FLIGHT MANAGEMENT Flashcards
What effect do the stall and overspeed protection functions have on the flight director?
A. The flight director bars turn amber.
B. The pitch flight director bar disappears.
C. The TO/GA attitude is commanded.
D. The flight director is disconnected.
B. The pitch flight director bar disappears.
During autolanding and initial rollout, the autopilot controls _____ to keep the airplane on the runway centerline.
A. asymmetric braking via the autobrakes
B. rudder steering only
C. rudder and nose wheel steering
D. nose wheel steering only
C. rudder and nose wheel steering
After manually positioning the throttles with the autothrottle system engaged, the autothrottle does NOT subsequently reposition the throttles in which mode?
A. VNAV
B. FLCH
C. TO/GO
D. HOLD
D. HOLD
When the TO/GA switch is pushed to initiate a go-around, autothrottles adjust to climb at not less than _____ FPM.
A. 1250
B. 2500
C. 2000
D. 1500
C. 2000
An amber line through the pitch mode annunciation on the PFD FMA indicates that _____.
A. the pitch mode VNAV PTH is engaged
B. the autopilot is disconnected
C. the autopilot is operating in LAND 2
D. degradation of the pitch mode is sensed while the autopilot is engaged
D. degradation of the pitch mode is sensed while the autopilot is engaged
During climb, the IAS/MACH window automatically changes from IAS to MACH _____.
A. above 300 knots
B. at 0.84 MACH
C. at 0.80 MACH
D. above 200 knots
B. at 0.84 MACH
The VNAV, LNAV, LOC, and APP modes can be disarmed by _____.
A. pushing the mode switch a second time before capture
B. glideslope signal interference
C. pushing the mode switch a second time and depressing the switch for 1 to 2 seconds
D. pushing the mode switch a second time after capture
A. pushing the mode switch a second time before capture
Regarding AFDS FMA indications, armed modes (except for TO/GA in flight) are shown in _____.
A. the corners of the inboard MFD’s
B. smaller white letters at the bottom of the flight mode annunciator boxes
C. the lower quadrant of the PFDs
D. large amber letters at the top of the flight mode annunciator boxes
B. smaller white letters at the bottom of the flight mode annunciator boxes
The AFDS FMA HOLD indicates _____.
A. thrust is set to the thrust limit displayed on the EICAS
B. the autothrottles will maintain the selected speed displayed on the PFD
C. the throttles are disconnected from the autothrottle servos, the pilots can set the thrust levers manually
D. the autothrottles cannot be re-engaged until 400 feet RA
C. the throttles are disconnected from the autothrottle servos, the pilots can set the thrust levers manually
At what altitude does VNAV engage if it is armed for takeoff?
A. 1200 feet
B. 1000 feet
C. 400 feet
D. 1600 feet
C. 400 feet
The FMC determines present position from the _____.
A. ADIRS and SAARU
B. SAARU and the navigation radios
C. GPS only
D. ADIRS, GPS, and navigation radios
D. ADIRS, GPS, and navigation radios
If electrical power is removed from the airplane and the battery switch is turned OFF, the _____ continues to supply electrical power to the ADIRU.
A. AC bus
B. backup generator
C. hot battery bus
D. DC bus
C. hot battery bus
The SAARU provides _____ minutes of backup heading following an ADIRU failure, except in the polar region where the backup is not provided.
A. 10
B. 5
C. 15
D. 3
D. 3
All flight management computing tasks are accomplished by _____.
A. the airplane’s single FMC
B. the active FMC
C. one of the three FMC’s
D. one of the FMC’s which periodically reverse roles during the flight
B. the active FMC
What effect do the stall and overspeed protection functions have on the flight director?
A. The TO/GA attitude is commanded.
B. The flight director is disconnected.
C. The flight director bars turn amber.
D. The pitch flight director bar disappears.
D. The pitch flight director bar disappears.
When the AFDS redundancy is unable to make an automatic landing, the AFDS status annunciation is _____.
A. NO LAND 3
B. NO AUTOLAND
C. GO AROUND
D. NO LAND 2
B. NO AUTOLAND
With the BANK LIMIT selector in the AUTO position, angle of bank varies between _____.
A. 5-35 degrees, depending on altitude
B. 5-30 degrees, depending on IAS
C. 10-35 degrees, depending on length of turn
D. 15-25 degrees, depending on TAS
D. 15-25 degrees, depending on TAS
When a specific flight director mode degradation persists, the condition is annunciated by _____.
A. immediate autopilot disconnect
B. and EICAS advisory message only
C. removal of the affected (pitch or roll) flight director bar
D. a green box drawn around the affected FMA
C. removal of the affected (pitch or roll) flight director bar
Regarding thrust management, the second push of the TO/GA switch in flight _____.
A. engages autothrottles in THR REF mode to proide full-rated go-around thrust
B. commands autothrottles to advance, producing a 2000 FPM climb
C. reconfigures flight director command bars to execute published missed approach
D. engages autothrottles in SPD mode, producing maximum climb speed
A. engages autothrottles in THR REF mode to proide full-rated go-around thrust
When the airplane is _____ feet AFE or below on takeoff, or _____ feet RA or below on approach, the autothrottle will NOT automatically engage (autothrottle wakeup) to support stall protection.
A. 1000, 500
B. 50, 200
C. 400, 100
D. 100, 300
C. 400, 100
Inflight, if the ADIRU switch is selected OFF, _____.
A. the ADIRU remains powered
B. the FMC’s enter Standby Navigation mode
C. SAARU data is used until the ADIRU switch is selected ON
D. ADIRU re-alignment is automatically initiated regardless of switch position
A. the ADIRU remains powered
On the POS REF page 2 of 3, what happens when the prompt at 6R (BRG/DIST) is selected?
A. Prompt changes display of position data anytime a VOR and/or NDB is manually tuned.
B. Prompt changes display of position on POS REF 2/3 and 3/3 to bearing/distance format or latitude/longitude format.
C. Nothing, it is not available as an option
D. Prompt changes display of position data anytime a VOR is manually tuned.
B. Prompt changes display of position on POS REF 2/3 and 3/3 to bearing/distance format or latitude/longitude format.
The AFDS captures the localizer when within range and within _____ degrees of the localizer track.
A. 45
B. 150
C. 120
D. 90
C. 120
If the autothrottle is used during a manual landing, the autothrottle does not automatically retard if the pitch mode is _____.
A. VNAV
B. V/S
C. G/S
D. TO/GA or FLCH
D. TO/GA or FLCH
All MCP modes can be disengaged by _____.
A. disconnecting the autothrottle system
B. disconnecting the autopilot and turning both flight director (F/D) switches OFF
C. deselecting the applicable mode
D. selecting another vertical mode
B. disconnecting the autopilot and turning both flight director (F/D) switches OFF
All automatic fight control modes EXCEPT _____ can be disengaged by selecting another mode.
A. VNAV
B. APP
C. CLB
D. FLCH
B. APP
Engaged or captured modes are shown at the top of the flight mode annunciator boxes in large _____ letters.
A. green
B. cyan
C. white
D. magenta
A. green
_____ is displayed on the PFD throttle FMA when thrust is set to the selected thrust limit.
A. THR SPD
B. THR HOLD
C. THR
D. THR REF
D. THR REF
After localizer and glideslope capture, the localizer and glideslope modes can be disengaged by _____.
A. selecting LNAV
B. re-selecting LOC or APP switches below 1500 RA
C. selecting VNAV
D. disconnecting the autopilot and turning both Flight Directors off
D. disconnecting the autopilot and turning both Flight Directors off
The ADIRU and SAARU receive air data from the _____.
A. left and right static systems
B. center and right pitots
C. left, center, and right pitot, and static systems
D. left and right pitot, and the static systems
C. left, center, and right pitot, and static systems
What entry do you make on the TAKEOFF REF page 2/2 for E/O ACCEL HT if there is no engine out procedure.
A. 800
B. 500
C. 1500
D. 1000
A. 800
With the LAND 2 annunciated on the PFD’s, _____.
A. the autopilots cannot be disengaged
B. a single fault cannot cause a significant deviation from the flight path
C. AFDS redundancy is unable to make an automatic landing
D. changes in the autoland status above 200 feet are inhibited
B. a single fault cannot cause a significant deviation from the flight path
The DEPARTURES page data (if available) is used to enter what information.
A. DEP/ARR ATIS information.
B. Wind information.
C. Only SID and transition (if known).
D. Departure runway, SID, and transition (if known).
D. Departure runway, SID, and transition (if known).
On the IDENT page, the nav database change-over time (when applicable) is _____.
A. 0001L
B. 0001Z
C. 0901L
D. 0901Z
D. 0901Z
The valid entry range for cost index on the CDU PERF INIT page is _____.
A. 0-100
B. 0-9999
C. 0-500
D. 0-6000
B. 0-9999
The three ADIRU modes of operation are _____.
A. aviation, navigation, and regression
B. aviation, raw data, and automatic realign
C. align, navigate, and automatic realign
D. align, raw data, and automatic realign.
C. align, navigate, and automatic realign
When the A/P DISENGAGE bar is positioned down _____.
A. bank angle protection still exists, but all autopilots are disconnected
B. only two autopilots can be engaged.
C. bank angle protection is disabled and all autopilots are disconnected
D. only one autopilot can be engaged
C. bank angle protection is disabled and all autopilots are disconnected
Autopilot rudder commands are added only _____.
A. when LAND 3 or LAND 2 is annunciated
B. during heading changes greater than 90 degrees
C. for turns greater than 20 degrees of bank
D. when necessary to maintain coordinated flight
A. when LAND 3 or LAND 2 is annunciated
The SET HDG prompt on POS INIT 1/3 is not normally present. Under what conditions will this prompt automatically appear?
A. It is displayed anytime the HEADING REFERENCE SWITCH is not set in the NORM position.
B. It is displayed anytime the ADIRU is in the Realign mode.
C. It is displayed three minutes after ADIRU failure.
D. It is displayed anytime the SAARU has been turned off.
C. It is displayed three minutes after ADIRU failure.
The CLB CON thrust switch is NOT operational during takeoff below _____ feet.
A. 1000
B. 800
C. 400
D. 1200
C. 400
At cruise altitude, the FMC sets cruise speed at the default or pilot entered speed until reaching the top-of-descent point. What are the other two alternate cruise speed options?
A. Engine out (ENG OUT) and single FMC (FMCC).
B. Long range (LRC) and Alternate navigation (ANC).
C. Long range (LRC) and Engine out (ENG OUT).
D. NAV ADIRU (NAC) and NAV RAD (NDC)
C. Long range (LRC) and Engine out (ENG OUT).
The RECMD altitude on the ACT ECON CRZ page displays the most economical altitude for the next _____ NM.
A. 1000
B. 2000
C. 750
D. 500
D. 500
LNAV becomes active after takeoff when armed, and when altitude is at or above _____feet when within 2.5 NM of the active route leg.
A. 500
B. 550
C. 50
D. 150
C. 50
What radios are NOT tuned using the radio tuning panel?
A. HF radios
B. VHF radios
C. ADF radios
D. HF/AM radios
C. ADF radios
Which of the following is automatically computed and entered on the PERF INIT page?
A. Reserves
B. CRZ ALT
C. Gross weight
D. Current ZFW
C. Gross weight
If the ADIRU fails, the SAARU automatically provides _____.
A. backup information to the ADIRU
B. backup altitude, directional gyro, and air data information
C. position information to the FMCS
D. heading information for 30 minutes
B. backup altitude, directional gyro, and air data information
