Fluids Flashcards

1
Q

Responsible for the safe receipt, handling, transfer and usage of fuel oils for CG cutters and boats

A

Engineering department

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2
Q

Any clothing that is soaked in fuel shall be ___

A

Washed as soon as possible from other clothing, or stored in a flammable storage container if unable to be washed immediately

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3
Q

Empty containers for volatile products shall be __

A

Sealed and disposed of properly per the unit’s hazardous waste bill

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4
Q

When working around flammable and volatile products, ensure that ____ is supplied to the space

A

Adequate ventilation

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5
Q

Obtain ___ before carrying out any hot work on fuel and lube oil systems and tanks

A

Hot work permit

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6
Q

Never use gasoline for ___

A

Cleaning

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7
Q

When sounding tanks, ensure the sounding device remains in ___ with the sounding tube

A

Constant contact

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8
Q

Why does the sounding device need to remain in constant contact with the sounding tube?

A

To lessen the chance of sparks caused by static electricity

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9
Q

Use what kind of flashlights when working around and on fuel equipment and enclosed compartments

A

Explosion proof

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10
Q

Do not carry what kind of matches or lights in fuel handling rooms, enclosed compartments, or around volatile vapors or handling equipment?

A

Strike anywhere

Automatic

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11
Q

Only under extreme operational emergency and with the concurrence of the appropriate SFLC Product Line shall fuel be loaded onboard, for shipboard use, if its flash point is below ___

A

52*C

125*F

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12
Q

Fuel tanks are considered to be ___

A

IDLH

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13
Q

Who’s permission is needed to enter a IDLH space?

A

CO

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14
Q

Before granting permission to enter a IDLH space, the CO shall ___

A

Ensure that safety precautions set forth in NSTM Chapter 074, Volume 3, are carried out and that personnel supervising the entry are familiar with these instructions and precautions

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15
Q

Required for sounding tubes that terminate in hazardous areas

A

Sounding tube floating-ball check valves

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16
Q

Prevents fuel from spilling from the sounding tube if the tank is overfilled while the sounding tube is open

A

Sounding tube floating-ball check valves

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17
Q

Always ensure sounding tube valves are ___ when not in use

A

Shut and capped

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18
Q

Required for flanged connections in any location that fuel spray has a potential to ignite, such as an exhaust manifold

A

Flange spray shields

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19
Q

Prevent fires caused by poor joint assembly, gasket failure, or improper torque of fasteners

A

Flange spray shields

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20
Q

Capture any fuel spray from the joint and cause it to drip or dribble to a safe location instead of spraying onto nearby hot surfaces

A

Flange spray shields

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21
Q

Provide various ways to shut off fuel flow in the service system, either locally or outside the space

A

Emergency cutout valves

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22
Q

Emergency fuel cutout valves are located ___

A

Fuel service tank suction lines, boiler front fuel lines, diesel engines, SSDGs, gas turbine fuel lines

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23
Q

Service pump remote shutdown pushbuttons are required for ___, and are located ___ for ___

A

Motor-driven fuel service pumps
Outside the space
Casualty control

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24
Q

Required for all service system strainer, filter/separator, and pre-filter covers

A

Integral cover fuel spray deflectors

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25
Q

All fuel sampling and vent connections within the ship shall

A

Discharge downward into a funnel that directs the fuel to the oily water drain collecting system

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26
Q

Provided in air escapes of fuel tanks to retard flashback if the system is accidentally exposed to an ignition source

A

Vent/flash screens

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27
Q

Gasoline is classified as ___

A

Category I FLAMMABLE material

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28
Q

Provides guidance on the stowage, handling, and disposal of gasoline and other hazardous general use combustibles

A

NSTM, Chapter 670

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29
Q

Gasoline shall be stowed ___

A

On the weather deck, aft, so that they can be readily jettisoned overboard

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30
Q

___ stowage of gasoline is prohibited on CG cutters and boats

A

Interior

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31
Q

Gasoline stowage locations shall not be in the vicinity of ___

A

Hatches, doors, galleys, ready service magazines, heat producing spaces, ventilation intakes and exhausts, or helicopter launching and recovery areas

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32
Q

Portable gasoline containers shall be ___

A

Secured within foundation housings or designated storage locations

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33
Q

P6 shall be stowed as per ___

A

CG Rescue and Survival Systems Manual

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34
Q

Gasoline stowage areas shall be designated as ___

A

GASOLINE HAZARD AREAS

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35
Q

Gasoline containers shall be labeled as ___

A

FLAMMABLE

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36
Q

Gasoline containers authorized for shipboard use

A

Five-gallon metal cans
Six -gallon or small metal safety cans
Six-gallon or smaller molded plastic containers nonmetallic safety cans

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37
Q

___ shall be worn during fuel sampling, testing, fueling, and defueling operations

A

Goggles and rubber gloves

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38
Q

The presence of flammable liquid and/or explosive materials is not permitted within ___ of the flight deck peripheral lines, or ___

A

25 feet

On any weather deck during flight operations

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39
Q

Below the helicopter approach path, ___ should not be located on exposed decks

A

Ready service lockers or magazines

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40
Q

___ shall specify that all flammable liquid and/or ammunition stored in this area shall be moved before flight operations

A

Helicopter Operations Bill

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41
Q

No JP-5 fuel filter may be bypassed during helicopter refueling operations with out the concurrence of __

A

CO, EO, and Pilot-in-command

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42
Q

Fueling, defueling, internal fuel transfer, and offloading of oil in restricted waters shall be done during ___, when operating schedules permit

A

Normal daylight working hours

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43
Q

All involved personnel shall be ___ prior to each fueling evolution

A

Thoroughly briefed

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44
Q

During fueling evolutions, maintain ___ at all locations of possible spills

A

Topside watches with direct communication to fuel transfer pump stations

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45
Q

Establish ___ for valve alignment and fuel transfer operations

A

Check-off lists and procedures

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46
Q

Use only ___ to perform the detailed transfer procedures

A

Qualified personnel

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47
Q

Continuously ___ each tank while filling

A

Monitor the level

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48
Q

Use __ as the primary method of obtaining tank levels when available

A

Remote tank-level indicators

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49
Q

Prior to actual fuel transfer, transfer personnel shall inform ___ that the ship is ready to commence fueling operations

A

The responsible ship’s officer and the fuel supplier

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50
Q

Ensure ___ are established with fuel delivery personnel, and that ___ are understood and agreed upon before commencing operations

A

Communications

Emergency procedures

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51
Q

Entries shall be made in the ___ whenever any of the following operations take place: ballasting or cleaning of F/O tanks, discharge of dirty ballast or cleaning water from fuel tanks, disposal of oily residues, and discharge overboard or disposal otherwise of bilge water that has accumulated in the spaces

A

Machinery log

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52
Q

Entries in the machinery log concerning the ballasting or cleaning of F/O tanks, discharge of dirty ballast or cleaning water from fuel tanks, disposal of oily residues, and discharge overboard or disposal otherwise of bilge water that has accumulated in the spaces shall include at a minimum ___

A

The source and destination of the movement

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53
Q

In the event of an emergency, accidental, or other exceptional discharge of oil or oily mixture, what must be logged and where?

A

Entry in machinery log of circumstances and reasons for the discharge
CO or OIC must note in Unit Log what notifications were made and when

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54
Q

Each completed operation recorded in the machinery log shall be signed by __

A

The person or persons in charge of the operations concerned

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55
Q

Prior to taking on or transferring fuel, cutters and boats shall be ___

A

Electrically grounded

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56
Q

___ shall be conducted prior to accepting fuel

A

Clear and bright test

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57
Q

Primary concerns of onboard fuel management

A

Particulates, water, and microbiological contamination

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58
Q

Cutters/boats shall select the least expensive fuel between ___

A

F-76, F-44, or an approved product obtained through the Defense Energy Support Center bunker fuel contractor

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59
Q

Which cutters are exempt from the 6 month use limit on DESC bunker fuels

A

Those participating in the Coast Guard’s In-Line Fuel Quality Sampling Program

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60
Q

If the fuel cannot be burned fully within six months of being taken onboard, only __ should be used

A

F-76 or F-44

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61
Q

Participation in the Fuel In-line Sampling Program is required for ___

A

FT4 gas turbine powered cutters

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62
Q

In Caterpillar engines, JP-5 should not be allowed to exceed___ in temperature.
This ensures that adequate viscosity is retained

A

100ºF (38ºC)

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63
Q

Volvo Penta Diesel engines used in diesel RIBs, some TANBs and other small boats require ___ to be mixed with the JP-5 prior to use

A

5 percent clean lube oil

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64
Q

Some oil purifiers will require a different ___ to remain effective when used with JP-5

A

Gravity disk

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65
Q

F-76 must meet ___

A

MIL-PRF-16884K

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66
Q

F-44 must meet ___

A

MIL-DTL-5624T

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67
Q

The combustion quality requirements for F-76, NPD MGO, and B-76 allow a minimum cetane number of __ and a minimum cetane index of ___

A

42

43

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68
Q

DF2 has a minimum cetane number/cetane index of ___

A

40

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69
Q

Paxman powered cutters require a minimum cetane index of ___

A

45

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70
Q

Paxman powered cutters may burn ___ without cetane restrictions

A

JP-5

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71
Q

Distillate fuel suitable for use in shipboard diesels, gas turbines, or boilers

A

F-76

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72
Q

F-76 flash point

A

60*C

140*F

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73
Q

F-76 is never ___

A

Dyed

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74
Q

F-44 is also called ___

A

JP-5

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75
Q

Kerosene type jet fuel

A

F-44

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76
Q

F-44 flash point

A

60*C

140*F

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77
Q

Ideally suited to FT-4 gas turbine engines

A

F-44

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78
Q

Burning ___ may also make achieving full power shaft rpm more difficult

A

JP-5

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79
Q

Contains a fuel system icing inhibitor which is required for aviation use

A

JP-5

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80
Q

JP-5 is never ___

A

Dyed

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81
Q

Type of marine gas oil (100% distillate with no residual fuel contamination)

A

Navy Purchase Description Marine Gas Oil (NPD MGO)

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82
Q

There is a ___ time limit placed on the use of NPD MGO

A

6 month

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83
Q

In domestic ports, only __ dye can be used for NPD MGO

A

Red

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84
Q

Special commercial product available under DESC bunker contracts in only a few domestic locations, identical properties to F-76 except it can be dyed red, and must be used within six months

A

B-76

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85
Q

Special commercial product available under DESC bunker contracts in some domestic locations, based on purely commercial fuel specifications

A

DF2

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86
Q

Least preferred of the approved DESC bunker fuel products

A

DF2

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87
Q

DF2 flash point

A

52*C

125*F

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88
Q

Minimum cetane number/index of DF2

A

40

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89
Q

If none of the approved fuels are available, and bunker fuel must be purchased on the open market, cutters should contact ___

A

Their MLC (vr) or ELC 026

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90
Q

Identifies a number of emergency substitute fuels

A

NSTM Chapter 541, Section 10

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91
Q

___ storage tanks before taking on emergency substitute fuels

A

Consolidate

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92
Q

Measure of a fuel’s flammability

A

Fuel flash point

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93
Q

Affects a fuel’s ease of ignition, flame spread rate once ignited, and extinguishing difficulty

A

Flash point

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94
Q

As ambient temperature in a space approaches the fuel’s flash point, the presence of ___ increases dramatically

A

Flammable vapors

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95
Q

Marine fuel, by definition (and international law) must have a minimum flash point of ___

A

60*C

140*F

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96
Q

Only under an extreme operational emergency, and with the concurrence of ___ shall a fuel be loaded onboard of its flashpoint is below 52C (125F)

A

MLCLANT/PAC (vr)

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97
Q

When and where is cold weather blending of fuel allowed?

A

Alaska

15 October to 15 April

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98
Q

Cold weather blending of fuel should have a minimum flash point of ___

A

52C (125F)

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99
Q

Storage and engineering spaces should be kept at least ___ cooler than the flash point of the fuel

A

10*C

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100
Q

Maximum safe engineering space temperature with cold weather blended fuels

A

42C (108F)

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101
Q

Low flash point fuel

A

Less than 60C (140F)

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102
Q

Do not perform what when using low flash point fuels?

A

Full power trials

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103
Q

When using low flashpoint fuels, review ___ with all engineering and bridge watchstanders

A

ECCM and MSFD

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104
Q

When using low flash point fuels, ensure that if there is a designated “smoking lounge”, it is ___ from any fuel tank vent

A

10 feet

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105
Q

Formula to estimate flash point of mixed fuels

A
FC=(FA*GA+FB*GB)/(GA+GB)
FC = Estimated flash point of commingled fuel
FA = Flash point of fuel A
GA = Quantity of fuel A
FB = Flash point of fuel B
GB = Quantity of fuel B
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106
Q

If the measured value of a high flash point marine fuel is not known, assume it is ___ for the purposes of calculation

A

140F (60C)

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107
Q

Can be caused by dirt, rust flakes, catalyst fines, or other foreign matter introduced into the fuel

A

Particulate contamination

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108
Q

Generate particles that can stay is suspension

A

Biological contamination and storage stability problems

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109
Q

Particulate contamination will __

A

Clog filters, and can potentially damage fuel injection equipment

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110
Q

Best means to keep particulate contamination manageable

A

Timely and periodic tank stripping

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111
Q

Water than can be removed from the fuel by mechanical means

A

Free water

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112
Q

Free water, if allowed to remain still for a relatively short time will ___

A

Settle to the bottom

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113
Q

Free water droplets that are suspended in the fuel

A

Entrained water

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114
Q

Water that cannot be removed from the fuel by mechanical means and is not visible to the naked eye as haze

A

Dissolved water

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115
Q

Typically appears as a haze in the fuel

A

Entrained water

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116
Q

___ is necessary for microbial growth

A

Water

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117
Q

___ are particularly sensitive to water contamination

A

Gas turbines

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118
Q

Only ___ can remove entrained water from fuel

A

Water separators (coalescers)

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119
Q

Water contamination can ___

A

Cause damage to fuel injection equipment

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120
Q

__ will help prevent the occurrence of problems associated with water

A

Timely and periodic tank stripping

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121
Q

Consists of organic debris created by fungi, bacteria, and protozoa

A

Microbiological contamination

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122
Q

Forms sludges or interfacial mats, having a slimy or stringy consistency and appearing as a black, brown or dark olive color

A

Microbiological contamination

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123
Q

If ___ could be eliminated from the fuel, microbiological contamination would no longer be a major concern

A

Free water

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124
Q

Another means of preventing microbiological contamination

A

The use of biocides

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125
Q

The only marine fuels that have built in protection against problems associated with long term storage

A

F-76 and F-44

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126
Q

Filter element clogged by unstable fuel products may appear ___

A

To be coated with a black gummy substance or a gel

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127
Q

Incompatibility will cause __

A

Rapid formation of particulate matter

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128
Q

DESC contract requirements for NPD MGO requires that if a sample fails a clear and bright visual testing, it must then be subjected to ___

A

A water & sediment centrifugal test

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129
Q

Max allowable water and sediment content in fuel is ___

A

0.05% vol

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130
Q

Only __ dye is used in fuel domestically

A

Red

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131
Q

___ dye may be found in fuel in some foreign ports

A

Blue/green

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132
Q

In the Mediterranean ___ dye may be found in fuel

A

Black

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133
Q

___ cutters should be participating in a joint CG/Navy/DESC In-line Fuel Quality Sampling Program

A

WHEC, WMEC, WAGB

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134
Q

Single most effective procedure for maintaining fuel quality

A

Tank stripping

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135
Q

Storage and service tanks are to be tested for free water content using ___

A

Bottom soundings and water indicating paste

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136
Q

When should testing for free water be performed?

A

Prior to receiving fuel (if the receiving tank had been ballasted)
24 hours after receiving fuel
On a monthly basis

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137
Q

Products which are toxic to microorganisms

A

Biocides

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138
Q

Approved biocides

A

Biobor JF

Nalfleet 9-303

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139
Q

Containers of fuel treatment chemicals must be kept ___

A

Closed to the atmosphere and possible water contamination

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140
Q

Not authorized for use in place of biocides

A

Magnetic fuel treatments

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141
Q

Once severely contaminated fuel has been detected ___

A

Stop burning the fuel, isolate the storage tank, and contact your group engineer or type desk for assistance with tank cleaning

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142
Q

A liquid fuel additive that combats fungus and other microbial life in hydrocarbon fuels

A

Biobor JF

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143
Q

Acts to disperse sediments and bacterial slimes and prevents plugging in filters and fuel lines

A

Nalfleet 9-303

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144
Q

Often used onboard cutters as a means to purify fuel as it is being transferred and to ensure fuel stock quality

A

Centrifugal purifier

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145
Q

Purifiers separate contaminated fuel into three major components

A

Water (heavy phase)
Purified fuel (light phase)
Solids and/or sludge

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146
Q

In a purifier, separation is achieved by centrifugal force acting on the ____ of the components in the fuel

A

Varying densities

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147
Q

Continuously separates the contaminates from the fuel and returns the purified fuel to the ship’s fuel system

A

Purifier

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148
Q

Water removed in a purifier is directed to ___

A

Waste oil tank

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149
Q

Turbine-powered helicopters are vulnerable to failures caused by fuel contamination because of ___

A

High fuel consumption rates and the sensitivity of fuel system components

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150
Q

Fuel system pressure shall not exceed ___ at the nozzle with the nozzle flow valve in the closed position

A

55 psi

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151
Q

Pressures higher than ___ may damage the helicopter fuel system

A

55 psi

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152
Q

Any casualty to the aviation fueling facility, including faulty or inoperative system components, test equipment, and uncontrollable water or particulate contamination results in ___

A

Decertification of the facility

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153
Q

There are ___ grades of turbine or jet fuel available for use by CG helicopters

A

3

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154
Q

Three grades of turbine or jet fuel

A

JP-4
JP-5
JP-8

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155
Q

Only aviation fuel authorized for use on cutters

A

JP-5

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156
Q

Helicopters should arrive onboard with only __ in the tanks whenever possible

A

JP-5

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157
Q

Blend of gasoline and kerosene with a flash point ranging from -10F to +80F

A

JP-4

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158
Q

Kerosene fuel with an intermediate flash point (100*F)

A

JP-8

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159
Q

Flash point of JP-4

A

-10F to 80F

160
Q

Flash point of JP-8

161
Q

Special precautions for helicopters arriving with JP-8

A

None, except they must be topped off with JP-5 prior to being hangared

162
Q

In contrast to JP-4, contaminant removal from JP-5 is ___ because of its ___

A

More difficult

Higher viscosity and density

163
Q

A little as ___ JP-4 mixed with JP-5 will lower the flash point below the minimum of 140*F

164
Q

No sediment or water present

165
Q

The fluorescent appearance that has no cloud or haze

A

Bright fuel

166
Q

Fuel that contains no water

167
Q

Solids that are larger than ___ are coarse particles that can be seen with the naked eye

A

10 microns

168
Q

Fine particles are less than ___ and may appear as a haze or cloudiness

A

10 microns

169
Q

Remove water from the fuel by causing droplets to combine, making them heavier and permitting them to collect on the bottom

A

Coalescers

170
Q

The process of removing water and other contaminants that settle out of fuel

171
Q

A canister containing several filter elements that ar designed to remove both water and particulate contamination from the fuel. As the elements become contaminated, they restrict the flow of fuel to the nozzle

A

GO-NO-GO Fuel monitor

172
Q

Adequate settling time for solids to settle out of the fuel before it is withdrawn from the storage tanks

A

3 hours per foot of fuel depth above the stripping line

173
Q

Best method to remove particulates from fuel

A

Recirculate the fuel through filters and/or separators

174
Q

Particulate contamination can be held well below a level of ___ in a properly functioning fuel distribution system

175
Q

Water occurs in fuel in three forms

A

Dissolved
Entrained
Free water

176
Q

The only type of water that can be drawn off or separated from the fuel

A

Free water

177
Q

All fuels dissolve water in varying amounts depending upon ___

A

Fuel composition and temperature

178
Q

Large slugs of free water can cause ___

A

Engine flameouts

179
Q

Generally microorganisms can be found living at the fuel and water ___

180
Q

The presence of visual microbiological growth in fuel being delivered to a helicopter is a reliable indication of the presence of ___

A

Free water and the failure of fuel cleanup equipment

181
Q

The term surfactants is a contraction of ___

A

Surface active agents

182
Q

Soap or detergent-like materials that occur naturally in fuel

A

Surfactants

183
Q

Surfactants are more soluble in ___ than __

A

Water

Fuel

184
Q

Surfactants reduce the ___ between water and fuel

A

Interfacial tension

185
Q

Surfactants, in large concentrations, usually appear as ___

A

Tan to dark brown liquid with a sudsy-like water and fuel interface

186
Q

Provide only gross protection for coarse solid contamination

187
Q

The only strainer used in CG fuel systems is installed at the ___

A

Fueling nozzle

188
Q

This unit both filters particles and separates water from fuel. It is usually a two-stage unit, within one enclosure

A

Filter-water separator (coalescer)

189
Q

The two stages of a filter-water separator

A

The first stage acts as a filter and coalescer while the second stage separates the resulting larger droplets from the fuel

190
Q

The filter in a filter-water separator should be sized to hold particles of a ___ size

191
Q

The date of the last filter change in the coalescer should be ___

A

Stenciled on the exterior of the units

192
Q

The filter elements in a coalescer should be changed __

A

Every three years, when one million gallons of fuel have be dispensed, or when the differential pressure is 15 psi

193
Q

After changing the coalescer filter, circulate ___ of fuel through the new elements to ensure that the fuel is clear and bright before placing the system back in service

A

2000 gallons

194
Q

All CG shipboard aviation fuel dispensing systems are required to have a GO-NO-GO fuel monitor installed ____

A

Downstream of the last filter and/or separator

195
Q

The filters within the GO-NO-GO canisters are rated at approximately ___

196
Q

Monitor the fuel for both water and particulate contamination, reducing both to acceptable levels

A

GO-NO-GO Fuel monitor

197
Q

GO-NO-GO filter elements shall be replaced when the pressure differential across the monitor reaches ___

198
Q

If a reduction in fuel flow or an increase in differential pressure across the GO-NO-GO fuel monitor occurs while fueling the helicopter ___

A

A sample shall be taken from the helicopter and tested before resuming flight operations

199
Q

__ vessels may not incorporate the use of GO-NO-GO filters

A

US Navy and NATO

200
Q

Ensure that static charges do not build up that could possibly cause a spark

A

Static bonding cables

201
Q

The helicopter must be ___ while fueling

A

Grounded to bare metal on the cutter

202
Q

The gravity fueling nozzle ground wire shall be connected to the ___

A

Helicopter

203
Q

A minimum of ___ feet of hose shall be permanently stowed on the hose reel in aviation fueling stations

204
Q

The internal ground of the hose shall be checked when?

A

Upon installation and at least quarterly

205
Q

Maximum allowable fuel hose resistance

A

1.5 ohms per foot over the entire length of the hose, including the nozzle

206
Q

How often must JP-5 fueling hose be hydrostatically tested and flushed?

A

Annually and before placing a new hose in service or installing an older hose

207
Q

Hydrostatic test the hose and HIFR rig assembly to ___ for ___ while inspecting the JP-5 fueling hose

A

150 psi

10 minutes

208
Q

After hydrostatic testing of JP-5 fueling hose, flush until samples meet the maximum allowed contamination of ___

A

2 mg/l and 5 ppm of free water

209
Q

A aviation fueling hose must be flushed at least ___ with enough fuel to ___

A

Once a week

Turn over at least twice the volume of all fuel in the hose, piping system, and related equipment

210
Q

How often should aviation fueling hoses be replaced at a minimum?

211
Q

All nozzles used to dispense fuel to helicopters shall be of the ___ type

A

Self-closing

212
Q

All nozzles used to dispense fuel to helicopters shall be of ___ construction with an installed ___-mesh screen

A

Non-sparking

100

213
Q

All nozzles used to dispense fuel to helicopters shall be assembled to the hose with ___ couplings

A

Quick-disconnect

214
Q

The preferred method of refueling the H-65 or the H-60 is ___

A

Pressure refueling with a single point nozzle

215
Q

Each flight deck-equipped cutter shall have onboard, in good operating condition ___

A

Contaminated Fuel Detector Kit (AEL MK III)
Viewer kit, Free Water Fuel Detector Kit (AEL MK I)
B-2 Anti-icing Additive Fuel System Icing Inhibitor (FSII) Test kit, including the operating manuals

216
Q

The JP-5 fuel system consists of three subsystems ___

A

Fill and storage system
Service system
Stripping system

217
Q

Provides for the bulk storage of JP-5 fuel

A

Fill and storage system

218
Q

Provides clean fuel for refueling helicopters. The system contains a pressure regulating valve to ensure system pressure does not exceed 55 psi at the nozzle

A

Service system

219
Q

Any fuel circulated through the JP-5 hose shall not be discharged into the ___

A

JP-5 service tanks

220
Q

Provides a means of removing water and particulates that have settled out to the bottom of fuel tanks and other components

A

Stripping system

221
Q

An instruction plate and a diagram specifying the proper system alignment shall be permanently mounted in the ____, any deviations from this alignment must be approved by the ___

A

JP-5 pump room

CO

222
Q

To ensure a good fuel quality control program, three specific types of tests and inspections shall be conducted

A

Visual inspections
Detector kit tests
Laboratory analysis

223
Q

To conduct a clear and bright test, use a clean glass container or laboratory beaker from __ to __ in size

A

1 qt

1 gal

224
Q

The fuel sampling bottle should be ___

A

Round, with a relatively flat bottom, and should be as clean as possible

225
Q

What ppe should be worn during fuel sampling?

A

Eye protection

226
Q

Means the absence of any cloud, emulsion, readily visible particulate matter, or entrained water

227
Q

Refers to the shiny appearance of clean, dry fuels

228
Q

Swirl the fuel sample to create a ___

229
Q

Refueling clear and bright tests shall be conducted and the results reported to the aircraft within ___ from the time the aircraft departed the cutter

230
Q

Light haze or cloud, may not be visible in the fuel

A

Entrained water

231
Q

Droplets adhering to the sides of the bottle. Large amounts settled in the bottom of the fuel sample

A

Free water

232
Q

Red or black powder, rouge, or grains. May appear as a dye-like material in the fuel

233
Q

Crystalline, granular, or glass-like in the fuel sample

A

Sand or dust

234
Q

Cloud in fuel

A

Air bubbles

235
Q

White or gray powder or paste in the fuel sample

A

Aluminum or magnesium compounds

236
Q

Red, brown, gray or black sticky material variously described as gelatinous, gummy, or like ketchup or mayo in the fuel sample

A

Stabilized emulsion

237
Q

Lacy suds or scum at interface between fuel and water. Sometimes resembles jellyfish. In large concentrations, color may appear tan to dark brown

A

Surfactants

238
Q

Which rust is magnetic and which is non magnetic?

A

Red rust is nonmagnetic

Black rust is magnetic

239
Q

If solid contaminants in the aircraft fuel dispensing points exceed 1 mg/l, notify ___

240
Q

Laboratory analysis of fuel samples serves two purposes ___

A

Validate the results of the shipboard tests/test kits and to provide a test for the fuel’s flash point

241
Q

If the flash point is out of range for JP-5, then fuel other than JP-5 is ___

A

Onboard and should be transferred off the cutter immediately

242
Q

Fuel samples shall be taken for laboratory analysis when?

A

Quarterly

Immediately after replenishing the storage tanks

243
Q

Which tests shall be be requested when submitting fuel samples for laboratory analysis?

A

Sediment content
Flash point
FSII

244
Q

The difference between the laboratory results and the unit results of the fuel sample shall fall within the following limits:
Sediment content: No action is necessary unless the differences between the two results are greater than ___
FSII: Variation by as much as ___ is considered acceptable

A
  1. 8 mg/l

0. 03 percentage points

245
Q

When sampling fuel for laboratory and unit testing, withdraw how many samples?

246
Q

When taking fuel samples for laboratory analysis use what kind of bottles ___

A

Glass bottles with nonmetallic caps. Inner cap seals should not contain wax, paraffin, corrosive metal, or other material liable to contaminate the fuel

247
Q

When taking fuel samples for laboratory analysis leave at least ___ of expansion space in the bottle

248
Q

A periodic sample taken as part of a quality surveillance program

A

Routine sample

249
Q

Sample submitted for testing because the quality of the fuel is suspect, either as the result of a helicopter malfunction or other reasons

A

Special sample

250
Q

Fuel samples are to be forwarded to the appropriate testing facilities by ___

A

Most expeditious means

251
Q

Fuel samples in amount up to ___ may be shipped

A

10 gallons

252
Q

Fuel samples shipped by military aircraft shall be packed IAW the requirements of ____

A

Joint Publication for Packaging and Handling of Dangerous Material for Transportation by Military Aircraft

253
Q

Fuel hose inspections shall be performed ___ if an aircraft is on the cutter and ___ at other times

A

Weekly

Monthly

254
Q

Cutters operating an an area with a high volume of aircraft with potential need for fuel shall complete ___ hose inspections

255
Q

Fuel hose inspections shall be completed during ___

A

Daylight hours

256
Q

Nozzle screens shall be inspected before ____. If helicopter operations are not being conducted, the screens shall be checked every time ___

A

The first fueling operation of the day

After fuel is pumped through the hose

257
Q

Fuel hose continuity shall be checked ___

258
Q

Contaminants found on the nozzle screen should be ___

A

Examined closely to determine their source

259
Q

When receiving JP-5 leave the fuel carrier stationary at the unloading point for at least ___ before onloading fuel to permit water and particulates to settle

A

10 minutes

260
Q

If the flash point of the fuel to be onloaded cannot be verified

A

The fuel shall not be taken onboard

261
Q

After receipt of the fuel in the cutter’s aviation fuel system, allow at least ___ of settling time per foot of fuel depth above the stripping line, then ___

A

3 hours

Strip the tanks of water

262
Q

When a helicopter is onboard or helicopter operations are anticipated, strip the service tank ___

A

Daily before recirculation

263
Q

Strip all tanks ___ when the cutter is in port

264
Q

When a helicopter is onboard or helicopter operations are anticipated, recirculate the service tanks contents through the service system filter and/or separator ___. At other times recirculate ___

A

Daily

Weekly

265
Q

FSII

A

Fuel System Icing Inhibitor

266
Q

The only authorized FSII material

A

Di-ethylene glycol monomethyl ether (diEGME)

267
Q

Lowers the freezing point of small quantities of free water in the fuel

268
Q

Water removes ___ from fuel

269
Q

The use of FSII is ___

270
Q

The required level of FSII for CG aircraft is between ___

A

0.10% and 0.15% by volume

271
Q

When cleaning fuel tanks, wash the tanks with ___ before __

A

High-pressure cold fresh water

It has a chance to dry

272
Q

Do not use what to clean fuel tanks?

273
Q

To avoid over-pressurization of the H-60 fuel system, static pressure refueling should take place with the cutter’s ___ applied

A

400 HZ/115 VAC power

274
Q

During APU-assisted hot refueling, the APU is a potential ___

A

Fuel ignition source

275
Q

The presence of flammable liquid and/or explosive materials is not permitted within ___ of the flight deck peripheral lines

276
Q

Repeated or prolonged exposure to benzene has been associated with various blood disorders ranging from __

A

Anemia to leukemia

277
Q

When exposed to JP-5 with less than or equal to 10 ppm benzene what ppe must be worn?

A

Half mask air purifying respirator with organic vapor cartridge

278
Q

When exposed to JP-5 with less than or equal to 50 ppm benzene what ppe must be worn?

A

Full facepiece air purifying respirator with organic vapor cartridge

279
Q

When exposed to JP-5 with less than or equal to 100 ppm benzene what ppe must be worn?

A

Full facepiece powered air purifying respirator with organic vapor cartridges

280
Q

When exposed to JP-5 with less than or equal to 1000 ppm benzene what ppe must be worn?

A

Full facepiece supplied air respirator in positive pressure mode

281
Q

When exposed to JP-5 with greater than 1000 ppm benzene or an unknown concentration what ppe must be worn?

A

SCBA in positive pressure mode

282
Q

During all on-deck fueling operations, no emissions through shipboard transmitters are permitted through antennas within ___ of a helicopter

283
Q

During all on-deck fueling operations, no emissions from shipboard transmitters with a rated power output equal to or greater than ___ are permitted through antennas located within 50 feet of the helicopter

284
Q

During all on-deck fueling operations, shipboard antennas capable of ___ of the helicopter shall be secured

A

Main beam illumination

285
Q

Static bonding cables shall be attached only to __ on helicopters

A

Specified grounding points

286
Q

Do not attach static bonding cables to __

A

Radio antennas, drains, hydraulic lines, or access doors

287
Q

Do not ___ batteries during fueling

A

Connect or disconnect

288
Q

Do not perform fueling operations if ___ is in the immediate area

A

An electrical storm

289
Q

Personnel should discharge static electrical charges on their person by ___ before conducting any fueling operations

A

Contacting one of the grounding connections

290
Q

Use only ___ for inspecting hazardous areas

A

Explosion proof flashlights or extension lights

291
Q

Do not use ___ nozzles for helicopter refueling

A

Automatic hold-open gravity

292
Q

No JP-5 fuel filter may be bypassed during helicopter refueling operations without the concurrence of ___

A

CO, EO, PIC

293
Q

Installed at the fueling nozzle as a final barrier against particulate contamination

294
Q

What kind of fuel hoses should be used in aviation fueling?

A

Those specifically built for aviation fuel servicing

295
Q

Responsible for the safe receipt, handling, transfer, and usage of L/O for CG cutters and boats

A

Engineering department

296
Q

Collect synthetic lube oils and hydraulic oils separately from ___

A

Other waste/used oil

297
Q

Vessels that do not have a system dedicated to collect used synthetic oils shall use ___

A

5 or 55 gallon steel containers for eventual shore recycling

298
Q

Do what with containers in which oil products were originally packaged

A

Retain them and properly label them for storing and transferring oil ashore

299
Q

Vessels shall ___ oil and fuel filters and other items soaked with oil for ___

A

Containerize

Shore disposal

300
Q

Ships shall store all rags that are not incinerated or recycled aboard in suitable closed containers designed to contain flammable or combustible materials in a space fitted with ___

A

Adequate ventilation and fire suppression systems

301
Q

Requires the use of recycled oil whenever possible

A

Greening the Government through Waste Prevention, Recycling, and Federal Acquisition, Executive Order 1301

302
Q

Do not add packaged lube oil directly to operating machinery. All packaged lube oil shall be ____ when servicing equipment

A

Filtered through a 60 mesh or finer screen

303
Q

Four basic types of oil contamination

A

Fuel dilution
Acid contamination
Water
Insolubles

304
Q

Spectrometric analysis for wear metals and physical property tests of lube oils are completed whenever a sample is submitted to __

A

Navy Oil Analysis Program (NOAP)

305
Q

Iron contamination in oil indicates wear on ___

A

Anti-friction bearings, gears, cam shafts, oil pumps, cylinder liners, piston rings

306
Q

Aluminum contamination in oil indicates wear on ___

A

Bearing, pistons, pumps, cylinder heads

307
Q

Magnesium contamination in oil indicates ___

A

Salt water or contaminated fuel

308
Q

Nickel contamination in oil indicates wear on ___

A

Valves, crankshaft

309
Q

Molybdenum contamination in oil indicates wear on ___

A

Piston rings

310
Q

Silicon contamination in oil indicates ___

A

Airborne sand/air filters

311
Q

Boron, Sodium, and Potassium contamination in oil indicates ___

A

Commonly found additives in coolant, might indicate an internal water leak

312
Q

Sodium contamination in oil indicates ___

A

May also be associated with sea water contamination

313
Q

Zinc contamination in oil indicates ____

A

Anti-wear additive to reduce friction

314
Q

Oil sampling lab recommendation code A

A

Sample results normal, continue routine sampling

315
Q

Oil sampling lab recommendation code H

A

Inspect unit and advise lab of findings. Abnormal wear indicated by (ppm) (element). Resample after (time frame)

316
Q

Oil sampling lab recommendation code K

A

Impending failure, critical wear indicated by (element). Inspect unit and advise lab of finding. Resample after (timeframe)

317
Q

Oil sampling lab recommendation code U

A

Cooling system leak indicated by (Mg/CR/Na/B). Inspect unit and advise lab of findings. Resample after (timeframe)

318
Q

Oil sampling lab recommendation code D

A

Change oil and service filters. Resample after (hours of operation)

319
Q

Oil sampling lab recommendation code B

A

Resample as soon as possible, do not change oil

320
Q

Oil sampling lab recommendation code F

A

Do not change oil. Submit sample after test run. Do not operate until after receipt of lab results or advice

321
Q

Oil sampling lab recommendation code P

A

Do not operate, do not change oil, submit resample as soon as possible

322
Q

The only difference between the components of a lube oil or fuel oil purifier

A

The presence of a heater on lube oil purifiers

323
Q

Water of drinking quality

A

Potable water

324
Q

Potable water is treated with an approved ____ to ensure it is safe for human consumption

A

Halogen disinfectant

325
Q

Two halogen disinfectants approved for use in CG systems

A

Bromine

Chlorine

326
Q

Responsible for the receipt, distribution, testing, and quality of potable water

A

Engineering department personnel and/or medical department representatives

327
Q

When shore water quality is in doubt, the ___ shall investigate the water source, examine the water, and advise the command

328
Q

Member of the halogen group and is characterized as a heavy, mobile, reddish-brown liquid, vaporizing readily at room temperature to a red vapor with a strong disagreeable odor

329
Q

Bromine used for CG purposes comes in ___

A

Slightly corrosive bromine-impregnated resin cartridge

330
Q

Potable water with bromine levels exceeding ___ should not be ingested

331
Q

If the skin or eyes come in contact with bromine, flush for how long?

A

30 minutes

332
Q

Chlorine for shipboard and shore-side use is typically available in two forms

A
Calcium hypochlorite (granular) (HTH)
Sodium hypochlorite (liquid)
333
Q

On larger cutters this chlorine is used most often

A

Calcium hypochlorite

334
Q

If the skin or eyes come in contact with chlorine, flush for how long?

A

30 minutes

335
Q

Disinfecting water using halogens destroys ___

A

Pathogenic organisms

336
Q

FAC

A

Free Available Chlorine

337
Q

TBR

A

Total Bromine Residual

338
Q

The FAC and TBR are the measured amounts of ___

A

Halogen residual contained throughout the potable water system after a 30 minute contact period

339
Q

FAC and TBR are measured in ___

340
Q

Minimum FAC or TBR reading

341
Q

A measure of acidity or alkalinity in which pure water is 7, with lower numbers indicating acidity and higher number indicating alkalinity

342
Q

When should potable water be tested for FAC or TBR?

A

Before receiving water onboard
Daily
Part of the treatment process, after 30 minutes contact time

343
Q

Alkaline levels of ___ adversely affect chlorine’s or bromine’s disinfecting properties

A

8.5 or higher

344
Q

Two types of mechanical bromination systems used for the treatment of potable water

A

Automatic proportioning brominator

Recirculating brominator

345
Q

Installed in the distillate discharge line. Brominators of this type are capable of feeding bromine at two feed rates

A

Automatic proportioning brominator

346
Q

Circulates water to and from a potable water tank. Brominators of this type offer flexibility in recirculating and brominating shipboard water from external sources and increasing bromine levels if necessary

A

Recirculating brominator

347
Q

When purchasing over the counter bleach for use in the batch chlorination method, every effort should be made to ensure that is contains no additional ___

A

Surfactants or scent additives

348
Q

Engineering departments shall maintain a ____ chronological record of potable water monitoring

349
Q

CAS

A

Compressed Air Systems

350
Q

HP air

A

Above 1000 psi

351
Q

MP air

A

151 to 1000 psi

352
Q

LP air

A

Up to 150 psi

353
Q

DSA systems normally fall into the ___ air classification

354
Q

SSA systems are generally considered ___ air systems

355
Q

Most widely used CAS in the CG

356
Q

Generally provide air to distribution systems for pneumatic tools and various other common functions onboard ships

357
Q

A piece of machinery that draws in ambient air, pressurizes this air, and delivers in to the air receiver/air flask or the end user

A

Air compressor

358
Q

Capable of holding compressed air in pressures below 600 psi

A

Air receiver

359
Q

Capable of holding compressed air in pressures above 600 psi

360
Q

Adjustment of the spring loaded pressure reducing valve is achieved by __

A

Rotating the adjusting screw

361
Q

Installed on systems in which excessive pressure may cause damage to the equipment or personnel

A

Pressure relief valves

362
Q

Relieve excess system pressure in a controlled manner

A

Pressure relief valves

363
Q

Adjustment of a pressure relief valve is achieved by ___

A

Rotating the adjusting screw

364
Q

Devices intended to remove moisture from compressed air

A

Moisture separator

365
Q

When opening air valves, the rate of pressure rise should be kept under ___

A

200 psi/sec

366
Q

Moisture separators or air oilers of installed CAS for service below 125 psi are equipped with ___

A

Plastic or metal bowls

367
Q

Moisture separators or air oilers of installed CAS for service above 125 psi are equipped with ___

A

Metal bowls

368
Q

If plastic bowls are used for the moisture separator or air oiler, it shall have ___

A

Threaded inserts and metal guards

369
Q

Generally the first indication that there is a problem with the CAS is ___

A

Air with excessive moisture
Insufficient air pressure
Insufficient air volume

370
Q

In most manufacturers technical manuals for CAS you will find a ___ that may be utilized to help diagnose problems with the system or its components

A

Troubleshooting guide

371
Q

Daily potable water tests shall be logged on the ___

A

Potable water quality log CG-5648

372
Q

CAS

A

Compressed Air Systems

373
Q

HP air

A

Above 1000 psi

374
Q

MP air

A

151 to 1000 psi

375
Q

LP air

A

Up to 150 psi

376
Q

DSA systems normally fall into the ___ air classification

377
Q

SSA systems are generally considered ___ air systems

378
Q

Most widely used CAS in the CG

379
Q

Generally provide air to distribution systems for pneumatic tools and various other common functions onboard ships

380
Q

A piece of machinery that draws in ambient air, pressurizes this air, and delivers in to the air receiver/air flask or the end user

A

Air compressor

381
Q

Capable of holding compressed air in pressures below 600 psi

A

Air receiver

382
Q

Capable of holding compressed air in pressures above 600 psi

383
Q

Adjustment of the spring loaded pressure reducing valve is achieved by __

A

Rotating the adjusting screw

384
Q

Installed on systems in which excessive pressure may cause damage to the equipment or personnel

A

Pressure relief valves

385
Q

Relieve excess system pressure in a controlled manner

A

Pressure relief valves

386
Q

Adjustment of a pressure relief valve is achieved by ___

A

Rotating the adjusting screw

387
Q

Devices intended to remove moisture from compressed air

A

Moisture separator

388
Q

When opening air valves, the rate of pressure rise should be kept under ___

A

200 psi/sec

389
Q

Moisture separators or air oilers of installed CAS for service below 125 psi are equipped with ___

A

Plastic or metal bowls

390
Q

Moisture separators or air oilers of installed CAS for service above 125 psi are equipped with ___

A

Metal bowls

391
Q

If plastic bowls are used for the moisture separator or air oiler, it shall have ___

A

Threaded inserts and metal guards

392
Q

Generally the first indication that there is a problem with the CAS is ___

A

Air with excessive moisture
Insufficient air pressure
Insufficient air volume

393
Q

In most manufacturers technical manuals for CAS you will find a ___ that may be utilized to help diagnose problems with the system or its components

A

Troubleshooting guide

394
Q

Daily potable water tests shall be logged on the ___

A

Potable water quality log CG-5648

395
Q

In a compressed air system, the heat of compression caused by a sudden high-pressure flow into an empty line or vessel can cause an ___ if oil is present