Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Airline Prep > Airspace & Airport > Flashcards

Airspace & Airport Flashcards

1
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Ceiling of Class B can be anywhere between what altitudes?

A

7,000 to 12,500’ MSL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Is there Class A over Hawaii?

A

No.

And Victor airways have no upper limit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When do you need ADS-B Out?

A
  1. Class A, B, C
  2. within 30 nm of Class B from surface to 10,000’ MSL
  3. within lateral boundaries of Class B or C upward to 10,000’ MSL
  4. All Class E at and above 10,000’ MSL within 48 CONUS (excluding at & below 2,500’ AGL)
  5. Class E at and above 3,000’ MSL over Gulf of Mexico from the coastline out to 12 nm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Explain the airspace

A

Class E that goes down to 700’ AGL to accommodate instrument approaches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Explain the airspace

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is this?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

If operating off a VOR when do you need to have DME?

A

operating at or above 24,000’ MSL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the maximum speed in Class A?

A

Mach 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What do Class E transition areas do?

A

Allow ATC to provide service to IFR traffic flying in and out of airports

designed to protect approaching IFR traffic by raising the visibility minimums for any VFR traffic buzzing around

VFR in G = 1 sm/clear of clouds (day)
VFR in E = 3 sm/1000’ ceiling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What must you have in order to accept a visual approach?

A
  1. airport must be VFR
  2. a/c must remain within Class B
  3. maintain the basic cloud clearance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is a satellite airport?

A

Any other airport within Class C airspace

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What must Class D airspace have?

A

Weather reporting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When a Class D tower closes, what makes it revert to either Class E or Class G?

A

depends on the availability of a certified weather observer or automated system

if weather reporting is maintained - Class E

if weather reporting is not available - Class G

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does NFCT mean on a sectional chart?

A

Non Federal Control Tower

controllers who work Class D airports are not FAA employees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Describe the airspace altitude

A

-30 = surface up to but not including that value

usually found at airports under Class B airspace

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What must Class E airports have?

A

Weather reporting and communications with ATC to the surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

If you want to depart from a Class E airport and the weather is less than 1000’ and 3 miles visibility what do you require?

A

Special VFR clearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

In order to cancel IFR to an uncontrolled airport…

A
  1. airport must be reporting VFR and a/c maintain basic cloud clearance
  2. crew be in direct communications with ATC
  3. flight must be operated within 10nm of destination airfield OR visual reference with the landing surface is established and can be maintained
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What does TRSA stand for and what is it?

A

Terminal Radar Service Area

radar available to assist the tower outside its Class D airspace

can be thought of a Class D with radar coverage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Do TRSA radar and tower function independently?

A

Yes

But treat it like its a Class C airport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Is radio participation in a TRSA mandatory?

A

No. It is voluntary but highly recommended

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

If a MOA is hot, can IFR traffic be cleared through the MOA?

A

Yes, if IFR separation can be provided by ATC

otherwise ATC will reroute non-participating IFR traffic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How much separation are controllers required to provide IFR traffic from any special use airspace?

A

3 miles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the defined dimensions of a Warning Area and what is its purpose?

A

extending from 3 nm outward from the coast of the US

warn pilots of activity that may be hazardous to non-participating a/c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

List the SUA

A

Prohibited Area
Restricted Area
MOA
Warning Area
Alert Area
Controlled Firing Area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Define Alert Area

Who is responsible of collision avoidance?

A

may contain a high volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity

participating a/c and a/c transitioning the area are equally responsible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Do you need to chart CFAs?

A

No, they do not cause non-participating a/c to change its flight path

activities are suspended immediately when spotter a/c, radar, or ground lookouts indicate an a/c may be approaching the area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Sectional charts depict which MTRs?

Low Altitude En Route charts depict which MTRs?

A

Sectional - all MTRs

Low Altitude - all MTRs above 1,500’ AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Difference between MTRs with 3 and 4 numbers

A

3 numbers - include one or more segments above 1,500’ AGL

4 numbers - no segment above 1,500’ AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What does SLOP stand for?

A

Strategic Lateral Offset Procedure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the DC FRZ and DC SFRA? What is the radius around what?

A

FRZ - Flight Restricted Zone

SFRA - Special Flight Rules Area

30 NM radius of DCA VOR

33
Q

What does ADIZ stand for?

What is it?

A

Air Defense Identification Zone

airspace over land or water in which the ready identification, location, and control of all a/c (except DoD/law enforcement) is required in the interest of national security

34
Q

What is DVFR?

A

Defense Visual Flight Rules

flight within an ADIZ conducted by any a/c (except DoD/law enforcement) IAW VFR

35
Q

What flight plans must be filed to fly within an ADIZ?

A

IFR or DVFR flight plan

DVFR flight plan contains time penetrating ADIZ and must depart w/i 5 minutes of est. departure time

36
Q

Where can you find ALD (available landing distance) for LAHSO operations?

A

in the “special notices” section of the Chart Supplement and on approach charts

37
Q

What is the minimum weather acceptable to receive a LAHSO clearance?

A

1000’ ceiling
3 SM visibility
dry runway
no tailwind

38
Q

All turns in the traffic pattern must be made in which direction?

A

Left (unless otherwise indicated)

abbreviation RP will be depicted on sectional if turns are to the right

39
Q

Define a straight-in approach

A

aligned within 30 degrees of the runway centerline at least 5 miles out

40
Q

What is MSAW (at larger airports)

A

Minimum Safe Altitude Warning

-calculates your descent rate
-alarm sounds in tower and TRACON and LA (low altitude) flashes in your radar data tag

41
Q

What are the beacon colors for a lighted land airport and military airport?

A

Lighted Land Airport - white and green (or green alone)

Military - 2 white flashes and 1 green

42
Q

Operation of the airport beacon during daylight hours can indicate what?

A

Ceiling less than 1,000’ and/or visibility less than 3 SM

43
Q

What markings do precision runways always have?

A

side strips
touchdown zone markings

44
Q

Describe runway edge lights

A

Threshold lights - fixed green lights

White lights down the edges

Yellow lights replace white on last 2,000’ or half of the runway, whichever is less, to form a caution zone

Threshold End lights - red

45
Q

What are REIL

A

Runway End Identifier Lights

Green flashing lights placed on corners of threshold

effective to identify runway when surrounded by other lights

46
Q
A

Threshold markings

47
Q

Describe the touchdown zone markings

A

identify the touchdown zone for landing

Touchdown zone = first 3,000’

500’ increments

shorter runways may eliminate one or more pairs

48
Q

What is TDZE

A

Touchdown Zone Elevation

highest elevation in the first 3,000’ of runway

49
Q

Describe the aiming point markings

A

aiming point for landing

also called 1000 footers (technically 1020’ since threshold markings are 20’ from threshold)

50
Q

When are aiming point markings required on a runway?

A

on 4,200 ft or longer instrumented runways

51
Q

Describe centerline markings

A

120 ft long with 80 ft gaps

vary in width depending on if precision, NP, or visual runways

(36” P / 18” NP / 12” V)

52
Q

What is blue arrow called

A

Threshold Bar

marks beginning of runway available when threshold has been relocated or displaced

53
Q

Describe the yellow paint
(chevrons, lines, bar)

A

Yellow Chevrons - unusable for landing, takeoff, and taxi

Yellow paint - taxi only

Demarcation bar - delineates a runway with a displaced threshold from a blast pad, stopway, or taxiway that precedes the runway

54
Q

What can you do on a displaced threshold?

A

takeoff in either direction

land from opposite direction

CANNOT land in direction of arrows

55
Q

Does a displaced threshold mark the end of a runway?

A

No

56
Q

What are the 6 airport signs?

A

Runway Distance Remaining
Location
Mandatory Instructions
Direction
Destination
Information

57
Q
A

Runway Distance Remaining

may be installed along one or both sides of runway

58
Q
A

Location Sign

no arrow
identify a taxiway, or runway location, or ILS critical area

59
Q
A

Mandatory Instruction

denotes entrance to a runway, critical area, or prohibited area

60
Q
A

Direction

identifies the designation of the intersecting taxiway(s) leading out of an intersection

accompanied by an arrow indicating the direction of the turn

61
Q
A

Destination

information on locating things such as runways, terminals, cargo areas, and civil aviation areas

62
Q

What type of sign is this and what does the black dot mean?

A

Destination

when two or more destinations have a common taxiing route

63
Q
A

Information

information on such things as areas that cannot be seen from control tower, applicable radio frequencies, and noise abatement procedures

64
Q

How are runway centerline lights placed?

A

50 ft intervals

offset max of 2 ft to either the right or left side of the centerline marking

should be on the opposite side of the centerline marking from the major taxi turnoffs

65
Q

What are the colors of the centerline lights?

A

White until the last 3,000 ft

white and red alternating for the next 2,000 ft

red for the last 1,000 ft

66
Q

Describe TDZL (Touchdown Zone Lighting)

A

two rows of light bars at 100’ increments on either side of the runway centerline

white lights starting 100’ beyond threshold and extend to 3,000 ft or midpoint of the runway, whichever is less

67
Q
A

Pilot controlled lighting

Negative symbology means PCL

68
Q

What does the dot indicate?

A

sequenced flashing lights installed with the approach lighting system

69
Q

What does this mean?

A

Pilot controlled lighting for whatever A5 is and the dot means there is a sequenced flashing light installed with that system

70
Q

What color are taxiway edge lights and centerline lights?

A

Edge lights - blue

Centerline lights - green

71
Q

What are the 2 components of a Runway Status Lights (RWSL) System?

A

Runway Entrance Lights (REL)

Takeoff Hold Lights (THL)

72
Q

What do REL do? When do REL turn on?

(Runway Entrance Lights)

A

indicate there is high speed traffic on the runway or there is an a/c on final approach

Departing a/c - reach 30 kts then lights illuminate

Arriving a/c - 1 mile from the threshold

73
Q

How far do THL extend? What do THL do? When do they turn on?

(Takeoff Hold Lights)

A

extend for 1,500 ft

provide signal to a/c in takeoff position that it is unsafe to takeoff bc runway is occupied

illuminate when another a/c is on the runway or about to enter the runway

74
Q

What are these?

A

Runway Guard Lights (aka Wig Wags)

installed at taxiway/runway intersections

flashing yellow lights on either side of the taxiway at the runway holding position marking

75
Q

How do airport operators issue Runway Condition Codes (RCC)?

A

they use Takeoff and Landing Performance Assessment (TALPA) standards based on the Runway Condition Assessment Matrix (RCAM) and report FICON NOTAMS

76
Q

What does a FICON NOTAM stand for?

A

Field Condition

77
Q

How are RCCs divided up?

A

vary for each third of the runway and use Percentage (PRCT) based reporting

78
Q

Can controllers issue multiple runway crossing clearances at the same time?

A

No…UNLESS the distance between 2 runway centerlines is less than 1000 ft (think parallel runways)

79
Q

What is that?

A

Runway Half-way Sign

reference point to judge takeoff acceleration trends

typical takeoff acceleration should allow ac to reach 70% of lift-off speed by the midpoint of the runway

Airline Prep (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions