FN/AET Equipment Test Flashcards

1
Q

Who is responsible for Fuselage Trainer Safety?

A

D. All of the above

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2
Q

To turn on the AWIS, you have to press the _______ buttons simutaneously

A

C. “Up” and “Down”

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3
Q

What is the purpose of the AWIS and who all utilizes it?

A

C. Wireless communication between Aeromedical Evacuation Crew Members and Critical Care Air Transport Teams

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4
Q

_______ will provide overall guidance for the operational aspects and requirements of the EFB Iniative.

A

A. AMC/A3

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5
Q

All of the following litters can be used in the AE System, EXCEPT _________.

A

A. Nylon Litter

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6
Q

A litter with a canvas tear of greater than ____ require services and will not be used for patient transport.

A

B. 1 inch

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7
Q

The two positions a backrest can be placed on a litter are:

A

B. 30 and 90 degrees

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8
Q

When it is permitted to carry a littler with a backrest with only 2 people?

A

B. In the interest of safety once inside the aircraft

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9
Q

How many medication kits will you take with you on an AE mission to support 10 patients?

A

C. 3

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10
Q

Increment 2 is the 887A Allowance Standard is added to support __________.

A

C. 26-60 patients

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11
Q

Based on the 887A Allowance Standard, what are the names of ALL the In-Flight Kit bag sets?

A

D. ABC Rollpack, Airway, Bulk, Patient Comfort and Solutions

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12
Q

What AFI provides a standardizes listing of available medical equipment and has completed all airworthiness testing and has safe to fly certification
for use on both fixed and rotary wing aircraft?

A

A. AFI 10-2909

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13
Q

A _____ indicates operating procedures and technique which could result in personal injury or loss of life if not careful followed.

A

D. Warning

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14
Q

An operational Preflight will be performed on medical equipment within ______ prior to mission launch

A

C. 24 hours

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15
Q

A ________ is an abbreviated assessment of the medical equipment on the mission’s aircraft by that mission’s assigned aeromedical evacuation crew-members to ensure the equipment function on aircraft power

A

B. Functional Check

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16
Q

The appropriate vacuum setting on the IMPACT 326M Portable Suction Unit for an adult patient is ______

A

C. -80 to -120 mm HG

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17
Q

The charge light on the IMPACT 326M Portable Suction Unit will not illuminate if the battery if fully charged.

A

A. True

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18
Q

What is the purpose of a Chest Drainage Unit?

A

D. All of the above

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19
Q

When utilizing the Atrium Express 4050 Dry Seal Chest Drain, sterile fluid is not required for air leak detection.

A

B. False

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20
Q

How many channels does the IVAC MedSystem III have?

A

C. 3

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21
Q

The IVAC MedSystem III can operate on 400 HZ

A

B. False

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22
Q

The NPTLOX System has the capacity to store _______ litters of liquid oxygen.

A

D. 20

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23
Q

The accessory kit on the NPTLOX contains all of the following, EXCEPT

A

A. Three minilators.

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24
Q

All of the following are WARNINGS associated with the NPTLOX, EXCEPT __________.

A

D. Leather work/nomex gloves are required with connecting oxygen components.

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25
Q

There are ____ sizes of Bag Valve Masks (BVM) Resuscitators available in the IFK.

A

B. 3

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26
Q

The Minilator can provide oxygen for up to ___ patients from a single oxygen source.

A

D. 5

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27
Q

To spot check the patients arterial hemoglobin oxygen saturation using the Pulse Oximeter NONIN, insert the patients finger, nail side down, into the oximeter until the fingertip touches the built-in stop guide.

A

B. False

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28
Q

When measuring an Nasopharyngeal Airway (NPA) measure from _________.

A

A. Tip of nose to angle of jaw

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29
Q

It is important to advance the King Airway carefully until the base of the connector is level with the teeth or gums.

A

A. True

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30
Q

When utilizing the Zoll Propaq MD defibrillator during manual defibrillation with the hands free therapy electrodes (Pads), what are the 4 sequential steps taken to shock a patient?

A

C. Select energy level, charge the defibrillator, clear the patient, shock

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31
Q

A ______ must be places under the patient’s body for eletrical insulation when defibrillation is performed on the aircraft foor.

A

D. Cotton blanket

32
Q

The Zoll Propaq MD defibrillator has two pacer mode settings, what are they?

A

C. Fixed and Demand

33
Q

The Propaq vital signs montior has all of the following capabilities EXCEPT _______.

A

C. Allows for automated arrhythmia analysis

34
Q

When placing a patient in restrains, ensure the locking device is placed between the wrist cuffs.

A

B. False

35
Q

At a MINIMUM, how many individuals are required to work together to place the patient in restraints?

A

B. 3

36
Q

The manufacturer’s instructions for the KCI V.A.C Freedom System (Wound Therapy System) states the system should not be off for more than ___ hours within a 24 hour period. If the wound vac system is off longer than that time, the risk of wound infection increases due to the pooling of secretions within the wound.

A

A. 2

37
Q

AECMS will take the following actions for non-correctable KCI V.A.C Freedom System (Wound Therapy System) failures during flight:

A

D. All of the above

38
Q

The EZ-IO Intraosseous Vascular Access System offers six approved sites for safe, fast access in both emergent and non-emergency situations. The following are approved sites for access EXCEPT ______.

A

C. Distal Sternum

39
Q

The Military PCA Pump is used primarily for infusion of medicines and/or fluids for:

A

A. Pain Management

40
Q

The military PCA pump must be locked to clear the patient history

A

B. False

41
Q

What will you have available to use in the Simulation Center

A

D. All of the above

42
Q

It is important to ensure that the Battery Type Switch in the battery compartment of the AWIS transceiver is in the proper position. What position must the Battery Type Switch be for disposable batteries?

A

D, Alkaline

43
Q

What is the purpose of the AWIS and who ALL utilizes it?

A

C. Wireless communication between Aeromedical Evacuation Crew Members and Critical Care Air Transport Team

44
Q

What does EFB stand for?

A

B. Electronic Flight Bag

45
Q

All of the following litters can be used in the AE System, EXCEPT ______

A

A. Nylon Litter

46
Q

When using the NATO litter, do not exceed the MAXIMUM load of _______.

A

B. 250 lbs

47
Q

What degree position for the patient can the backrest be placed for takeoff, landing, enplaning or deplaning?

A

A. 30 degrees

48
Q

Proper placement of the litter strap is required to retain both the patient and the NATO backrest in position during deceleration after landing. what is the proper placement of the litter strap?

A

B. Secure the litter strap across the patient’s chest in the axiliary region and around the litter through the llitter stirrups.

49
Q

How many patients does Increment 1 in the 887A Allowance Standard Support?

A

C. 1-25 patients

50
Q

Based on the 887A Allowance Standard, what are the names of all the in-flight kit bag sets?

A

D. ABC rollpack, Airway, Bulk, Patient Comfort and soluations

51
Q

Aeromedical Evacuations units will download the most current 887A Allowance Standards/Pack-Out Guide _________.

A

C. Quarterly

52
Q

What AFI provides policy for Aeromedical Evacuation Operations?

A

D. AFI 11-2AEV3

53
Q

You need to submit a waiver request to use non-certified/non-standard equipment in-flight. In order to prevent mission delays, verbal waivers from A3VM are authorized.

A

A. True

54
Q

An Operation Preflight will be performed on medical equipment within _____ prior to mission launch

A

C. 24 hours

55
Q

A complete and thorough assessment of the condition and status of medical equipment that will be accomplished prior to mission launch by a qualified Aeromedical Evacuation personnel, in accordance with the medical equipment preflight checklist.

A

D. Operational Preflight

56
Q

What is the purpose of a Chest Drainage Unit?

A

D. All of the above

57
Q

Use of the Himlich valve with the Atrium Chest Drainage Unit could cause great risk to a patient during a rapid decompression

A

A. True

58
Q

the IVAC MedSystem III is designed to accurately administer ________.

A

D. All of the above

59
Q

During the preflight, the Infusion pump will automatically cycle through a “Homing Sequence” All of the events will occur during this time, except ______.

A

C. “Homing Sequence” Will flash on the display screen

60
Q

For the NPTLOX to function properly, the battery “TEST” button on the NPTLOX should range between

A

C. 10.0 to 16.0

61
Q

A minimum of 10 liters of liquid oxygen per NPTLOX will be carried on all AE missions

A

B. False

62
Q

All of the following are WARNINGS associated with the NPTLOX except ________.

A

D. Leather work/nomex gloves are required when connecting oxygen components.

63
Q

When utilizing the child and infant Bag Valve Mask (BVM) Resuscitators, ensure the non re-breathing valve with ______ limiting device is in place.

A

D. Pressure

64
Q

The minilator was designed for and can be used to support ventilator devices

A

B. False

65
Q

The Pulse Oximeter NON can be used on ______

A

D. Pediatric through adult patients

66
Q

When measuring an Oropharyngeal Airway (OPA), measure from _____.

A

Corner of mouth to angle of jaw.

67
Q

Select the correct King Airway based on the patient’s

A

C. Height and Weight.

68
Q

The ZOLL Propaq MD defibrillator can deliver biphasic energy from _____

A

B. 1J - 200J

69
Q

When utilizing the ZOLL Propaq MD defibrillator during manual defibrillation with the hands free therapy electrodes (Pads), what are the 4 sequential steps taken to shock a patient?

A

C. Select energy level, charge the defibrillator, clear the patient, shock

70
Q

The ZOLL Propaq MD defibrillator has two made mode settings. in ____ pacing pulses are only delivered when the patient’s heart rate is lower than the selected pacing rate in the Pacer Setting window.

A

C. Demand

71
Q

For the Propaq Vital Signs monitor to operate properly during preflight, the battery indicator must be charged to greater than ______.

A

C. 7.8V

72
Q

When applying restraints, adjust the wrist strap so the patient is able to touch his or her face.

A

A. True

73
Q

When you preflight the restrains, ensure the restraint key opens the locking device. It is critical there are no compatible/operable restraint keys available and caregivers know placement _________.

A

A. Prior to flight

74
Q

The manufacturer’s instruction for the KCI V.A.C. Freedom System (Wound Therapy System) states the system should not be off for more than ___ hours within a 24 hour period. If the wound vac system is off longer than that time, the risk of wound infection increases due to the pooling of secretions within the wound.

A

A. 2

75
Q

The KCI V.A.C Freedom (Wound Therapy System) is located in the AE Medical Equipment Compendium.

A

A. True

76
Q

How many preset programs are on the military PCA pump?

A

D. 5

77
Q

The military PCA pump’s bolus button will blink _____ every 2 seconds when functioning properly.

A

B. Green