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Airline Prep > Flight Rules & Approach Procedures > Flashcards

Flight Rules & Approach Procedures Flashcards

1
Q

Define RNAV (area navigation)

A

method of navigation that permits ac operation on any desired flight path

generic term that applies to any system that makes possible point-to-point navigation

does NOT address performance requirements or accuracy

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2
Q

What are present day RNAV options?

A

INS
VOR/DME
GPS

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3
Q

How is RNP (Required Navigation Performance) different from RNAV?

A

RNP is the ability to fly point-to-point within given accuracy criteria

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4
Q

What is RNP? (simply put)

A

RNP = RNAV + Performance Monitoring & Alerting

RNP monitors the performance of the navigation system and lets the specifically trained pilot know if detects a problem (alerts)

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5
Q

What is the difference between RNAV GNSS and RNAV RNP?

A

GNSS - approaches rely on GNSS (GPS) for guidance

RNP - approaches rely on a suite of inputs coupled with crew training to provide the necessary precision

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6
Q

What does RNP 1.0 mean? Describe the percentages

A

RNP 1.0 = 1.0 nm

assures the ac will remain within the designated distance 95% of the time. It also ensures containment within double the distance (2.0 nm) 99.99% of the time

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7
Q

What are some advantages to RNP?

A

curved approach paths and more efficient arrival and departure procedures that save time & money

eliminates the reliance of legacy ground-based navigation aids

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8
Q

What is required for RNP? What is the heart of the system?

A

WAAS (wide area augmentation system)

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9
Q

What does WAAS do?

A

removes the errors that typically come through GPS signals and covers virtually all of the national airspace

second system was needed to monitor the first system IOT verify the data received was healthy

WAAS provides correction data to the receiver in the ac via a geostationary satellite that takes the accuracy down to the level of a few meters rather than 10 meters.

minimizes and even eliminates the risk of receiving hazardous misleading information from the GPS satellites

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10
Q

With WAAS, how quickly are users notified of any bogus information that would cause an error?

A

within 6 seconds

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11
Q

All RNAV RNP 0.3 approaches in the US require what?

A

SAAAR

Special Aircraft and Aircrew Authorization Required

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12
Q

What is the lowest level of sensors that the FAA will support for RNP?

A

DME/DME

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13
Q

Where might you see DME/DME RNP 0.3 NA published and what does it mean?

A

on an RNAV approach plate with LNAV/VNAV minimums

means that RNP ac dependent on DME/DME to achieve RNP 0.3 are not authorized to conduct the approach

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14
Q

What does ACARS stand for?

A

Aircraft Communications Addressing and Reporting System

(data link system)

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15
Q

What is a CDR (Coded Departure Route)

A

preplanned routes that provide ATC a rapid means to reroute departing ac when the filed route becomes constrained or unusable due to wx, outages, traffic, etc.

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16
Q

What does this CDR mean?

PITORDN1

A

PIT - departure airport
ORD - arrival airport
N1 - chosen by overlying ARTCC

alternate route from PIT to ORD. Participating aircrew may then be re-cleared by ATC via the CDR abbreviated clearance PITORDN1

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17
Q

How often are CDRs updated?

Where are CDRs maintained?

A

Every 56 days

in a database called the RMT (route management tool) — available through the FAA

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18
Q

What is EDCT?

What is the expectation?

A

Expect Departure Clearance Time

depart no earlier than 5 mins before and no later than 5 mins after the EDCT

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19
Q

What do Gate Hold Procedures mean for a pilot?

A

pilots should contact ground prior to engine start because delays exceed 15 mins

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20
Q

When is an alternate NOT required?

A

instrument approach is published and available for destination
AND
worst case forecast for 1 hour before and after ETA indicates at least a 2000’ ceiling and 3 sm visibility

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21
Q

If your destination does not have a published approach procedure do you need to file an alternate?

A

Yes

Even if the weather is VMC. If you don’t have an approach procedure than you have to file an alternate

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22
Q

If you’re filing an alternate, what must the weather be at that alternate?

Considered standard alternate mins

A

Precision approach - ceiling 600’ & 2 sm visibility

Nonprecision approach - ceiling 800’ & 2 sm visibility

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23
Q

What must the weather be if your filed alternate doesn’t have any approaches?

A

weather must permit descent from MEA to landing under basic VFR

24
Q

Do you have to fly to your filed alternate if you go missed at your destination?

A

No.

An alternate filed on your flight plan is merely a legal requirement which forces you to carry enough fuel to get to a legal airport

Once airborne, the filed alternate has no function. You can coordinate with ATC for any alternate you want

25
Q
A
26
Q

What is the IFR fuel supply rule for domestic?

A

Fly to the destination - shoot an approach - go the the most distant alternate and fly after that for 45 mins at normal cruise

27
Q

Fuel required for flag or supplemental operation when no alternate is specified (jet)

A

fly to destination and thereafter to fly for at least 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption

28
Q

Difference between fuel exhaustion and fuel starvation

A

Exhaustion - running out of fuel

Starvation - having fuel on board but it doesn’t reach the engine for whatever reason

29
Q
A

indicates runway declared distance information available in the appropriate A/FD supp

30
Q

When is the vortex from wake turbulence strongest?

A

when generating ac is

HEAVY, CLEAN, SLOW

31
Q

What is wake turbulence?

A

a phenomenon that occurs when an aircraft develops lift and forms a pair of counter-rotating vortices

32
Q

What is the wake turbulence traffic separations when taking off?

A

2 mins (or 4/5 miles) - when departing behind a heavy jet from same threshold

3 mins - when departing from an intersection on the same runway behind a heavy jet

add 1 min when departing behind A380

33
Q

Define aircraft classes

Super
Heavy
Large
Small

A

Super - possible for MTOW to be well over one million lbs

Heavy - capable of takeoff weights of 300,000 lbs or more

Large - more than 41,000 lbs up to but not including 300,000 lbs

Small - 41,000 lbs or less

34
Q

Define Climb Gradient

A

ratio between distance traveled and altitude gained

200 ft/nm is the standard climb gradient

35
Q

How do you convert climb gradient to ft/min

A

Ground speed x climb gradient / 60 = ft/min

180 GS x 300 ft/nm / 60 = 900 ft/min

36
Q

What is the 40:1 Obstacle Identification Surface (OIS)?

A

begins at the Departure End of the Runway and slopes upward at 152 FPNM until reaching the minimum IFR altitude or entering en route structure

37
Q

How far out does the Obstacle Identification Surface (OIS) extend?

A

25 NM from airport in non-mountainous areas

46 NM in designated mountainous areas

38
Q

The Required Obstacle Clearance (ROC) is based on the pilot doing what?

A

crossing the Departure End of the Runway at 35 ft, climbing to 400 ft before making the initial turn, and maintaining a minimum climb gradient of 200 ft/nm until the minimum IFR altitude

39
Q

What is a Diverse Vector Area (DVA)

A

an area in which ATC may provide random radar vectors during an uninterrupted climb from the runway until the MVA/MIA

provides obstacle and terrain avoidance in lieu of using an ODP or SID.

40
Q

What is the primary reason ATC would use a SID or ODP? Secondary reason?

A

Primary - obstacle clearance when a DVA is not possible

Secondary - increase efficiency and reduce comms/delays

41
Q

When could ATC not use a Diverse Vector Area departure?

A

an obstacle is penetrating the 40:1 departure obstacle clearance plane

42
Q

Whats the difference between a SID and an ODP?

A

SID - provides obstacle clearance and reduces pilot/controller workload

ODP - provides obstacle clearance via the least onerous route

43
Q
A

“Trouble T”

If an airport has more than 1 DP, the takeoff minimums for a runway apply to all DPs, except when a specific DP has its own charted takeoff minimums (when you see the Trouble T).

basically takeoff minimums are not standard and you have to look them up

44
Q

If an airport does not have a Trouble T in the notes section - what does that mean?

A

that airport will have standard commercial takeoff minimums with no restrictions

45
Q

What is the standard takeoff minimums?

A

2 engines or less - 1 SM or RVR 5000

> 2 engines - 1/2 SM or RVR 2400

46
Q

Are you required to accept a DP?

A

No

47
Q

If you see a “Trouble T NA” what does that mean?

A

that runway cannot be used for instrument departures

48
Q

What does a Diverse Departure mean?

A

an airport that has been assigned an instrument approach has been evaluated for a DP

If there are no obstacles to preclude the safety of a 200ft/nm climb, no DP is required or established

an airport with no major obstructions meets whats called Diverse Departure criteria

after reaching 400 ft AGL on runway heading, its safe to climb in any direction at 200ft/nm

No DP will be published unless otherwise needed for air traffic purposes

49
Q

When would you get a mandatory “Early Turn” on a DP?

And what does it mean?

And what are the takeoff minimums?

A

begin turn at less than 400 ft AGL

required because of close-in obstacles

takeoff mins - at least 300-1

50
Q

What is a close-in obstacle?

A

an obstacle that’s less than 200 ft above the departure end runway (DER) elevation and within 1 NM of the DER that penetrates the 40:1 Obstacle Clearance Surface (OCS).

51
Q

What is a Visual Climb Over Airport (VCOA)?

A

departure option for IFR aircraft operating in visual conditions

allows you to visually conduct climbing turns over the airport to the published “climb-to” altitude

52
Q

Why were VCOAs developed?

A

to avoid obstacles greater than 3 SM from runway as an alternative to complying with climb gradients greater than 200 ft/nm

53
Q

Where can you find VCOAs?

A

published in the “Takeoff Minimums and (Obstacle) Departure Procedures” section of the Terminal Procedures Pub and/or appear as on option on a graphic ODP

54
Q

What are mandatory reports to ATC?

A

Vacating a previously assigned altitude for a new one

Unable to climb/descend at 500 ft/min

Missed Approach

Change in TAS (5% or 10 kts whichever is greater from filed)

Time/Altitude reaching a holding fix

Leaving a holding fix

55
Q

What is the difference between Class I and Class II Navigation?

A

Class I - navigation dependent on short-range, ground-based NDBs, VORs, ILS

Class II - relies primarily on GPS and/or INS

56
Q

How wide are V airways? J airways?

A

V airways - 4 miles each side of centerline (8 miles total)

J airways - no specified width

57
Q

What are T and Q Routes? Whats the difference between them?

A

RNAV routes

T Routes - available for use by GPS or GPS/WAAS from 1200’ AGL to 17,999’ MSL

Q Routes - between FL180-FL450

Airline Prep (2 decks)

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