Block 4

Question 1

Who is the Command for worldwide Aeromedical Evacuation?

Answer 1

B. Air Mobility Command

Question 2

Air Force Instruction (AFI) implement Air Force Policy Directives. AFI 48-307, Volume 1 provides _____.

Answer 2

B. Clinical information and guidelines to promote safe and effective en-route care for Department of Defense beneficiaries

Question 3

The Patient Movement Request (PMR) contains all of the information below, EXCEPT _____.

Answer 3

C. Departure times

Question 4

What is the classification for a litter patient who is able to sit in a seat and should be able to ambulate with assistance in the event of an emergency?

Answer 4

C. 2B

Question 5

You are transporting a psychiatric patient on your AE mission today. The patient is in retrains, sedated, and has a medical attendant with him. The patient classification is:

Answer 5

A. 1A

Question 6

For a patient with “Priority” precedency movement should commence within _____ of a validated Patient Movement Request (PMR)?

Answer 6

C. 24 Hours

Question 7

If an ACLS-credentialed staff member is not available from the destination Military Treatment Facility (MTF), an ACLS-credentialed AECM will obtain/maintain custody and care of the patient to teh destination MTF>

Answer 7

A. True

Question 8

The appropriate vehicle support, personnel, and equipment Unit Type Code (UTC) must be tasked to the En-Route Patient Staging (ERPS)

Answer 8

A. True

Question 9

______ communication is an interactive process of effectively relaying current patient-specific information from one caregiver to another to ensure the continuity of patient care.

Answer 9

C. Hand-off

Question 10

A Non-Medical Attendant (NMA) is responsible for everything below, EXCEPT

Answer 10

A. Documenting on the 3899 series

Question 11

The primary survey is accomplished at the scene or when th epatient is initially seen by the medical personnel at a first aid station, Military Treatment Facility, En-Route Patient Staging, or at the flight line. Life threatening conditions are identified and management begins before flight. In the AE Environment, what are the most reliable primary assessment skills?

Answer 11

C. Inspection and Palpation

Question 12

Any position, even the most comfortable one, may have an adverse effect on a patient over time. Knowing this, patients should be re-positioned at least every )_____.

Answer 12

B. 2 hours

Question 13

The __________ is used throughout the DoD Medical Service to identify patients at risk for developing skin breakdown or pressure ulcers.

Answer 13

B. Braden Scale

Question 14

Litters will be prepared with the following, EXCEPT ________.

Answer 14

Four litter straps

Question 15

Patient Movement Items (PMI) will remain with the patient to the destination Military Treatment Facility (MTF), whether it is an intra- or Inter-theater transfer.

Answer 15

A. Trus

Question 16

During an AE mission, when is it appropiate to triage patients?

Answer 16

D. All of the above

Question 17

What form is utilized by the Aeromedical Evacuation Crew Members (AECM) when determining the location of the Emergency Get-Down Litter, Emergency Equipment Litter, medications, crew member seats, and patient placement on the aircraft?

Answer 17

B. AF Form 3905, Patient Positioning Plan

Question 18

During the transfer of patient care, it is essential to limit interruptions and distractions to allow time for questions and responses if operationally feasible.

Answer 18

A. True

Question 19

In the I-SBAR mnemonic, the “S’’ represents ________.

Answer 19

C. Situation

Question 20

AECMs will document a(an) ________ as the first clinical entry for each mission on the

Answer 20

A. Trip Segment

Question 21

Focus-DART charting is a systematic approach to documentation, using medical terminology to describe the patient’s health status, interventions, treatments, and patient education. The “t” in DART represents _________.

Answer 21

C. Teaching

Question 22

When verbal orders are created in EHR, they must be given an expiration date. The order expires ______ after it is created.

Answer 22

B. 5 Days

Question 23

Patient movement documentation is mandatory for all patients in the patient movement system. All times must be documented in Zulu, types or printed legibly using blue or black ink. Which of the following forms is a legal medical document and part of the patient’s permanent medical treatment records?

Answer 23

B. AF Form 3899 Patient Movement Record

Question 24

All patient movement Requirement Centers are to report all class A, and Class B events to USTRANSCOM/SG immediately. The completed DD Form 2852, Aeromedical Evacuation Event/Near Miss Report, for class A, B and C events must be faxed or submitted within how many hours of the event?

Answer 24

B. 24 Hours

Question 25

At the end of a mission, the MCD submits all completed DD Form 2852s, Patient Movement Event/Near Miss Report, to the Unit or Squadron Patient Safety Managers, detachment or as locally defined to be entered into the TRAC2ES reporting system. Once submitted, the DD Form 2852 will then be places in the patient’s permanent medical record.

Answer 25

B. False

Question 26

who is responsible for appointing a squadron Patient Safety monitor and ensures members receive proper training?

Answer 26

A. Commander

Question 27

What command is responsible for the implementation and oversight of a Patient Movement Patient Safety (PMPS) program within their theater?

Answer 27

C. Geographic Combatant Coammnd

Question 28

The patient’s ______________ will be used on the radio or telephone to identify the patient due to HIPPA regulations?

Answer 28

B. Cite Number

Question 29

Minors under the age of ____ will have an attendant.

Answer 29

B. 14

Question 30

If an active duty service member requests to leave the AE system, the MCD may release active duty patients/attendant only upon the recommendation and concurrence from whom?

Answer 30

C. Competent medical authority’s recommendation and concurrence of the active duty member’s commander

Question 31

While flying on an AE mission to Andrews Air Force Base, Maryland, there was an apparent patient death in flight. If a physician is onboard during the flight, he/she may NOT pronounce death in flight

Answer 31

B. False

Question 32

The pilot notifies you that engine three is down and that there is an estimated mission delay of four hours. As an AECM, you expect the next course of action to be _______.

Answer 32

D. Move the patients to the nearest medical facility.

Question 33

Conflicts should be resolved at the lowest level possible prior to elevating to C2.

Answer 33

A. True

Question 34

Use _______ precautions when handling blood and blood products.

Answer 34

D. Standard

Question 35

Dry ice, salted wet ice, water frozen in polyurethane bags, super cooled canned ice, and commercial “blue ice” containers will not be used for re-icing liquid blood product shipments.

Answer 35

A. True

Question 36

AE Clinical protocols are standing orders that have been signed by AMC/SGKC (En-Route Care Medical Director)

Answer 36

A. True

Question 37

The AECM will document the use of any AE Clinical Protocol on the ___________.

Answer 37

B. AF Form 3899, Patient Movement Record series

Question 38

while flying on an AE mission, you receive a needle stick from a needle that was just used on a patient. utilizing the Aeromedical Evacuation Clinical Protocol: Health Care Worker Blood and Body Fluid Post Exposure Plan, you know that the two medications you need to take as soon as operationally possible are ______.

Answer 38

C. Raltegravis (Isentress; RAL) & Truvada

Question 39

Who is responsible for operational planning, scheduling and execution of intra-theater AE missions?

Answer 39

C. Aeromedical Evacuation Control Team (AECT)

Question 40

Air Force Instructions (AFI) implement Air Force Policy Directive AFI 48-307, Volume 1 provides _______.

Answer 40

B. Clinical information and guidelines to promote safe and effective en-route care for Department of Defense beneficiaries.

Question 41

What is the purpose of the Patient Movement Request (PMR)?

Answer 41

D. All of the above

Question 42

On AE missions, who will the MCD contact for guidance or coordination for patient concerns during the patient movement process?

Answer 42

D. Patient Movement Requirement Center

Question 43

What is the classification for a litter patient who is able to sit in a seat an should be able to ambulate with assistance in the event of an emergency?

Answer 43

C. 2B

Question 44

You are tranporting a 2 y/o patient on your AE mission today. The patient’s mother will be traveling with you. The mother will be classified as _____.

Answer 44

D. 6B

Question 45

What is the precedence for a patient that requires patient movement to save his/her life, limb, eyesight or prevent serious complications of injury or existing medical condition?

Answer 45

A. Urgent

Question 46

Whose responsibility is it to identify, create and submit a Patient movement Request (PMR) and supply approved equipment, supplies, and medications required to monitor and treat the patient throughout the AE system?

Answer 46

C. Originating Military Treatment Facility

Question 47

At a minimum, Military Treatment Facility commanders will ensure personnel complete the following tasks for all Remain overnight (RON) patients at or near the facility, EXCEPT ___________.

Answer 47

C. Direct on the loading process of patients onto the aircraft

Question 48

A verbal report will include, but is not limited to __________.

Answer 48

D. All of the above

Question 49

The mnemonic associated with the Primary Assessment is CABD (Circulation, Airway, Breathing, and Disability). When assessing the “Disability” clinicians are assessing for _______.

Answer 49

C. Patients level of consciousness

Question 50

The ____________ assessment is a brief, systematic process to identify ALL injuries, obtain history and mechanism of injury as well as maintaining core body temperature, obtaining a complete set of vital signs, and the insertion of adjuncts such as a urinary catheter and nasogastric tube, as required.

Answer 50

D. Secondary

Question 51

The Flight Surgeon, with the assistance of the ________, determines whether each patient can remain in the En-Route Patient Staging (ERPS) or must be transferred to the Military Treatment Facility (MTF) for medical care.

Answer 51

D. ERPS Nurse

Question 52

In the Health Record time, will be recorded as _______ time.

Answer 52

A. Zulu

Question 53

AECMs will document a(an) as the first clinical entry for each mission on the AF Form 3899A.

Answer 53

A. Trip Segment

Question 54

Patient Handoff is essential to continuity of care and risk mitigation. Clinicians must use the I-SBAR handoff. Patient handoff tolls should be placed in the patient’s medical records.

Answer 54

B. False

Question 55

When documentation is contained in both paper and electronic health record (EHR) the paper document should be reference in the EHR

Answer 55

A. True

Question 56

The attending physician enters all required treatments and medications that are to be administered to the patients while in the patient movement system. Which patient movement documentation is used to annotate new orders or to change previous physician orders for en route care.

Answer 56

A. AF Form 3899B, Patient Movement Orders

Question 57

Oxygen management documentation is a critical task for all Aeromedical Evacuation Crew Members to ensure sufficient oxygen is available for the mission. Oxygen management documentation includes: total patient oxygen requirements, total pre-mission, mid-mission and post-mission therapeutic oxygen levels. This information is gathered and documented on which form?

Answer 57

D. AF Form 3829, Summary of Patients Evacuated By Air

Question 58

Which event category is used if the event did not result in patient harm, but did increased monitoring is required?

Answer 58

C. Medical Class D

Question 59

What Command is responsible for the implementation and oversight of a Patient Movement Patient Safety (PMPS) program within their theater?

Answer 59

C. Geographic Combatant Command (GCC)

Question 60

Do Not Resuscitate (DNR) orders will not be written more than ____ before the originating flight?

Answer 60

D. 72 hours

Question 61

When performing an Engine Running Off-load (ERO), patients will have all items EXCEPT _______.

Answer 61

C. Personal Survival Equipment

Question 62

Patients requesting release from the AE system should be advised that signing the AF Form 3841, Certificate of Release, does not prohibit the individual from receiving future AE services

Answer 62

A. True.

Question 63

If during mission planning, it is identified that the in-flight fueling is required, whose approval is needed to perform this action?

Answer 63

D. Validating Flight Surgeon

Question 64

If care is indicated during low or no light conditions use ______ lamps (flashlight or head-lamp) unless otherwise directed by the Pilot in Command (PIC)

Answer 64

C. Green

Question 65

Your patient’s Non-Medical Attendant suddenly becomes unresponsive. Even though they are not a manifested patient, you have treated their medical emergency and initiated an AF Form 3899 series. What additional forms are necessary to adjust or complete for this new patient?

Answer 65

D. All of the above.

Question 66

All blood products will be packed IAW _____ protocols.

Answer 66

A. Sending facility

Question 67

Blood transfusion reactions usually occur within the first ______

Answer 67

50-100 ml

Question 68

AE Clinical protocols are standing orders that have been signed by AMC/SGKC (En-Route Care Medical Director)

Answer 68

A. True