Flight Operations Manual Flashcards

0
Q

What are the contamination effects on an aircraft

A

Reduce lift by 30% and drag by 40%.

Decrease CLmax by 25-30% and AOA stall by 5-7 degrees

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1
Q

Dry snow definition

A

Snow with limited water content. Normally flies into a cloud when kicked and dissipates rapidly. OAT is generally below (-1°C). May become “wet” if exposed to bright sun.

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2
Q

What is clear, rime or mixed ice?

A

….

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3
Q

Wet snow definition

A

Snow with sufficient moisture to pack easily; will roll up when a foot is pushed through it. Does not fly into a cloud when kicked, nor splash when stomped. OAT is generally -1°C or above.

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4
Q

Compacted snow definition

A

Either wet or dry snow that has been compacted by plowing or other means, and has the appearance of a smooth surface. Compacted snow may have a glossy appearance in bright sunlight.

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5
Q

Slush definition

A

Soft and mushy. Water drips off the palm when the palm is placed on the snow and lifted off.

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6
Q

When and how must you report braking action conditions?

A

Report braking action anytime braking action advisories are in effect, conditions differ from forecasted or reported, or when safe operation is otherwise affected. Report only your findings, not reports from other sources. Describe runway, taxiway, and gate/ramp conditions (e.g., clear, ice, patch, amount of surface covered, wet, dry, wet snow, etc.)
When taxiing, or near the end of landing roll, just after returning the thrust levers to forward idle, depress brake pedals toward full deflection. If brake response is
• “good,” discontinue the assessment and make a report to the tower.
• less than “good,” continue brake application to full pedal deflection and assess the braking response. Report to tower using terms “fair,” “poor,” or “nil” as described earlier.

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7
Q

Definition of GOOD braking conditions

A

More braking is available than will be used in an average airliner deceleration. Expect slight increases over certified stopping distances for maximum energy stops.

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8
Q

Definition of FAIR braking conditions

A

Fair or medium amount of deceleration is felt during full brake application. Sufficient braking and cornering force is available for a well-flown, on-speed landing using light braking. Crosswind and tailwind components are important factors.

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9
Q

What is Hoar frost and when will it form?

A

Less than 3 degree dew point spread

Sub freezing fuel even when the ambient temperature is a over freezing

Calm clear nights the temperature at the ground or surface can become much cooler than the reported temperature

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10
Q

What is anime frost and when will it occur?

A

….

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11
Q

Cold soaked fuel

A

Flight at high altitude the fuel becomes sub freezing. Cools the wing and will freeze the wing and cause clear ice to form when entering visible moisture even when OAT is above freezing conditions

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12
Q

Permissible amount of accumulation for takeoff

A

Maximum 1/8th inch layer or frost

Maximum 1/16th inch layer of ice

ONLY ON UNDERSIDE of the wing

Maximum 1/8th inch layer of frost on the fuselage

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13
Q

What should you do to minimize contamination formation during ground operations

A

Keep taxi speed to a minimum

Monitor flap indications when flaps in transit

Minimize and avoid use of thrust reverser

Maintain more distance from aircraft in front of you

After landing keep flaps at 20 degrees or more

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14
Q

Definition of POOR braking conditions

A

Small amount of deceleration is felt during full brake application. While a safe Poor (U.S.) landing and stop can be accomplished, all other factors must be favorable.
Crosswind and tailwind components are critical factors.

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15
Q

Definition of Nil braking conditions

A

No apparent deceleration during full brake application. Extremely slippery with poor directional control even while taxiing.

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16
Q

What must be done if the onboard weather radar fails inflight

A

If the radar fails after dispatch, advise ATC and OCC of the failure and obtain the latest convective weather information from appropriate sources. The flight may continue provided an alternate route clear of thunderstorm or hazardous weather conditions can be flown.

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17
Q

When is the onboard weather radar required prior to being dispatched

A

Radar is required anytime a flight will be conducted under IFR or night VFR conditions, and there is forecasted or reported convective activity along the intended route of flight.
• Note •
A flight may be dispatched with radar inoperative if an alternate routing can be selected that keeps the
aircraft clear of hazardous or convective activity.

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18
Q

Weather requirements for takeoff

A

Source: 121.651; Ops Spec C56, C78

No pilot may begin a takeoff in an airplane under IFR unless the reported prevailing visibility or the RVR equivalent is at or above:

• Published weather minimums;
• When takeoff weather minimums are not published, standard takeoff minimums, or;
• Lower than standard takeoff weather minimums authorized per PSA Operations Specifications.

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19
Q

When operating below _____RVR how many reporting points must be operative

A
  1. Except the far end is only advisory. RVR reports are controlling.
20
Q

When must a takeoff alternate be declared?

A

when the reported prevailing visibility or the RVR equivalent is below Category I (Precision and
non-Precision) landing minimums at the airport of departure.

21
Q

How far can the takeoff alternate be from the aircraft departure point?

A

The takeoff alternate must be within one hour from the departure airport based on normal cruise speed in still air with one- engine inoperative.
• ……………………………………………….300 nm
• ……………………………………………….300 nm
• ………………………………………………..300 nm

22
Q

A flight may not takeoff from an alternate or unlisted airport unless…

A

(Source: Ops Spec C070)

• The airport and facilities are adequate for the operation
• The airplane’s operating limitations can be complied with
• The flight has been dispatched in accordance with Company procedures
• Weather is equal to or better than the takeoff minimums published for the airport. If no takeoff minimums are prescribed, the weather must be at least 800/2; 900/1 1/2; or 1000/1.

23
Q

Type III operational requirements

A

…. FOM

24
Q

Type IV fluid operational requirements

A

But be used at or above -23 C

Used for Anti icing

25
Q

How far just you stay a aw from convection if OVERFLYING

A

Avoid hazardous weather laterally if possible.

In IMC, clear cell tops by at least 20 percent of radar cell height

in VMC, visually clear cell tops by at least 5,000 ft.

26
Q

What is the rule of thumb for anvil circumnavigation?

A

Avoid the downwind (anvil) side of the main body of the cells by at least one mile for every knot of wind at that altitude

(e.g., If the winds aloft at the altitude of the anvil are 270° at 60 kts, avoid the downwind side of the main body by 60 nm).

27
Q

What limitation applies to operation in turbulence?

A

• Operations are not authorized in KNOWN severe turbulence (PIREPS or ride reports with size of reporting aircraft given consideration).
• Operations are not authorized in flight plan guidance intensities of extreme, KNOWN or FORECAST during any phase of flight.
• Dispatch or operations are not authorized in an area of mountain wave activity designated as extreme.
• Dispatch and operations are authorized through SIGMET areas containing a FORECAST for severe turbulence.
• Dispatch is authorized through an area of KNOWN severe turbulence, if the forecast indicates that the turbulence will decrease to a level less than severe before the flight reaches that area. In this case, the dispatcher will provide a contingency plan.

28
Q

When must you avoid microburst

A

Do not takeoff, land, or make an approach when there is a “Microburst Alert” for the takeoff/landing runway, or when it is not possible to maintain at least 3nm horizontal separation from severe weather when the aircraft is < 1,000 feet AGL.

29
Q

When must a red alert be called?

A

A Red Alert is to be called when lightning has been detected or witnessed within a 3-mile radius of the airfield

30
Q

How long will a red alert remain in effect once called?

A

the storm has moved beyond 3 miles
- AND -
• at least 10 minutes has passed since the last lightning strike

31
Q

When is a Pre-departure inspection required?

A

Accomplish this check anytime OAT is 10°C or below, and visible moisture is present or icing conditions are present or were encountered during descent, approach, or taxi-in of the previous flight.

32
Q

Can you takeoff in heavy snow conditions?

A

Yes if….

De-iced AND anti-iced (type IV 100%) within 5 minutes from external check to takeoff.

33
Q

When is a flight deck check required?

A

A flight deck check is required when current weather reports indicate icing conditions but actual
conditions do not require anti-icing. Perform this check periodically during taxi-out and just prior to the takeoff roll.

34
Q

What must you do on the first flight of the day if the aircraft were de-iced prior to RON

A

The aircraft must be thoroughly deiced with Type I fluid prior to the first flight of the day to avoid fluid dehydration.

35
Q

What must be contained in the flight deck briefing?

A

(NEWDATES)

Names
Emergency Procedures
Weather (General)
Door Entry Procedure
Aircraft Specific Information (MELs)
Turbulence Considerations
Estimated Flight Time
Special Considerations

36
Q

Can refueling with passengers occur?

A

Yes.

Must position a Flight Attendant in the cabin near the main entry door.

The stairs or jetway must be attached to the aircraft with the aircraft main entry door open at all times.

In the event of an emergency or other situation requiring the passengers to be deplaned, the refueler will advise the Flight Attendant via the galley service door.

37
Q

When should you start the APU?

A

Start the APU approximately 10 minutes prior to door closure unless passenger comfort warrants otherwise.

38
Q

When must the captain conduct the takeoff?

A

The Captain will conduct the takeoff (ground roll through clean-up) when visibility is:
• 1600 ft RVR or less for any RVR on that runway
• 1/4 statute mile or less (if no RVR is reported for that runway).

39
Q

What is the recommended holding speed for the aircraft?

A

ACARS calculated holding speed, not below Flaps 0° + 30kts
• Reference Speed Cards for weight and speed
• If holding airspeed is below clean maneuvering airspeed, select appropriate flap setting.

40
Q

What restriction(s) exist when landing on a runway that is less than 5,000 feet long?

A

The Captain will be the flying pilot.

FOM 5.11.6

41
Q

Under what conditions is unpressurized flight permitted?

A

• The maximum altitude is 10,000 feet MSL,
• The captain, controlling dispatcher, and Maintenance Controller agree the flight can be safely executed,
• A passenger announcement is made informing everyone the flight will be flown unpressurize

42
Q

When has the DOT “clock” started on a ground delay?

A

Once the door is closed. If it remains open or in “virtual door open” AND the passengers have been notified of their ability to deplane, the clock will not start

43
Q

What is the preferred method of notifying OCC during ground delays

A

ACARS

44
Q

On Aircraft Delay definition

A

Any delay of up to 30 minutes when the aircraft is away from the gate, or when an aircraft in flight is placed in an ATC holding pattern.

45
Q

What is the DOT time limit for an Extended Onboard Delay?

A

3 hours domestic

4 hours international

46
Q

During an Extended Onboard Delay what communication is required to the passengers?

A

Passengers shall be provided with an updated status every 15 minutes. The announcement shall include:
• Current status
• Reason for the delay
• Estimated time of departure or arrival at the gate (if you don’t have an estimate, don’t guess)
• Any pertinent information (if there is no new information, advise passengers of this as well)

47
Q

During an Extended Onboard Delay when must food and drinks be provided to passengers?

DOT rule

PSA rule

A

DOT: before the 2 hour mark

PSA: at the 90 min mark and Captain must notify OCC