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Dispacher 2/2 > Flight Operations > Flashcards

Flight Operations Flashcards

1
Q

8879

What services are provided for aircraft operating within Class C airspcae?

A

Sequencing of arriving aircraft, separation of aircraft (except between VFR aircraft), and traffic advisories.

AIM3-2-4

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2
Q

9385

What altitude is a pilot authorized to fly when cleared for an ILS approach? The pilot

A

must maintain the last assigned altitude until established on a published route or segment of the approach with published altitudes.

CFR91.175

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3
Q

9438
When cleared to execute a published side-step maneuver for a specific approach and landing on the parallel runway, at what point is the pilot expected to commence this maneuver?

A

As soon as possible after the runway or runway environment is in sight.

AIM5-4-19

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4
Q

9005

Under what condition may a pilot cancel an IFR flight plan prior to completing the flight?

A

Only if in VFR conditions in other than Class A airspace.

AIM5-1-14

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5
Q

8882

(Refer to Figure 127.) Which altitude is normally appropriate for the top of Class D airspace?

A

2,500 feet AGL.

AIM3-2-5

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6
Q

9818

When should an aircraft depart if issued an EDCT?

A

No earlier than 5 minutes before and no later than 5 minutes after the EDCT.

AIM5-2-6

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7
Q

9014

Where are position reports required on an IFR flight on airways or routes?

A

Over all designated compulsory reporting points.

AIM5-3-2

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8
Q

9005.2

A landing weight increase of 10% will result in

A

21% increase in kinetic energy.

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9
Q

9382
Assuming that all ILS component are operating and the required visual references are not acquired, the missed approach should be initiated upon

A

arrival at the DH on the glide slope.

CFR91.175

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10
Q

9400
At what maximum indicated airspeed can a reciprocating-engine airplane operate in the airspace underlying Class B airspace?

A

200 knots.

CFR91.117

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11
Q

9093

What separation or service by ATC is afforded pilots authorized ‘VFR on Top’?

A

Traffic advisories only

AIM5-5-13

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12
Q

9034

What is the primary purpose of a STAR?

A

Simplify clearance delivery procedures.

AIM5-4-1

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13
Q

9402

What action should a pilot take when a clearance is received from ATC that appears to be contrary to a regulation?

A

Request a clarification from ATC.

CFR91.123

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14
Q

9614
(Refer to Figure 269.) The flight is filed Senic One Departure, Daggett transition. Before reaching MOXIE intersection, ATC clears you to turn left heading 030 and proceed direct LAHAB intersection. After the turn, you realize you cannot cross LAHAB at 15,000 feet. What should you do if you are in IMC?

A

Advise departure control you cannot make the clearance and request radar vectors.

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15
Q

8800

(Refer to Figure 257A.) At what point does the final approach phase of the ILS RWY 25: at LAX?

A

Intercept of glide slope.

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16
Q

9091

What is the difference between a visual and a contact approach?

A

A visual approach is initiated by ATC while a contact approach is initiated by the pilot.

AIM5-4-22 and 5-4-24

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17
Q

8252
When a departure alternate is required for a three-engine air carrier flight, it must be located at a distance not greater than

A

2 hours from the departure airport at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine not functioning.

AIM121.617

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18
Q

8900
What is the minimum flight visibility and distance from clouds for flight at 10,500 feet, in Class E airspace, with a VFR-on-Top clearance during daylight hours?

A

5 statute miles, 1,000 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 1 mile horizontal.

CFR91.155

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19
Q

9744

Pilots are not authorized to fly a published RNAV or RNP procedure unless it is retrievable by the procedure name from

A

the aircraft navigation database.

AIM5-5-16

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20
Q

9096
If ATC requests a speed adjustment that is not within the operating limits of the aircraft, what action must the pilot take?

A

Advise ATC of the airspeed that will be used.

AIM4-4-2

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21
Q

8884

(Refer to Figure 127.) Which altitude is appropriate for the top of Class E airspace?

A

18,000 feet MSL.

AIM3-2-1

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22
Q

9033

How should an off-airway direct flight be defined on an IFR flight plan?

A

All radio fixes over which the flight will pass.

AIM5-1-8

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23
Q

9655
(Refer to Figure 201 and 201A.) What type of weather information would normally be expected to be available from the Weather Data Source at Ogde-Hinckley?

A

Cloud height, weather, obstructions to vision, temperature, dewpoint, altimeter, surface winds, and any pertinent remarks.

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24
Q

9419
Civil aircraft holding at an altitude of 14,000 feet at a military or joint civil/military use airport should expect to operate at which holding pattern airspeed?

A

230 knots

AIM5-3-7

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25
Q

9809

Before requesting RVSM clearance, each person

A

shall correctly annotate the flight plan.

AIM4-6-4

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26
Q

8824

(Refer to Figure 114.) The changeover point on V8 southwest bound between HEC VORTAC and PDZ VORTAC is

A

31 DME miles from the HEC VORTAC.

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27
Q

8954

When cleared to execute a published side-step maneuver, at what point is the pilot expected to commence this maneuver?

A

As soon as possible after the runway environment is in sight.

AIM5-4-19

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28
Q

8874

(Refer to Figure 126.) What is the radius from the airport of the outer circle, A?

A

10 miles.

AIM3-2-4

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29
Q

9055

How should a pilot describe braking action?

A

Good, good to medium, medium, medium to poor, poor or nil.

AIM4-3-8

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30
Q

8872

(Refer to Figure 126.) What is the normal radius from the airport of the outer area, B?

A

20 miles.

AIM3-2-4

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31
Q

8891

What is the purpose of MOAs?

A

To separate military training activities from IFR traffic.

AIM3-4-5

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32
Q

8953

When simultaneous approaches are in progress, how does each pilot receive radar advisories?

A

On tower frequency.

AIM5-4-15

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33
Q

9773

Pilots are responsible for knowing

A

if they can conduct an RNP approach with an arc at a designated airspeed.

AIM5-4-18

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34
Q

8251
When is a supplemental air carrier, operating under IFR, required to list an alternate airport for each destination airport within the 48 contiguous United States?

A

On all flights, an alternate is required regardless of existing of forecast weather conditions at the destination.

CFR121.623

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35
Q

9013

What action should a pilot take if asked by ARTCC to ‘VERIFY 9,000’ and the flight is actually maintaining 8,000?

A

Report maintaining 8,000.

AIM5-3-1

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36
Q

8889
What restriction applies to a large, turbine-powered airplane operating to or from a primary airport in Class B airspace?

A

Most operate above the floor when within lateral limits of Class B airspace.

AIM3-2-3

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37
Q

8255
The minimum weather conditions that must exist for an airport to be listed as an alternate in the dispatch release for a domestic air carrier flight are

A

those specified in the certificate holder’s Operations Specifications for that airport, when the flight arrives.

CFR121.625

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38
Q

9603

(Refer to Figure 293.) What must be operational for N711JB to execute the VOR RWY 13L/13R approach to JFK?

A

VOR, LDIN, and DEM or radar.

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39
Q

8802
(Refer to Figure 257B.) The radio altimeter indication for the DH at the inner marker on the ILS RWY 24R approach at LAX is

A

115.

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40
Q

8852
(Refer to Figure 279 and Legend72.) What is the approximate rate of descent required (for planning purposes) to maintain the electronic glide slope at 120 KIAS with a reported headwind component of 15 knots?

A

558 ft/min.

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41
Q

9600
(Refer to Figure 293.) The La Guardia weather goes below minimums and New York Approach Control issues a clearance to N711JB, via radar vectors, to ASALT Intersection. As N711JB is approaching ASALR, Approach Control clears the aircraft to fly the VOR RWY 13L/13R approach. What is the distance from ASALT Intersection to Rwy 13L?

A

12.2 NM.

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42
Q

8881

(Refer to Figure 127.) Which altitude is appropriate for the top of Class G airspace?

A

1,200 feet AGL.

AIM3-2-1

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43
Q

(Refer to Figure 127.) Which altitude is appropriate for the top of Class A airspce?

A

FL600.

AIM3-2-1

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44
Q

8782
(Refer to Figure 99, 101, 101A.) Which frequency should be selected to check airport conditions and weather prior to departure at DFW Intl?

A

135.95 MHz

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45
Q 
9036
What action(s) should a pilot take if vectored across the final approach course during an IFR approach?
A

Contact approach control, and advise that the flight is crossing the final approach course.

AIM5-4-3

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46
Q

9383

What action should be taken when a pilot is ‘cleared for approach’ while being radar vectored on an unpublished route?

A

Remain at last assigned altitude until established on a published route segment.

CFR91.175

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47
Q

8298
With regard to flight crewmember duties, which of the following operations are considered to be in the ‘critical phase of flight’?

A

Taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 10,000 feet, excluding cruise flight.

CFR121.542

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48
Q

8797

(Refer to Figure 348.) What distance is available for takeoff on RWY 11R at Tucson Intl?

A

8,408 feet.

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49
Q

8798

(Refer to Figure 348.) What effect on the takeoff run can be expected on RWY 11R at Tucson Intl?

A

Takeoff run will be lengthened by the 0.7 percent upslope of the runway.

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50
Q

9089

How often are NOTAMs broadcast to pilots on a scheduled basis?

A

Hourly, appended to the weather broadcast.

AIM5-1-3

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51
Q

8726
(Refer to Figure 310.) What is the required minimum reported weather to initiate the ILS RWY 9L approach at PHL in your CAT C turbine-powered airplane with no MEL items?

A

Visibility 1800 RVR.

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52
Q

9046

Under what conditions may a pilot on an IFR flight plan comply with authorization to maintain ‘VFR on Top’?

A

Maintain VFR altitudes, cloud clearances, and comply with applicable instrument flight rules.

AIM5-5-13

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53
Q

9094
When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbine-powered aircraft operating below 10,000 feet?

A

210 knots

AIM4-4-12

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54
Q

9827.1
You are rolling on takeoff in a 14 CFR Part 25 certified jet and you see an engine oil pressure caution light as you approach V1. You should

A

promptly abort the takeoff and plan on only having asymmetrical reverse thrust.

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55
Q

9394.2

An airport may not be qualified for alternate use if

A

the NAVAIDs used for the final approach are unmonitored.

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56
Q

9691
The GPS Approach Overlay Program permits pilots to use GPS avionics when IFR for flying existing instrument approach procedures, except

A

SDF, LOC and LDA.

AIM1-1-19

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57
Q

8253
Which in-flight conditions are required by a supplemental air carrier to conduct a day, over-the-top flight below the specified IFR minimum en route altitude?

A

The flight must be conducted at least 1,000 feet above an overcast or broken cloud layer, any higher broken/overcast cloud cover is a minimum of 1,000 feet above the IFR MEA, and have at least 5 miles flight visibility.

CFR121.657

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58
Q

9658
(Refer to Figure 185 and 185A.) The maximum gross weight that an L1011 can be operated on RWY 01L/19R at McCarran Intl is

A

496,000 pounds

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59
Q

9599

(Refer to Figure 293.) The distance from the FAF to the MAP for the VOR or GPS RWY 13L/13R approach is

A

2.6 NM.

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60
Q

9817

When executing a stabilized approach, you should use

A

no more than 1000 FPM rate of descent for a non-precision or precision approach from 1,000 feet above the airport or TDZE.

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61
Q

8890
Why are certain areas that start 3 nautical miles from the coastline of the U.S. and extend outward, classified as Warning Areas?

A

To warn pilot of nonparticipating aircraft of a potential danger within the area.

AIM3-4-4

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62
Q

8242

Assuring that appropriate aeronautical charts are aboard an aircraft is the responsibility of the

A

pilot-in-command.

CFR121.549

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63
Q

9095
When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbine-powered aircraft departing an airport?

A

230 knots.

AIM4-4-12

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64
Q

8876

(Refer to Figure 126.) Which altitude (box 1) is applicable to the vertical extent of the inner and outer circules?

A

4,000 feet above airport

AIM3-2-4

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65
Q

8873

(Refer to Figure 126.) What is the usual radius from the airport of the inner circle, C?

A

5 miles.

AIM3-2-4

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66
Q

8887
The maximum indicated airspeed that an aircraft may be flown in Class B airspace, after departing the primary airport, while at 1,700 feet AGL and 3.5 nautical miles from the airport is

A

250 knots.

CFR91.117

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67
Q

9760

Precision runway monitoring requires

A

pilot responsibility to monitor 2 simultaneous radios.

AIM5-4-16

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68
Q

9692

Aircraft navigating by GPS are considered, on the flight plan, to be

A

RNAV equipped.

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69
Q

8893
What is the required flight visibility and distance from clouds if you are operating in Class E airspace at 9,500 feet with a VFR-on-Top clearance during daylight hours?

A

3 statute miles, 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal.

CFR91.155

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70
Q

8736

(Refer to Figure 1.) What does the 20:1 ratio represent?

A

Obstacle clearance surface (OCS).

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71
Q

9424

Pilots should state their position on the airport when calling the tower for takeoff

A

from a runway intersection.

AIM4-3-10

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72
Q

9827.2
You are rolling on takeoff in a 14 CFR Part 25 certified jet and you see an engine oil pressure caution light as you pass V1. You should

A

continue the takeoff as briefed and handle the illumination as an inflight emergency.

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73
Q

8279
Under what conditions may an air carrier pilot continue an instrument approach to the DH, after receiving a weather report indicating that less than minimum published landing conditions exist at the airport?

A

When the weather report is received after the pilot has begun the final approach segment of the instrument approach.

CFR121.651

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74
Q

9005.1

A landing weight increase of 10% will result in a landing distance increase of approximately

A

10%

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75
Q

9744.1

GBAS approaches are

A

flown using the same techniques as an ILS once selected and identified.

AIM1-1-21

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76
Q

8950
(Refer to Figure 145.) The minimums for the nonprecision approach at KAMA are 3/4-mile visibility and 400 feet. When operating under Part 121, can the pilot legally execute the approach with the given METAR data?

A

No, they do not meet the minimum ceiling requirements.

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77
Q

8247
When the forecast weather conditions for a destination and alternate airport are considered marginal for a domestic air carrier’s operation, what specific action should the dispatcher or pilot in command take?

A

List at least one additional alternate airport.

CFR121.619

78
Q

8256

Which dispatch requirement applies to a flag air carrier that is scheduled for a 7-hour IFR flight?

A

An alternate airport is required.

CFR121.621

79
Q

9645.1
(Refer to Figure 374.) Inbound to DEN to Dallas/Fort Worth (DFW), Center gives you a vector and a frequency for Denver Approach Control, but you miss-copy the frequency. You determine you probably were assigned

A

120.35 and should expect a tower frequency of 124.3.

80
Q

9022

Pilots should notify controllers on initial contact that they have received the ATIS broadcast by

A

repeating the alphabetical code word appended to the broadcast.

AIM4-1-13

81
Q

8859

When holding at an NDB, at what point should the timing begin for the second leg outbound?

A

When abeam the holding fix.

AIM5-3-7

82
Q

9418
What is the maximum holding speed for a civil turbojet holding at a civil airport at 15,000 feet MSL, unless a higher speed is required due to turbulence or icing and ATC is notified?

A

265 knots.

AIM5-3-7

83
Q

9555
(Refer to Figure 360 and 388.) N60JB desired to list ROC as an alternate for BUF. The active RWY at ROC was expected to be RWY 28. What weather forecast was required at Greater Rochester Intl, for N60JB to list it as an alternate?

A

Nonprecision approach 800-2, precision approach 800-2

84
Q

8799
(Refer to Figure 255A and 255B.) Which approach control frequency is indicated for the TNP.DOWNE4 Arrival with LAX as the destination?

A

124.05 MHz

85
Q

9027

What is one limitation when filing a random RNAV route on an IFR flight plan?

A

The entire route must be within radar environment.

AIM5-1-8

86
Q

9602

(Refer to Figure 293.) For landing on RWY 13R at JFK, how much RWY is available?

A

12,468 feet.

87
Q

8262
An alternate airport is not required to dispatch a flag air carrier airplane for a flight of less than 6 hours when the visibility for at least 1 hour before and 1 hour after the ETA at the destination airport is forecast to be

A

at least 3 miles, or 2 miles more than the lowest applicable minimum.

CFR121.621

88
Q

9694
The weather forecast requires an alternate for LUKACHUKAI (GPS RWY 25) ARIZONA. The alternate airport must have an approved instrument approach procedure, which is anticipated to be operational and available at the estimated time of arrival, other than

A

GPS.

AIM1-1-19

89
Q

8796

(Refer to Figure 348.) How can the pilot receive the latest NOTAMs for the TUS LAX flight?

A

Contact the RCO on 122.2 MHz.

90
Q

8885

(Refer to Figure 127.) Which altitude is appropriate for the top of Class C airspace?

A

4,000 feet AGL

AIM3-2-4

91
Q

9090.1

If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, what action(s) should the pilot take?

A

Make a climbing turn toward the landing runway until established on the missed approach course.

AIM5-4-21

92
Q

9007

Under what condition does a pilot receive a ‘void time’ specified in the clearance?

A

On an uncontrolled airport.

AIM5-2-6

93
Q

9041

When may a pilot execute a missed approach during an ASR approach?

A

Anytime at the pilot’s discretion.

AIM5-4-10

94
Q

9659

(Refer to Figure 185A.) The threshold of RWY 07L at McCarran Intl is displaced

A

2,133 feet, due to a hangar.

95
Q

9039
When cleared for an IFR approach to an uncontrolled airport with no FSS, what precaution should the pilot take after being advised to change to advisory frequency?

A

Broadcast position and intentions on the Common Traffic Advisory Frequency and monitor the frequency.

AIM5-4-4

96
Q

9008

What is the normal procedure for IFR departures at locations with pretaxi clearance programs?

A

Pilots request IFR clearance 10 minutes or less prior to taxi, then request taxi clearance from ground control.

AIM5-2-1

97
Q

8858
When using a flight director system, what rate of turn or bank angle should a pilot observe during turns in holding pattern?

A

3 degree per second or 25 degree bank, whichever is less.

AIM5-3-7

98
Q

8297
Except when in cruise flight, below what altitude are non-safety related cockpit activities by flight crewmember prohibited?

A

10,000 feet.

CFR121.542

99
Q

9090.2

Precision Runway Monitoring (PRM) is

A

a RADAR system for monitoring approaches to closely spaced parallel runways.

100
Q

9398

At what maximum indicated airspeed may a reciprocatin-engine-powered airplane be operated within Class D airspace?

A

200 knots

CFR91.117

101
Q

9015

Which reports are required when operating IFR in radar environment?

A

Vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 % or 10 knots, and leaving any assigned holding fix or point.

AIM5-3-3

102
Q

8857

Maximum holding speed for a civil turbojet aircraft at a joint use airport (civil/Navy) between 7,000 and 14,000 feet is

A

230 knots.

AIM5-3-7

103
Q

8257
An airport is not listed in a domestic Air Carrier’s Operations Specifications and does not have the prescribed takeoff weather minimums. What are the minimum weather conditions required for takeoff?

A

800-2.

CFR121.637

104
Q

8248

An alternate airport for departure is required

A

if weather conditions are below authorized landing minimums at the departure airport.

CFR121.617

105
Q

8853

What action should a pilot take if within 3 minutes of a clearance limit and further clearance has not been received?

A

Start a speed reduction to holding speed in preparation for holding.

AIM5-3-7

106
Q

9045

What is the pilot’s responsibility for clearance or instruction readback?

A

Except for SIDs, acknowledge altitude assignments, altitude restrictions, and vectors.

AIM4-4-7

107
Q

9026

How are random RNAV routes below FL390 defined on the IFR flight plan?

A

Begin and end over appropriate arrival and departure transition fixes or navigation aids for the altitude being flown, define the random waypoints by using degree-distance fixes based on navigation aids appropriate for the altitude being flown.

AIM5-1-8

108
Q

9439

An ATC ‘instruction’

A

is a directive issued by ATC for the purpose of requiring a pilot to take a specific action.

109
Q

9604

(Refer to Figure 293.) The distance from Canarsie (CPI) to RWY 13R at JFK is

A

5.3 NM.

110
Q

9554
(Refer to Figure 259.) When performing the LOC RWY 33R approach and sidestep, at what point would you initiate the missed approach?

A

4.5 NM after JOLTE

111
Q

9022.1
While holding short for an intersection takeoff runway 36 at taxiway C, tower clears you to “line up and wait runway 36.” You should

A

line up and wait on runway 36 at intersection C for departure.

112
Q

9391
What minimum ground visibility may be used instead of a prescribed visibility criteria of RVR 16 when that RVR value is not reported?

A

1/4 SM.

AIM91.175

113
Q

9619
(Refer to Figure 301.) During the approach (ILS RWY 10 at SYR) while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 110 knots, what was the approximate rate of descent for PTZ 70?

A

585 feet per minutes

114
Q

9644
(Refer to Figure 192.) On the airway J10 between OBH and LBF, the MAA is 41,000 feet. What is the MAA on J197 between FSD and OBH?

A

45,000 feet.

115
Q

9086

What are FDC NOTAMs?

A

Regulator amendments to published IAPs and charts not yet available in normally published charts.

AIM5-1-3

116
Q

9571

(Refer to Figure 259.) Which approach lighting is available for RWY 33R?

A

MALSR with RAIL.

117
Q

9049

Which aeronautical chart depicts Military Training Route (MTR) above 1,500 feet?

A

IFR Low Altitude En Route Chart.

AIM3-5-2

118
Q

9044

What action is expected of an aircraft upon landing at a controlled airport?

A

Exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway and remain on tower frequency until instructed otherwise.

AIM4-3-20

119
Q

8856

Maximum holding speed for a turbojet airplane above 14,000 feet is

A

265 knots.

AIM5-3-7

120
Q

9016

Which reports are always required when on an IFR approach not in radar contact?

A

Leaving FAF inbound or outer marker inbound and missed approach.

AIM5-3-3

121
Q

8825

(Refer to Figure 114.) The minimum crossing altitude at APLES INT southwest bound on V394 is

A

9,100 feet.

122
Q

9392
The prescribed visibility criteria of RVR 32 for the runway of intended operation is not reported. What minimum ground visibility may be used instead of the RVR value?

A

5/8 SM.

CFR91.175

123
Q

8888

(Refer to Figure 127.) What is the base of the Class A airspace?

A

FL 180

AIM 3-2-1

124
Q

8264
When an alternate airport outside the United States has no prescribed takeoff minimums and is not listed in a Flag Air Carrier’s Operations Specifications, the minimum weather conditions that will meet the requirements for takeoff is

A

900-1-1/2.

CFR121.637

125
Q

9780

When flying in the airspace underlying Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is

A

200 knots.

CFR91.117

126
Q

8883

(Refer to Figure 127.) Which altitude is appropriate for the top of Class G airspace?

A

700 or 1,200 feet AGL

AIM3-2-1

127
Q

9601
(Refer to Figure 293.) The La Guardia weather goes below minimums and New York Approach Control issues a clearance to N711JB, via radar vectors, to ASALT Intersection. What is the lowest altitude that Approach Control may clear N711JB to cross ASALT Intersection?

A

2,000 feet.

128
Q

8250
If a four-engine air carrier airplane is dispatched from an airport that is below landing minimums, what is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be located from the departure airport?

A

Not more than 2 hours at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine inoperative.

CFR121.617

129
Q

9368

When must the pilot initiate a missed approach procedure from an ILS approach?

A

At the DA/DH, if the visual references for the intended runway are not distinctly visible or anytime thereafter that visual reference is lost.

CFR91.175

130
Q

9092

Except during an emergency, when can a pilot expect landing priority?

A

In turn, on a first-come, first-serve basis.

AIM5-4-25

131
Q

9693
The Instrument Approach Procedure Chart top margin identification is VOR or GPS RWY 25, AL-5672 (FAA), LUKACHUKAI, ARIZONA. in what phase of the approach overlay program is this GPS approach?

A

Phase III.

AIM1-1-19

132
Q

9032

How should the route of flight be defined on an IFR flight plan?

A

A simplified route via airways or jet routes with transitions.

AIM5-1-8

133
Q

9394.1

When proceeding to the alternate airport, which minimums apply?

A

The actual minimums shown on the IAP chart for the airport.

CFR91.175

134
Q

8854

What report should the pilot make at a clearance limit?

A

Time and altitude/flight level arriving or leaving.

AIM5-3-2

135
Q

9738

To conduct an RNAV (GPS) approach to LPV minimums, the aircraft must be furnished with

A

a GPS/WAAS receiver approved for an LPV approach by the AFM.

AIM5-4-5

136
Q

8261
The weather conditions that meet the minimum requirements for a flag air carrier to take off from an alternate airport that is not listed in the Operations Specifications are

A

800-2, 900-1-1/2, or 1000-1.

CFR121.637

137
Q

9826
An air carrier flight is preparing to depart from a domestic airport which is not listed in the carrier’s operation specifications. There are no takeoff minimums prescribed for the airport, and the weather is currently reporting a 900-foot visibility in mist. The flight may

A

not depart until the weather improves.

CFR121.637

138
Q

9040

Under what condition may a pilot file an IFR flight plan containing a special or privately owned IAP?

A

Upon approval of the owner.

AIM5-4-7

139
Q

8254
Prior to listing an airport as an alternate airport in the dispatch of flight release, weather reports and forecasts must indicate that weather conditions will be at or above authorized minimums at that airport

A

when the flight arrives.

CFR121.625

140
Q

9397

At what maximum indicated airspeed can a B-727 operate within Class B airspace without special ATC authorization?

A

250 knots

CFR91.117

141
Q

8784

(Refer to Figure 100, Area 8.) Where is the VOR changeover point on V571 between Navasota (TNV) and Humble (IAH)?

A

24 miles from IAH.

142
Q

8875

(Refer to Figure 126.) Which altitude (box 2) is applicable to the base of the outer circle?

A

1,200 feet AGL.

AIM3-2-4

143
Q

9009

What is the purpose of the term ‘hold for release’ when included in an IFR clearance?

A

A procedure for delaying departure for traffic volume, weather, or need to issue further instructions.

AIM5-2-6

144
Q

9006

What minimum information does an abbreviated departure clearance ‘cleared as filed’ include?

A

Destination airport, en route altitude, transponder code, and DP, if appropriate.

AIM5-2-5

145
Q

9588
(Refer to Figure 273.) The touchdown zone elevation of the ILS RWY 25L approach at Phoenix Sky Harbor International airport is

A

1,126 feet.

146
Q

8806

(Refer to Figure 256 and 257A.) How should the IFR flight plan be closed upon landing at LAX?

A

LAX tower will close it automatically.

AIM5-1-14

147
Q

8877

What minimum aircraft equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace?

A

Two-way communications and transponder.

AIM3-2-4

148
Q

9396

What is the maximum indicated airspeed a reciprocating-engine-powered airplane may be operated within Class B airspace?

A

250 knots

CFR91.117

149
Q

8793
(Refer to Figure 348 and 361.) Determine the DEP CON frequency for the TUS7.GBN transition after takeoff from RWY 11R at Tucson Intl.

A

125.1 MHz.

150
Q

9645
(Refer to Figure 373.) Inbound to DEN from Dallas/Fort Worth (DFW), Center gives you a vector and a frequency for Denver Approach Control, but you miss-copy the frequency. You determine you probably were assigned

A

120.35 and should expect a tower frequency of 132.35.

151
Q

9827.3

During takeoff roll with runway remaining, you receive a master caution light after V(R). What action should you take?

A

Continue the takeoff.

152
Q

9666

(Refer to Figure 335.) At San Francisco Intl (SFO), the runway hold position signs are

A

on either side of the taxiways.

153
Q

8880

What pilot certification and aircraft equipment are required for operating in Class C airspace?

A

No specific certification but a two-way radio.

AIM3-2-4

154
Q

9048

In what airspace will ATC not authorize ‘VFR on Top’?

A

Class A airspace.

AIM 5-5-13

155
Q

9374
A pilot is operating in Class G airspace. If existing weather conditions are below those for VFR flight, an IFR flight plan must be filed and an ATC clearance received prior to

A

entering controlled airspace.

CFR 91.173

156
Q

9393
The visibility criteria for a particular instrument approach procedure is RVR 40. What minimum ground visibility may be substituted for the RVR value?

A

3/4 SM.

CFR 91.175

157
Q

9056

What action should the pilot take when ‘gate hold’ procedures are in effect?

A

Contact ground control prior to starting engines for sequencing.

AIM4-3-15

158
Q

9409

In what altitude structure is a transponder required when operating in controlled airspace?

A

above 10,000 feet MSL, excluding the airspace at and below 2,500 feet AGL.

CFR91.215

159
Q

9035

When does ATC issue a STAR?

A

Only when ATC deems it appropriate.

AIM5-4-1

160
Q

9021
When the approach procedure involves a procedure turn the maximum speed that should be observed from first overheading the course reversal IAF through the procedure turn is

A

200 knots IAS.

AIM5-4-9

161
Q

9053
To assure expeditious handling of a civilian air ambulance flight, the word ‘LIFEGUARD’ should be entered in which section of the flight plan?

A

Remarks block.

AIM 4-2-4

162
Q

9617
(Refer to Figure 258.) As you approach DEPEW on the RNAV (GPS) RWY 32 approach, your GPS changes from “armed” to “active,” and the CDI needle begins to show increasing deviation to the left with no increase in cross track. In this situation, you

A

know that the sensitivity of the CDI has increased.

AIM1-1-23

163
Q

9018
A minimum instrument altitude for enroute operations off of published airways which provides obstruction clearance of 1,000 feet in nonmountainous terrain areas and 2,000 feet in designated mountainous areas within the United States is called

A

Off-Route Obstruction Clearance Altitude (OROCA).

AIM4-4-9

164
Q

9686
(Refer to Figure 343.) The airport diagram of Bradley Intl Airport has a symbol (appears to be a triangle balanced on top of another triangle) located close to the approach end of RWY 19. What does this symbol indicate?

A

Runway Radar Reflectors.

165
Q

9100

What is the maximum acceptable tolerance for penetrating a domestic ADIZ over land?

A

Plus or minus 10 miles; plus or minus 5 minutes.

AIM 5-6-1

166
Q

9087

What type information is disseminated by NOTAM(D)s?

A

Status of navigation aids, ILSs, radar service available, and other information essential to planning.

AIM5-1-3

167
Q

8826

(Refer to Figure 114 Area 9.) What is the minimum altitude southwest bound on V8 at LUCER intersection?

A

9,300 feet.

168
Q

8836

(Refer to Figure 273.) Straight-in minimums for a Category B aircraft on the LOC RWY 25L approach are

A

1,520 -1/2.

169
Q

8263
The minimum weather conditions that must exist for a domestic air carrier flight to take off from an airport that is not listed in the Air Carrier’s Operations Specifications (takeoff minimums are not prescribed for that airport) is

A

1,000-1, 900-1-1/2, or 800-2.

CFR121.637

170
Q

8803
(Refer to Figure 257A.) If the glide slope indication is lost upon passing LIMMA INT on the ILS RWY 25L approach at LAX,what action should the pilot take?

A

continue to the MAP, and execute the missed approach as indicated.

AIM5-5-5

171
Q

8855

The maximum speed a propeller-driven airplane may hold at is

A

265 knots

AIM5-3-7

172
Q

8249
What is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be from the departure airport for a two-engine airplanes?

A

1 hour at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine operating.

CFR121.617

173
Q

9038

When is radar service terminated while vectored for an IFR at an uncontrolled airport?

A

Only upon landing or advised to change to advisory frequency.

AIM5-4-3

174
Q

9933

(Refer to Figure 279.) Where does the final approach segment begin on the ILS RWY 32R at ORD?

A

Glide slope intercept, 2,700 feet MSL.

175
Q

9670

(Refer to Figure 210.) The route between FIS (near Key West) and MTH, which is labeled B646, is an example of a

A

LF/MF Oceanic Route.

176
Q

9047

What cloud clearance must be complied with when authorized to maintain ‘VFR on Top’?

A

May maintain VFR clearance above, below, or between layers.

AIM5-5-13

177
Q

9057

What special consideration is given for turbine-powered aircraft when ‘gate hold’ procedures are in effect?

A

They are expected to be ready for takeoff prior to taxi and will receive takeoff clearance prior to taxi.

AIM 4-3-15

178
Q

9384
Under which condition, if any, may a pilot descend below DH or MDA when using the ALSF-1 approach light system as the primary visual reference for the intended runway?

A

The approach light system can be used as a visual reference, except that descent below 100 feet above TDZE requires that the red light bars be visible and identifiable.

CFR91.175

179
Q

9399

What is the maximum indicated airspeed a turbine-powered aircraft may be operated below 10,000 feet MSL?

A

250 knots.

CFR91.117

180
Q

8955
When simultaneous ILS approaches are in progress, which of the following should approach control be advised of immediately?

A

Any inoperative or malfunctioning aircraft receivers.

AIM5-4-15

181
Q

8878

What service is provided for aircraft operating within the outer area of Class C airspace?

A

The same as within Class C airspace when communications and radar contact is established.

AIM3-2-4

182
Q

9770
When planning to use RNAV equipment with GPS input for an instrument approach at a destination airport must have an available instrument approach procedure that does not

A

require the use of GPS except when the RNAV system has a WAAS input.

183
Q

9031

What is the suggested time interval for filing and requesting an IFR flight plan?

A

File at least 30 minutes prior to departure and request the clearance not more than 10 minutes prior to taxi.

AIIM5-1-8 and 5-2-1

184
Q

9369
If being radar vectored to the final approach course of a published instrument approach that specifies ‘NO PT,’ the pilot should

A

not execute the procedure turn unless specifically cleared to do so by ATC.

CFR91.175

185
Q

8860

When entering a holding pattern above 14,000 feet, the initial outbound leg should not exceed

A

1-1/2 minutes.

AIM5-3-7

186
Q

9741

What is the maximum acceptable position tolerance for penetrating a domestic ADIZ over water?

A

Plus or minus 20 miles; plus or minus 5 minutes.

AIM5-6-1

187
Q

9012

In what way are SIDs depicted in plan view?

A

‘Vectors’ provided for navigational guidance or ‘pilot NAV’ with courses the pilot is responsible to follow.

AIM5-2-8

188
Q

9370
When takeoff minimums are not prescribed for a civil airport, what are the takeoff minimums under IFR for a three-engine airplane?

A

1/2 SM.

CFR91.175

189
Q

9615

(Refer to Figure 293.) What is the distance from ASALT intersection to the MAP?

A

8.6 NM.

190
Q

9037

While being vectored to the final approach course of an IFR approach, when may the pilot descend to published altitudes?

A

Only when approach control clears the flight for approach.

AIM5-4-7

191
Q

8804

(Refer to Figure 257A and Legend 38.) What approach lights are available for the ILS RWY 25L approach at LAX?

A

ALSF-2 with sequenced flashing lights.

Dispacher 2/2 (4 decks)

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