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777 SV > FLIGHT CONTROLS > Flashcards

FLIGHT CONTROLS Flashcards

1
Q

The pitch envelope protection functions _____ the pilot’s control authority.

A. enhance
B. inhibit
C. eliminate
D. do not reduce

A

D. do not reduce

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2
Q

When will the wheel-to-rudder cross-tie operate?

A. In flight below 210 knots.
B. On the ground below 210 knots.
C. Only on the ground.
D. In flight above 250 knots.

A

A. In flight below 210 knots.

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3
Q

The Primary Flight Computers automatically control pitch to maintain a relatively constant flight path. There is no need for additional control column back pressure to compensate for turns using up to _____ degrees of bank.

A. 15
B. 20
C. 45
D. 30

A

D. 30

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4
Q

In the _____ pitch control mode(s), the PFC’s automatically compensate for thrust, gear, and speed brake configuration changes.

A. Secondary
B. Direct
C. Secondary and Direct
D. Normal

A

D. Normal

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5
Q

Which of the following statements is true of the RUDDER Trim Knob?

A. It trims rudder in the opposite direction when rotated.
B. It is spring-loaded to neutral.
C. Rudder pedals do not move with trim operation.
D. Trim runs at low speed with knob rotated past the first left or right detent.

A

B. It is spring-loaded to neutral.

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6
Q

In the secondary flight control mode, the elevator variable feel system provides _____.

A. continous variatioin of fell with airspeed.
B. two feel force levels that change with flap position
C. variation of feel, based upon both airspeed and thrust setting
D. two feel force levels that change with landing gear position

A

B. two feel force levels that change with flap position

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7
Q

In the Normal flight control mode, what occurs with the STAB TRIM switches in CUTOUT?

A. Stabilizer trim control modules (STCM) provide backup trim capability.
B. Pitch trim is unavailable.
C. Trim reference speed cannot be changed.
D. Pitch trim is still available.

A

D. Pitch trim is still available.

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8
Q

During flight in the normal mode, the pitch trim switches _____.

A. make inputs to the PFC’s to first move the elevators to achieve the trim change, then move the stabilizer to streamline the elevator
B. move the stabilizer by actuating the alternate trim motor
C. command the ACE’s to move the stabilizer, then the elevator
D. position the stabilizer directly, but do not change the trim reference speed

A

A. make inputs to the PFC’s to first move the elevators to achieve the trim change, then move the stabilizer to streamline the elevator

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9
Q

What are the three primary flight control system modes?

A. Normal, Direct, and Alternate.
B. Normal, Secondary, and Direct
C. Normal, Spare, and Direct
D. Normal, Secondary, and Alternate

A

B. Normal, Secondary, and Direct

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10
Q

Manual selection of the secondary flight control mode _____.

A. is not possible
B. is accomplished by using the PRIMARY FLIGHT COMPUTER switch
C. can be accomplished only if theh autopilot is OFF
D. can be accomplished only if one ACE fails

A

A. is not possible

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11
Q

The autoslat system, if armed, enhances airplane stall protection characteristics _____.

A. in all flap modes
B. at all flap positions
C. only in the primary and secondary flap modes
D. upon recieving a signal from the stall warning system

A

D. upon recieving a signal from the stall warning system

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12
Q

The wheel-to-rudder cross-tie system provides _____.

A. inputs when an engine fails below 200 knots
B. inputs when an engine fails below 20,000 feet
C. up to 8 degrees of rudder deflection using control wheel inputs
D. side slip capability on landing with up to 10 knots of crosswind

A

C. up to 8 degrees of rudder deflection using control wheel inputs

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13
Q

Which of the following sequences illustrates the Normal flight control process while hand flying?

A. Pilot Input -> PFC’s -> ACE’s -> Control Surfaces
B. Pilot Input -> ACE’s -> Control Surfaces
C. Pilot Input -> ACE’s -> PFC’s -> ACE’s -> Control Surfaces
D. Pilot Input -> ACE’s -> PFC’s -> Control Surfaces

A

C. Pilot Input -> ACE’s -> PFC’s -> ACE’s -> Control Surfaces

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14
Q

What action may cause an automatic reversion to the secondary flight control mode?

A. Pilot actuation of the flight control switch.
B. Pilot selection of the primary flight computer switch.
C. Failure of the airplane autopilot system.
D. PFC or related airplane system faults.

A

D. PFC or related airplane system faults.

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15
Q

PFC’s change airplane pitch based on pilot control column or autopilot comands and airspeed. In the normal mode, PFC’s automatically compensate for _____.

A. yaw due to crosswinds
B. thrust changes
C. airspeed changes
D. asymetric thrust

A

B. thrust changes

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16
Q

Autoslat operation is armed at _____.

A. Flaps 1 through 20 only in secondary flap mode
B. Flaps 5 through 30 only in primary flap mode
C. Flaps 20 through 30 in primary and secondary mode
D. Flaps 1 through 20 only in primary flap mode

A

D. Flaps 1 through 20 only in primary flap mode

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17
Q

Can TAC be overridden with the Manual Trim Cancel switch?

A. Yes
B. No, unless you have split throttles
C. No
D. Yes, but only with an engine failure

A

C. No

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18
Q

On the ground, the stabilizer is directly positioned when the pilot uses the _____.

A. Captain’s pitch trim switches only
B. aileron trim switches
C. rudder trim control knob
D. pitch trim switches

A

D. pitch trim switches

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19
Q

The dual alternate pitch trim levers on the control pedestal _____.

A. do not function with the autopilot engaged
B. have priority over the control yoke trim switches in all flight control modes
C. disengage the autopilot when the autopilot is engaged
D. should be used to assist the autopilot when the autopilot is engaged

A

B. have priority over the control yoke trim switches in all flight control modes

20
Q

In the secondary flight control mode, the primary pitch trim switches and the alternate pitch trim levers move the _____.

A. stabilizer directly. There is no trim reference speed
B. stabilizer and set new trim reference speed
C. elevator and stabilizer
D. elevator only

A

A. stabilizer directly. There is no trim reference speed

21
Q

The Manual Trim Cancel Switch is available in all flight control modes except the _____ mode.

A. secondary
B. normal
C. direct
D. standby

A

C. direct

22
Q

To protect against inadvertant flap deployment during cruise, flap and slat extension from the UP position is inhibited at altitudes above approximately _____.

A. 20,000 feet
B. 22,000 feet
C. 18,000 feet
D. 43,100 feet

A

A. 20,000 feet

23
Q

The PFC’s automatically control pitch to compensate for _____.

A. flap changes
B. airspeed changes
C. turns exceeding 35 degrees of bank
D. turns exceeding 60 degrees of bank

A

A. flap changes

24
Q

Which of the following sequences illustrates the Direct flight control process while hand flying?

A. Pilot Input -> ACE’s -> PFC’s -> ACE’s -> Control Surfaces
B. Pilot Input -> PFC’s -> Control Surfaces
C. Pilot Input -> ACE’s -> Control Surfaces
D. Pilot Input -> PFC’s -> Control Surfaces

A

C. Pilot Input -> ACE’s -> Control Surfaces

25
Q

Which of the following sequences illustrates the flight control process when the autopilot is engaged?

A. Autopilot Inputs -> ACE’s -> PFC’s -> Control Surface
B. Autopilot Inputs -> PFC’s -> ACE’s -> Control Surfaces
C. Autopilot Inputs -> PFC’s -> Control Surfaces
D. Autopilot Inputs -> ACE’s -> Control Surfaces

A

B. Autopilot Inputs -> PFC’s -> ACE’s -> Control Surfaces

26
Q

If uncommanded stabilizer motion is sensed, what happens to the hydraulic power?

A. Hydraulic power is shut off to all flight controls.
B. Hydraulic power is checked for proper system pressure in all three systems.
C. Hydraulic power is alternatively applied to both Stabilizer Trim Control Modules to determine the source of the uncommanded input.
D. Hydraulic power to the Stabilizer Trim Control Module that caused the motion is automatically shut off.

A

D. Hydraulic power to the Stabilizer Trim Control Module that caused the motion is automatically shut off.

27
Q

The autoslat system enhances stall protection. When approaching stickshaker, if armed, the system automatically moves the slats from the _____ position to the _____ position.

A. mid, retracted
B. mid, down
C. retracted, mid
D. down, mid

A

B. mid, down

28
Q

Pilot controls command the _____ actuator control electronics (ACE’s) and the _____ primary flight computers (PFC’s).

A. 2, 4
B. 3, 4
C. 4, 3
D. 2, 2

A

C. 4, 3

29
Q

Which flight control system function is not available when operating in the secondary mode?

A. Aileron Trim
B. Manual Rudder Trim Cancel
C. Rudder Trim
D. Autopilot

A

D. Autopilot

30
Q

When the autopilot is engaged, it sends commands directly to the _____.

A. STCM’s
B. ACE’s
C. PFC’s
D. control surfaces

A

C. PFC’s

31
Q

Roll control is provided by movement of the _____.

A. flaperons, ailerons, and asymmetrical spoilers
B. ailerons and flaperons
C. ailerons, asymmetrical spoiler, and speed brakes
D. flaperons, ailerons, and symmetrical spoilers

A

A. flaperons, ailerons, and asymmetrical spoilers

32
Q

Autothrottle Wakeup stall protection is available in _____ flight control mode(s) if valid air data information is present.

A. only the secondary
B. all three
C. only the direct
D. only the normal

A

B. all three

33
Q

Which of the following CDU inputs is NOT required to calculate the stabilizer green band?

A. Takeoff thrust.
B. CG.
C. Gross Weight.
D. Flap setting.

A

D. Flap setting.

34
Q

Placing the PRIMARY FLIGHT COMPUTERS disconnect switch to DISC puts the flight control system in which mode?

A. Direct
B. Disengaged
C. Disconnect
D. Display

A

A. Direct

35
Q

Autothrottle stall protection (commonly referred to as autothrottle wakeup) is available _____.

A. in the direct mode and normal mode if valid air data information is present
B. only in the secondary mode
C. only in the normal
D. in all three flight control modes if valid air data information is present.

A

D. in all three flight control modes if valid air data information is present.

36
Q

On 200B aircraft, primary flap and slat extension from the UP position is inhibited at speeds greater than _____ knots.

A. 240
B. 220
C. 265
D. 230

A

C. 265

37
Q

How is the ALTN flap mode selected?

A. Manually.
B. Manually to provide load relief.
C. Automatically with certain flap malfunctions.
D. Automatically after certain slat malfunctions.

A

A. Manually.

38
Q

When does the rudder become effective?

A. Approximately 80 knots.
B. At brake release.
C. Between 85 and 95 knots.
D. At 50 knots.

A

A. Approximately 80 knots.

39
Q

Which function is NOT available after an automatic reversion to the secondary flight control mode?

A. Automatic pitch compensation.
B. Rudder Trim.
C. The Manual Trim Cancel switch
D. Uncommanded stabilizer motion automatic shutdown

A

A. Automatic pitch compensation.

40
Q

The loss of flap/slat position sensing _____.

A. removes the tape fill and flap lever position indications
B. removes all flap indications
C. changes all flap indications to amber
D. changes all flap indications to red

A

A. removes the tape fill and flap lever position indications

41
Q

In the secondary flight control mode, the primary pitch trim switches and the alternate pitch trim levers move the _____.

A. elevator only
B. stabilizer and set a new trim reference speed
C. stabilizer directly. There is no trim reference speed
D. elevator and stabilizer

A

C. stabilizer directly. There is no trim reference speed

42
Q

The ALTN FLAPS selector electrically extends the flaps/slats to what maximum position?

A. 15/mid
B. 30/full
C. 25/full
D. 20/mid

A

D. 20/mid

43
Q

In the ARMED position, the speed brake lever is driven aft to the UP position when the landing gear is fully on the ground and _____.

A. spoilers 4, 5, 10 and 11 are locked out
B. a SPEED BRAKE ARMED Status message is displayed
C. either throttle is in IDLE
D. both throttles are in IDLE

A

D. both throttles are in IDLE

44
Q

The stabilizer is powered by which hydraulic systems?

A. Left and Center
B. Center and right.
C. Left and right.
D. Center, left and right.

A

B. Center and right.

45
Q

Automatic landings can be made _____.

A. using flaps 20 or 30 with one or to engines operating
B. with an offset localizer
C. with flaps 25
D. in excess of the maximum structural landing weight

A

A. using flaps 20 or 30 with one or to engines operating

46
Q

Flap load relief limits retraction to Flaps _____.

A. 5
B. 1
C. 20
D. 10

A

D. 10

47
Q

To provide airplane control in the event of a jam, the control _____ are connected through jam override mechanisms.

A. columns and rudders
B. wheels and rudders
C. columns and control wheels
D. columns, control wheels, and rudders

A

C. columns and control wheels

777 SV (13 decks)

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