religious or spiritual meaning. (advocate that the stay on the client or at least with the client).

144
Q

Betty is 82 and has returned home from the hospital. She would like to become less socially isolated. What community resource could Susan help her access that would address social isolation?
A. Vocational therapy
B. Day treatment programs
C. Occupational therapy
D. Women’s, infant, and children program (WIC)

A

B. Day treatment programs

Rationale: this is the only choice it will expose Betty to other people her own age and help with social isolation

145
Q

Susan is an independent advocate. She has been contacted about advocating for Ann. Which of the following would qualify as a conflict of interest for this relationship?
A. Anne and Susan attended the same high school
B. Susan is a silent partner in Ann’s doctor’s practice
C. Susan owns stock in Herceptin a common breast cancer treatment
D. Susan is a personal friend of Ann’s sister

A

B. Susan is a silent partner in Ann’s doctor’s practice

Rationale: the patient advocate board defines conflict of interest as a situation with the potential to undermine the impartiality of a person because of the possibility of a clash between the persons self interest and professional interest or public interest. C is not correct because we do not know the Ann has breast cancer and or that Herceptin would be one of the treatments. A is not correct, because this does not mean that Susan will not still be impartial and D has no bearing on the situation

146
Q

Which of the following is not an example of continuing education and professional development?
A. Completing a continuing education module on chronic conditions
B. Mentoring new advocates
C. Refusing difficult patients due to inexperience
D. Attending a conference on patient safety

A

C. Refusing difficult patient’s due to inexperience

Rationale: in order to keep pace with rapid changes in healthcare, keep knowledge and skills current, and develop professionally, advocates are committed to lifelong learning. When patient advocates are faced with challenging clients situations, they consult with colleagues in order to learn from them. Advocates foster development of the advocacy profession and novice colleagues by contributing to the professional development of them by mentoring or participating in professional development programs.

147
Q
Miss Ross pays an annual membership fee, occasionally she has a separate appointment fee. She enjoys short wait times, extended appointments, and her physician is available 24/7. What type of ambulatory delivery format does this describe?
A.  Concierge practice
B.  Retail practice
C.  Solo practice
D.  Primary care medical home
A

A. Concierge practice

Rationale: boutique/concierge practice: these clinics focus on patients who would like a high level of service (e.g. short wait times, extended appointments, and Physicians were available 24/7) and are willing to pay for it. Boutique or concierge practice is typically charge an annual membership fee, sometimes along with separate appointment fees, and can therefore, afford to keep the total patient load low and have more time for each patient.

148
Q

Susan’s contract with Jane must include all of the following except:
A. Resume and references
B. Clear definition of scope of practice
C. Terms of engagement, include criteria for appropriate termination of relationship
D. Fee schedule

A

A. Resume and references

Rationale: independent advocates who provide a service for a fee have an obligation to disclose their fees, training, education, experience, and credentials. They must provide their curriculums vitae or resume and references upon request. Additionally, they must disclose any existing contractual relationships with manufacturers, distributors of products or providers of services they use to assist clients. The contract was also outlined the projected length and scope of the relationship, as well as criteria for termination of the agreement.

149
Q
Dr. Black is a primary care provider. He carries a typical patient load. He strives to adhere to current guidelines. According to Duke University how many hours a day with Dr. Black need to work?
A.  13.2
B.  22.6
C.  18.9
D.  10.8
A

B. 22.6

Rationale: do you conversely researchers estimate that: given the typical patient load and the current guidelines for care, a PCP should be spending 7.4 hours per day on preventive care, 10.6 hours on managing chronic diseases, and 4.6 hours on handling acute illness - totaling 22.6 hours a day. When your clients wonder why appointments or short or there is a long wait time, this is part of the reason why. Another contributor is the primary care physician shortage.

150
Q

Susan has a new client who is Filipino. She’s unfamiliar with this culture. How should she proceed?
A. Refused to help the client
B. Treat them like everyone else
C. Treat them like a Vietnamese client she cared for last week
D. Learn about preferences and consider those when helping the client

A

D. Learn about preferences and consider those when helping the client

Rationale: when an advocate is unfamiliar with clients ethnic or cultural background, the advocate will work to understand preferences and include that regard in to provision of the client’s healthcare.

151
Q
Which ethical principle is linked to self determination?
A.  Justice
B.  Veracity
C.  Autonomy
D.  Confidentiality
A

C. Autonomy

Rationale: the term autonomy refers to the right of self determination.

152
Q

General characteristic of care delivery includes:
A. Caregiver skills matched to patient needs
B. Caregiver length of service
C. Assignment of work based on electronic patient care assessment systems
D. Assignment of work based on staffing

A

A. Caregiver skills matched to patient needs

Rationale: general characteristics of care delivery includes caregiver skills matched to patient needs, caregiver role is defined and assignment of work based on competencies

153
Q
If not for profit hospital owned and operated by non-religious civic organizations and governed by a board of directors composed of locally prominent citizens is called:
A.  Secular
B.  Religious
C.  Hospitals of America
D.  Physician owned
A

A. Secular

Rationale: secular hospitals are not for profit hospitals that are owned and operated by non-religious civic organizations. They are governed by a Board of Directors composed of locally prominent citizens.

154
Q

A violation of professional boundaries on the part of the BCPA is:
A. Confining to the client that he, like the client, has an unfaithful spouse, so he understands the client’s stress
B. Assisting a client and placing a call to his utility company so the client can explain that he cannot pay the bill on time
C. Excepting a dozen donuts to be shared by all staff and the client’s son
D. Noticing that a client is crying and placing his hand on the client’s shoulder

A

A. Confining to the client that he, like the client, has an unfaithful spouse, so he understands the client’s stress

Rationale: as an advocate you’ll be dealing with very personal aspect of the client’s life, it is easy for lines to blur between what is personal and what is business. Clients can become very dependent on you and often dependency breeze familiarity. As the advocate, you need to make sure boundaries don’t get across. As long as the business relationship exists keep business and personal separate.

155
Q

Which of the following is not an example of fostering autonomy?
A. Encouraging a client to complete an advance directive
B. Respecting the clients decision to stop all treatment
C. Providing information on all alternative treatments
D. Having a relative translate treatment options for a Spanish-speaking client

A

D. Having a relative translate treatment options for a Spanish-speaking client

Rationale: by providing complete an accurate information, advocates work to ensure that clients are cognizant off and understand all care and treatment options, including the potential risk and benefits, and available alternatives. Interpreters must be specially trained and certified in medical translation to ensure that information is translated accurately.

156
Q

Which of the following is not true of the advocate role?
A. The role of the advocate is informational not medical
B. Advocates shall not provide clinical opinions unless they are licensed to do so
C. This role will be regarded at all times while using the BCPA regardless of compensation agreement with client
D. Advocates are committed to helping clients make informed choices

A

B. Advocates shall not provide clinical opinions unless they are licensed to do so

Rationale: board-certified patient advocates who are licensed medical professionals cannot provide clinical opinions or perform medical care of any kind. This role is maintained at all times that the title board-certified patient advocate disease regardless of the relationship status with the client

157
Q

Roberts client has recently had knee replacement surgery. While in the rehabilitation facility, the client and Robert are increasingly concerned about the care he is receiving. The client has been left in his wheelchair and has only been up to walk once in the last two days. Physical therapy has not been completed as ordered. Robert attempted to speak to the nursing staff and administration, but was told he needed to take it up with the doctors. Robert is meeting with a group of physicians regarding his client’s care. Which of the following strategies will serve Robert Best in this meeting?
A. Cite the guidelines for rehabilitation after knee replacement surgery
B. Threaten legal action if care does not improve
C. Suggest remedies without being overly directive
D. Using peer pressure to imply that care is substandard

A

C. Suggest remedies without being overly directive

Rationale: with an audience of experts such as physicians, the advocate should be careful not to be excessively directive and suggesting solutions for the client. The tone of communication is essential in medical settings were power disparities exist. Citing guidelines can certainly be a part of this, but it needs to be done in a collaborative manner.

158
Q

Susan is Mr. Adams’s patient advocate. Due to his hospitalization, Susan wants to make sure that Mr. Adams has the correct treatment instructions to manage his diabetes when he goes home. She requests a Spanish interpreter. However, the physician declined stating that Rosa, Mr. Adams’s 12-year-old niece can interpret. What should Susan do?
A. Nothing, the niece is a very bright young girl and should be fine
B. Report the physician and hospital to the joint commission
C. Remind the physician that best practice and joint commission standards are to provide a professional healthcare interpreter
D. Ask for a care conference

A

C. Remind the physician that best practice and joint commission standards act provide a professional healthcare interpreter

Rationale: advocates can cite shared collective interests to improve the care of clients

159
Q

Now that Betty has a legal surrogate, Susan should do which of the following:
A. Turn over all her documentation to the legal surrogate and close the case
B. Convey personal conversations she had with Betty regarding her wishes
C. Tell the legal surrogate what she thinks is best for Betty
D. Nothing Susan cannot share any information with the legal surrogate without consent from Betty

A

D. Nothing, Susan cannot share any information with the legal surrogate without consent from Betty

Rationale: similar to a medical power of attorney, illegal surrogate is often named as part of the LivingWell or advanced directive. Just because Betty has a legal surrogate does not mean that the Legal circuit has become a decision maker. When the legal surrogate becomes a decision maker, that would be the time for Susan to convey any personal conversations she had with Betty regarding her wishes. In the meantime, Susan will need Betty’s permission to share any information with the legal surrogate.

160
Q

John, a pharmacy representative, approaches Susan with an idea for Susan to steer clients to a certain drug. John promises renumeration for each recommendation that Susan makes. If Susan excepts, which ethical standards will she violate?
A. Avoidance of impropriety and transparency
B. Advocate role and avoidance of impropriety
C. Avoidance of discriminatory practice and professional development
D. Advocate role and transparency

A

B. Advocate role and avoidance of impropriety

Rationale: advocate roll - advocates cannot recommend specific treatment choices, provide clinical opinion is, or perform medical care of any type, even if they possess the Clinical credentials. Avoidance of impropriety - advocates cannot except compensation for referring clients to other providers or services, Newark and they said your clients to products or services in which the advocate will profit. This applies to paid advertising for Products or other service providers on their advocates website. Additionally, advocates cannot require a client to purchase or subscribe to any outside service in order to benefit from the Advocate service. Susan would not violate transparency if she disclosed her relationship with John to her clients.

161
Q
The characteristics of active listening include all of the following except:
A.  Reflection
B.  Persuasion
C.  Clarification
D.  Summarization
A

B. Persuasion

Rationale: persuasion is not an active listening skill. Clarification and questioning, reflection, and summarization or active listening skills.

162
Q

Mrs. Wright was just diagnosed with diabetes. Robert is looking for a health coach for her. He knows that a health coach can:
A. Teach Mrs. Wright about diabetes
B. Teacher Mrs. Wright how to prevent complications
C. Help Mrs. Wright achieve her goals
D. Help Mrs. Wright understand her insurance plans

A

C. Help Mrs. Wright achieve her goals

Rationale: the purpose of health coaching or wellness coaching is to help clients achieve their goals

163
Q
Robert is concerned that Mr. Green may be depressed. He knows the symptoms of depression in older adults include:
A.  Withdrawal and disturb sleep
B.  Angry outbursts
C.  Tremors
D.  Nausea and vomiting
A

A. Withdrawal and disturbed sleep

Rationale: older people may show clinical signs of depression, such as: with drawl, sleep disturbances, hopelessness, and possibly suicidal thoughts

164
Q
Managed care reimbursement in which there is a fixed amount paid per day regardless of the services provided, is the definition of:
A.  Per diem
B.  Global case rate
C.  Capitation
D.  Discounts
A

A. Per diem

Rationale: Perdiem is a reimbursement at a fixed amount per day, regardless of the services provided

165
Q

One of the four ethical principles guiding patient advocate practice is non-maleficence. To what does this term refers?
A. Avoiding practices that will harm the client
B. Distributing resources fairly
C. Helping clients balance the benefits against the risks
D. Assisting clients to make decisions that are right for them

A

A. Avoiding practices that will harm the client

Rationale: The four ethical principles guiding advocacy practice are: autonomy nonmaleficence, beneficence, and justice. Autonomy is self determination, helping clients determine the right course of action. Nonmaleficence is do no harm. Beneficence is assisting clients in determining the benefits against the risk. Justice is the distribution of resources fairly.

166
Q
Palliative care focuses on:
A.  Pain management
B.  Symptom management
C.  Family involvement
D.  All of these
A

B. Symptom management

Rationale: palliative care is intended for clients you need to improve the quality of life by managing symptoms, including pain management. Palliative care can begin at any time during an illness and is unrelated to the diagnosis or life expectancy. Clients can continue to receive curative treatments. Clients with life-threatening diseases can begin with palliative care to control pain and other symptoms and then may progressed to hospice care as the disease progresses.

167
Q

You’ve just been called by your client, Mary, who is in tears. Mary has worked as a clerk at a local department store for 12 years. She has just been laid off by her employer because the owner states the cost of healthcare for all 11 employees is too expensive. Mary has metastatic cancer and is afraid she cannot afford her own insurance. Your recommendation to her is based on the following?
A. Mary qualifies for protection from the American with disabilities act ADA and the family medical leave act FMLA and should apply for assistance
B. Mary should sue her employer for discrimination
C. Mary should apply for long-term disability and Medicaid
D. The ADA and FMLA apply only to employers with more than 15 and 50 employees, respectively.

A

D. The ADA and FMLA apply only to employers with more than 15 and 50 employees, respectively.

Rationale: because Mary works for a small business owner with fewer than 15 employees, she is not protected at the workplace by ADA and the FMLA. The Americans With Disabilities Act (ADA) applies to employers with 15 or more workers. The family and medical leave act (FMLA) applies to our government employers (local, state and federal) and to private businesses with 50 or more workers within 75 miles (with some exceptions). She would not win a suit against her employer given these conditions. She would not qualify for long-term disability since she is no longer employed. She should apply for Medicaid, for which she qualifies.

168
Q

Miss Brown has just learned that she has breast cancer. In appropriate action for Susan to take with Miss Brown is:
A. Referring Miss Brown to hospice services
B. Encouraging and your health follow ups
C. Encouraging participation in a consumer policy group for healthcare
D. Assisting with obtaining information

A

D. Assisting with obtaining information

Rationale: assisting with gathering of information is appropriate at the stage.

169
Q

Susan needs information from the pharmacy for Betty. She has obtain a release of information from Betty’s healthcare durable power of attorney (legal surrogate). What was the release of information contained for the standards for privacy of individually identifiable health information?
A. Include a date of when authorization expires, a description of information to be disclosed is not required
B. The release of information only applies to healthcare providers. Susan does not need a release of information
C. It must be received and Betty’s preferred language and include Susan’s name as she is receiving the information
D. Description of information to be disclosed as described, date, and signature of authorized person

A

D. Description of information to be disclosed as described, date, and signature of authorized person

Rationale: the authorization must include: a description of the information to be disclosed; the authorization last name specific persons or entities that can receive the information; it must include a date or event after when the authorization expires; the patient has a right to revoke authorization at any time

170
Q

Susan has recently passed the board certification and patient advocacy. She knows that maintain her credential she can either retake the exam or:
A. Obtain 30 continuing education credits within the next three years
B. Obtain 50 continuing education credits within the next five years
C. Obtain 40 continuing education credits within the next two years
D. Obtain 20 continuing education credits within the next two years

A

A. Obtain 30 continuing education credits within the next three years

Rationale: see the PACB CE handbook

171
Q
Beginning in 2020, once a Medicare part D beneficiary has reached $\_\_\_\_\_(includes what a patient and the plan and paid) in drug costs, they are responsible for 25% of the cost of their drugs.
A.  4020
B.  6350
C.  5340
D.  2480
A

A. 4020

Rationale: in 2020, once a person has reached $4020 (includes with the patient and the plan has paid) in drug costs, they are responsible for 25% of the cost of their drugs. For example, if a drug cost $100 and the patient previously paid a co-pay of $20 during the initial coverage period (up to the $4020), the patient will now pay $25.25 percent of $100 during the coverage gap (after $4020 has been reached).

172
Q
What does an approach to care of the consciously adopts the perspectives of individuals, families, and communities and sees them as participants as well as beneficiaries of trusted Health systems that respond to their needs and preferences in human and holistic ways describe?
A.  Client centered care
B.  Primary care medical home
C.  Social work
D.  Holistic nursing
A

A. Client centered care

Rationale: this is the world health organization definition of person centered care, another name for client centered care.

173
Q

People with low annual incomes:
A. Are 10 times more likely to have an adverse chemotherapy event
B. Rarely experience a definable difference in cancer survivorship or treatment outcomes based solely on their economic status
C. Are twice as likely to experience recurrence, treatment failure, or death as those with higher annual incomes
D. Are 3 to 7 times more likely to die of cancer than those with high annual incomes

A

D. Are 3 to 7 times more likely to die of cancer than those with high annual incomes

Rationale: people with low incomes are 3 to 7 times more likely to die of cancer than those with high annual incomes

174
Q

In a medical encounter, what are the two most dangerous times for patients?
A. During transitions and change of shift
B. When surgery is necessary and anytime a patient is transferred to a gurney
C. When medications are administered and during transitions
D. When medications are dispensed and ambulating in the hospital

A

C. When medications are administered and during transitions

Rationale: the most dangerous times for patients are when medications are administered and during transitions. Remember a change of shift is just another type of transition in that it is a transition from one care team to another, so both choices in D are essentially the same. Medical errors occur on average of one per patient per day and most errors occur station. This along with any type of transitions are dangerous times for patients.

175
Q

Susan’s client is very dissatisfied with her healthcare team and has become very difficult to work with. Susan is not sure what she should do. What is the best next step for Susan to take?
A. Seek out colleagues, mentors or other experts
B. Drop the case
C. Ask another advocate to take her client
D. Refer her client to a social worker

A

A. Seek out colleagues, mentors or other experts

Rationale: board-certified patient advocates take the initiative to seek out colleagues, mentors, and other experts regarding challenging client situations.

176
Q

Mr. Green is on Medicare and has abdominal pain. He sees his PCP on Tuesday at 9 AM, who sends him to urgent care. Urgent care since him to the emergency room. The emergency room since I’m up to the meds/surge floor at noon where he is given a room and treated just like any other patient on the floor. Mr. Green receives an MRI, and several tests to isolate the cause of his abdominal pain. He is also given IV antibiotics and anti-nausea medication. The next morning, Mr. Green is given a MOON form. Which of the following are true?
A. Medicare pays for all Mr. Green’s treatment since he has a room on the med/surge floor
B. The MOON form is a Medicare notice letting Mr. Green know that he has officially been admitted to the hospital
C. Mr. Green will not have to pay a copayment if he is transferred to an SNF
D. Mr. Green will need to pay the 20% copayment for all the tests and medications he received in the hospital and there is no limit to the out-of-pocket expenses he may have to pay.

A

D. Mr. Green will need to pay the 20% copayment for all the tests and medications he received in the hospital and there is no limit to the out-of-pocket expenses he may have to pay.

Rationale: the MOON form is a standardize notice to inform beneficiaries that they are an outpatient receiving observation services and are not an inpatient of the hospital. With that means is that Medicare treats Mr. Green as if you were still at the clinic, even though he spent the night. That means that Mr. Green needs to pay the 20% copayment for all the tests and medications he received in the hospital and there is no limit to the out-of-pocket expenses he may have to pay.

177
Q
Susan’s client, Reyansh, has depression. He tells Susan he’s undergoing Shirodhara treatments. Susan understands that this is a method designed to:
A.  Remove an invisible magical object
B.  Recover the soul
C.  Restore yang
D.  Restore dosha
A

D. Restore dosha

Rationale: Shirodhara
is a method to restore dosha . In the traditional Hindu culture, it makes a Food, minerals, and herbs may restore the balance between the three dosha or elements which relate to the different functions: air (respiratory system), fire (digestive system), and water (bodily fluids).

178
Q

What type of managed care plan that combines features of HMOs and PPOs and allows a person to see Physicians and care providers with any network and seek outside treatment in some situations is:
A. Exclusive provider organization (EPO)
B. Point of service plan (POS)
C. Preferred provider organization (PPO)
D. Integrated care organization (ICO)

A

B. Point of service plan (POS)

Rationale: the POS is a hybrid that combines features of HMOs and PPOs. This hybrid allows the client to choose a physician is either in network or out of network. The clients PCP oversees referrals to out of network providers. In contrast to a PPO, when the services are obtained out of network, the beneficiary has a higher deductible, higher coinsurance, and higher copayments to make. To receive services, the beneficiary must first pay the deductible and the co-pay.