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CCT Work Stuff > Flight Medic Class > Flashcards

Flight Medic Class Flashcards

1
Q

Succinylcholine

Adult Dose

A
  1. 5 mg/kg IV
  2. 5-4 mg/kg IM

150 mg MAX

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2
Q

Succinylcholine

(Pedi)

A

1 - 1.5 mg/kg IV
2.5 mg/kg IM
50 mg MAX

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3
Q

Succinylcholine

(Contraindications)

A

Hypersensitivity
Penetrating injuries to the eye
History of glaucoma/Ocular pressure
Malignant hypothermia

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4
Q

Rocuronium

Adult Dose

A

1 mg/kg IV

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5
Q

Rocuronium

Pedi Dose

A

1mg/kg IV

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6
Q

Rocuronium

Contraindications

A

NONE

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7
Q

Vecuronium

(Adult Dose)

A

0.1 mg/kg IV

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8
Q

Vecuronium

(Pedi Dose)

A

0.1 mg/kg IV

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9
Q

Vecuronium

Contraindications

A

NONE

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10
Q

Hypoxic Hypoxia

A

“”Ain’t enough Air getting to the lungs””

Airway obstruction

ARDS

Decrease partial pressure of oxygen at high altitude

Tension Pneumothorax

{Patient will turn Blue}

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11
Q

Hypemic Hypoxia

A

“Not enough Blood” 🩸

Lack of blood volume (Hypovolemic Shock)
Anemia or hemorrhage

TXA is used during Hypemic Hypoxia

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12
Q

Stagnant hypoxia

A

“Blood Ain’t Moving”

Cardiogenic shock 
Distributive shock 
Septic shock 
Anaphylactic shock 
Neurogenic shock 
Obstructive shock

{Patient will turn Blue}

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13
Q

Hysto-toxic Hypoxia

A

Cyanide Poison
Carbon monoxide
Alcohol poisoning

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14
Q

Which side of the O2 disassociation curve is Acidosis?

A

The right side

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15
Q

Which side of the O2 disassociation curve is alkalosis?

A

The left side

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16
Q

What is bad about the right side of the O2 disassociation curve?

A

It can’t carry O2

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17
Q

What are symptoms for the right side of the O2 disassociation curve?

A 
High Heart rate 
High metabolic state 
High fever 
Low respiratory 
High 23DGP
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18
Q

What are symptoms of a left-sided disassociation curve?

A

(Left side = Alkalosis)
Low temperatures
High respiratory
Low 23DPG

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19
Q

How do you reverse a high 23DGP?

A

Calcium gluconate

Calcium chloride

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20
Q

Explain base excess?

A

The more negative you are, the more acid you have

It’s a great way to trend any shock status

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21
Q

Explain the Gap?

A

Greater than 12 is acidosis

Less than 12 your normal

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22
Q

Sodium bicarb is the poor man’s what?

A

Dialysis machine (helps urinate/expel acid)

If it’s potassium related, get calcium first

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23
Q

What’s the formula to reach a desired ETCO2?

A

(Respiratory Rate X ETCO2)
—————————————
Desired ETCO2

= New Respiratory Rate

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24
Q

If you have a respiratory alkalosis, what should you ALWAYS rule out?

A

Metabolic acidosis (possible underlying cause)

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25
Q

What are the Golden Rules of ABG’s?

A
  1. Every 10mm/Hg change in CO2, the pH will change 0.08 in the opposite direction
  2. For every change in Bicarb of 10 mEq, the pH will change 0.15 in the same direction
  3. Formula for calculating Bicarb replacement Kg/4 X base deficit = Bicarb needed
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26
Q

Name the Gas Laws?

A 
Boyle's Law
Charles' Law
Dalton's Law
Henry's Law
Gay-Lussac's Law
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27
Q

Describe Boyle’s Law?

A

o Effects equipment and anything that contains air

o Higher the altitude the more gases expand

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28
Q

Describe Charles’ Law?

A

o Air expands when hot. Aircrafts love cold and dry air

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29
Q

Describe Dalton’s Law?

A

o As altitude increases, partial pressure decreases, Supplemental O2 is needed (Hypoxic Hypoxia)

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30
Q

Describe Gay-Lussac’s Law?

A

o If Temperatures increase, O2 tank pressure increases

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31
Q

Describe Henry’s Law?

A

Diving adds pressure, when surfacing nitrogen comes out

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32
Q

Adenosine dose for Heart Transplants / Central Lines?

A

1st Dose: 3mg

2nd Dose: 3mg

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33
Q

How many MM of pressure can the brain take before it herniates?

A

15mm

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34
Q

How to calculate the B/P?

A

CO x SVR = B/P

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35
Q

How to calculate Cardiac Output?

A

HR x SV = CO

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36
Q

High SVR equals?

A

Vasoconstriction

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37
Q

Low SVR equals?

A

Vasodilation

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38
Q

What happens during narrowing pulse pressure?

A

Vasoconstricting

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39
Q

What happens during widening pulse pressure?

A

Vasodilation

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40
Q

What are the STRESSORS of Flight?

A 
SELF IMPOSED
o	Dehydration
o	Exhaustion
o	Alcohol
o	Tobacco
o	Hypoglycemia
INHERENT
o	Thermal Changes
o	Humidity
o	Gravitational Forces
o	Fatigue
o	Partial Pressure of O2
o	Barometric Pressure Change
o	Noise
o	Vibration
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41
Q

When ascending to altitude, if your FIO2 IS 40%. What should your PEEP be?

A

PEEP of 5

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42
Q

What is a Steril Cockpit?

A

Only essential communication during all phases of flight except straight and level flight

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43
Q

What are Critical phases of flight?

A

o Takeoff
o Landing
o Refueling
o Taxi

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44
Q

What is the FIO2 calculation for take off?

A

(FIO2 x P1) / P2 = FIO2 required for ascent

P1=Sea level
P2=Desired Altitude

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45
Q

What should you do if a Diver has the Bens?

A

o Grab the diving laptop
o Call Divers Alert Network
o The amount of O2 that is running and the time they were placed on it

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46
Q

If a 12 lead is presenting with right side Deviation, what should you do?

A

Move V4 over to the right side of the rib cage

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47
Q

An inferior wall MI involves which coronary artery?

A

Right Coronary Artery

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48
Q

A Septal and Anterior wall MI involves which coronary artery?

A

Left Anterior Descending

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49
Q

A Lateral and Posterior MI involves which coronary artery?

A

Left Circumflex

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50
Q

A Posterior wall MI involves which coronary artery?

A

Posterior Descending Artery

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51
Q

Describe Lead I and Lead III during Left Axis Deviation?

A

Lead I is positive (thumbs up)

Lead III is negative (thumbs down)

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52
Q

Describe Lead I and Lead III during Right Axis Deviation?

A

Lead I is negative (thumbs down)

Lead III is positive (thumbs up)

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53
Q

How many ml/Hr does a pressure infuser run at 300 mm?

A

3mL/Hr

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54
Q

What is the purpose of a 12 lead?

A

To find a STEMI

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55
Q

Which Lead confirms your Lead placement?

A

aVR

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56
Q

How do you identify Pericarditis in a 12 Lead?

A

o WIDESPREAD concave ST elevation and PR depression
o Reciprocal ST depression and PR elevation in aVR
o Flat or inverted T waves

57
Q

What is early Repolarization?

A

Elevation of J-point with a late QRS sluring or notching

58
Q

What is Left Ventricular Hypertrophy?

A

Deviation of the ST segment in the opposite direction of the QRS complex
Greater than 11mm (positive) indicates L.V.H.

59
Q

What is a Left Bundle Branch Block?

A

o When the QRS is 120 milliseconds or more

o Absent Q wave in Leads I, V5, and V6

60
Q

What are the 3 I’s of ACS?

A

o Ischemia
• Demand is greater than the supply of O2
• Elevated T waves (Not Peaked) / Inverted T waves
• ST-Depression

o Injury
• ST Elevation

o Infarct
• Pathological (Wide or Deep) Q waves

61
Q

What locations can a Myocardial Infarct occur?

A
  • Inferior (Special assessment and Treatment)
  • Inferolateral
  • Posterior
  • Anterior
  • Anteroseptal
  • Lateral
  • Right ventricular
62
Q

What is the main cause of Right sided Heart Failure?

A

Left Sided Heart Failure

63
Q

What is the range for Pulmonary Artery Wedge Pressure, and what is it responsible for?

A

8-12mmHg

Measure Right Heart AFTERload and Left Heart PREload

64
Q

What are the symptoms for Pericarditis?

A

Febrile & Tachycardic

65
Q

After zeroing an Arterial line what do you do next?

66
Q

Every pediatric pt that has a central line, how should you check it?

A

Transduce it

67
Q

What is another name for a Pulmonary Artery Catheter?

A

A Swanz Ganz Catheter

68
Q

You should not see, what type of pressure during transport?

A

A Wedge Pressure

69
Q

How long is a pseudo Wedge pressure allowed for?

A

1 Breath Cycle

If its persistent, Deflate the tube or pull the tube back till you see CVP

70
Q

Critical Care Lyfepak’s should be able to monitor how many invasive lines.

71
Q

How do you calculate a Coronary Perfusion Pressure?

A

Diastolic - Pulmonary Wedge Pressure = CPP

72
Q

What is the normal range for Coronary Perfusion Pressure?

A

50-60 mmHg

73
Q

What is the normal range for Central Venous Pressure, and what is it responsible for?

A

2 - 6 mmHg

Measures Right Heart PRELOAD

74
Q

What is the Systolic and Diastolic range for a Right Ventricular Pressure?

A

Systolic 15-25mmHg

Diastolic 0-5mmHg

75
Q

What is the normal range for Systolic and Diastolic Pulmonary Artery Pressure?

A

Systolic 15-25mmHg

Diastolic 8-15mmHg

76
Q

What is the normal range for Cardiac Output?

A

4 - 8 L/min

77
Q

What is the normal range for Cardiac Index?

A

2.5 - 5.0 L/m

78
Q

How do you calculate MAP?

A

Systolic + 2(Diastolic) / 3

79
Q

How do you calculate Cerebral Perfusion Pressure?

A

MAP - ICP = CPP

80
Q

How do you calculate a Shock Index?

A

Systolic Blood Pressure

81
Q

What is the normal range for Shock Index?

A
  1. 5 - 0.7

* Anything greater than 1 the patient is in shock*

82
Q

If you raise your PEEP, what else should you raise?

83
Q

How do you calculate Minute Volume (Ve)?

A

Volume(Vt) x Rate (F) = Ve

84
Q

What is a normal I:E ratio?

85
Q

What is the maximum for your Peak Inspiratory Pressure?

86
Q

Does PIP cause Barotrauma?

87
Q

Can a Plateau Pressure cause Barotrauma?

88
Q

What are the steps for setting up the vent?

A 
Strategy
•	Protective or Obstructive
Type of Ventilation
•	Volume or Pressure
Mode of Ventilation
•	A/C, SIMV, PRVC
Settings
•	Vt, RR, FIO2, PEEP
89
Q

How do you calculate Male IBW?

A

MALE

50 + 2.3 for every inch over 5 feet = IBW (kg)

90
Q

How do you calculate Female IBW?

A

FEMALE

45(kg) + 2.3 for every inch above 5 feet

91
Q

At what Tidal Volume can most adult patients start at?

A

Vt 400 - 600

92
Q

What is the altitude for the Physiologic zone?

A

Sea level to 10,000 ft

93
Q

What is the altitude for the Physiologically Deficient zone?

A

10,000 to 50,000 ft

94
Q

What is the altitude for the Space Equivalent zone?

A

50,000 to 250,000 ft

95
Q

What is the altitude for Space?

A

Greater than 250,000 ft

96
Q

How do you calculate the ET Tube?

A

16 + Age / 4 = ET Tube size

97
Q

Every 33 feet equals how many ATM?

A

33 feet= 1 ATM (Atmosphere)

98
Q

How many torr is sea level?

99
Q

How many torr is Sea level, 10k, 18k, 63k?

A

Sea level = 760 torr
10,000 ft = 523 torr
18,000 ft = 380 torr
63,000 ft = 0 torr

100
Q

What is Barondontalgia?

A

It occurs during ascent, it is when air gets trapped in the fillings in your teeth

101
Q

What is Barotitis?

A

It occurs during descent, it’s when the air gets trapped in the middle ear and blocks the Eustachian tube.

102
Q

What is Barosinusitis?

A

Occurred during decent and Ascent, it is when air is trapped in your sinuses

103
Q

For every 1000 feet of elevation how much does your temperature change?

104
Q

When is the emergency action plan activated?

A

15 minutes after failure to report in

105
Q

How many hours of flight time with a pilot qualify for rotor wing?

A

2,000 hours

106
Q

How many hours does a pilot need to fly a helicopter to qualify?

A

1,200 hours in a helicopter

107
Q

How many hours does a pilot have to be in charge at night to qualify?

A

100 hours as a PIC at night?

108
Q

For FAA rules what is part 91 in part 135?

A

Part 91-No duty, no weather minimums

Part 125-Max 14 hour duty, 8 hour flight time, 8 hours from last beer

109
Q

What is the size of a hasty landing zone?

A

100’ x 100’

110
Q

Which direction does a helicopter approach a scene?

A

Against the wind

111
Q

How many passes are required prior to landing at a hasty landing zone?

A

Two passes, one high and one low

112
Q

What is the post crash sequence?

A

Turn off:
Throttle
Fuel
Battery

Assemble at 12 o’ clock position

113
Q

What is the pre-crash sequence?

A
  • Lay the patient flat
  • Turn off any oxygen
  • Assume the crash position
114
Q

How does the emergency locator transmitter activate?

A

Itself activates during a crash sequence at 4G’s

115
Q

What are the weather minimums for non-mountainous LOCAL Day/Night?

A 
Day = 800’ - 2 miles
Night = 800’ - 3 miles
116
Q

What are the weather minimums for non-mountainous CROSS COUNTRY Day/Night?

A 
Day = 800’ - 3 miles
Night = 1000’ - 3 miles
117
Q

What are the weather minimums for mountainous LOCAL Day/Night?

A 
Day = 800’ - 3 miles
Night = 1000’ - 3 miles
118
Q

what are the weather minimums for mountainous CROSS COUNTRY Day/Night? 

A

1000’ - 3 miles

1000’ - 5 miles

119
Q

What is the number one and number two causes of crashes?

A 
#1 weather
#2 night flight
120
Q

What is the glucose level for DKA?

A

Greater than 350 mg/dL

121
Q

What respiratory pattern is common with DKA?

A

Kussmaul respirations

122
Q

What is the glucose level for HHNK?

A

Greater than 600mg/dL

123
Q

 How quickly can you lower glucose for DKA and HHNK patient’s?

A

No more than 100mg/dL per hour

MAX 250mg/dL

124
Q

What is Diabetes Insipidis?

A

A condition where the kidneys are unable to conserve water

125
Q

What is Mallory Weiss/Boerhaave’s Tears?

A

A rupture of the esophagus

126
Q

What is the treatment for thyroid storm/Grave’s Disease?

A

IV Fluids first
Beta-blockers
Steroids
Tylenol (fever)

127
Q

What is Cushing syndrome?

A

“Buffalo hump, Moon face, Thin arms/legs, purple striae abdomen”

It’s a mass on the abdomen

128
Q

What are the signs of Addison’s/Adrenal insufficiency?

A

Patient presents with depression, malaise, salt craving, And Bronze colored skin

129
Q

What is Gray Turner sign?

A

Flank ecchymosis caused by hemorrhagic pancreatitis

130
Q

What is Cullen’s sign?

A

Periumbilical ecchymosis cause by hemorrhagic pancreatitis

131
Q

What are the treatment steps for Hyperkalemia (K+ >5.0) ?

A
  1. Bicarbonate, Insulin, D 50, Albuterol (This pushes K+ back into the cells)
  2. Lasix (Gets rid of the excess K+)
  3. Calcium Gluconate (Prevents V-Tach)
132
Q

For every 0.6 mEq Potassium change, how much does pH change?

133
Q

What is Chvosteks Sign?

A

Cheek muscle spasms when the facial nerve is tapped

134
Q

What is Trousseue’s sign?

A

Forearm tetany when B/P cuff is applied

135
Q

What is the threshold hypothermia?

A

35°C = 95°F

136
Q

At what temperature does shivering stop?

A

32°C = 89.6°F

137
Q

What ekg changes do you find during hypothermia?

A

Osborn waves / J waves

138
Q

What’s the threshold for Hyperthermia?

A

40°C = 104°F

CCT Work Stuff (5 decks)

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