Flight Controls Flashcards

1
Q

Lift condition between initial buffet and stall; onset of initial buffet is indicated by an AOA of ______.

A

1.0

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2
Q

Full stall of the wing occurs at an AOA of ____.

A

1.2

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3
Q

AOA Caution range is ______ to ______ and buffet/stall zone is ______ to _______.

A

0.85 to 0.91 and from 0.91 to 1.10

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4
Q

Max range is depicted by a _________ and max endurance by a ________.

A

Triangle; square

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5
Q

At 3 engine climbout speed plus 50 knots a max bank angle of ______ degrees is permissible.

A

30 degrees

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6
Q

Landing gear down, lowers rate of climb by approx.

A

420 fpm

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7
Q

For the KC-135, ground effect begins about ________ ft. above the runway.

A

130 ft (about one wingspan)

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8
Q

The KC-135 displays an effect known as initial buffet which is airflow separation on ___________ and is an indication that you are approaching ___________.

A

The main wing; stall speed

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9
Q

____________ directly affects induced drag?

A

Ground effect

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10
Q

Approximately ______ % of the roll authority on the KC-135 comes from the spoilers.

A

60%

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11
Q

If gusts are present, the takeoff and climbout speeds are increased. For heavy gross weights, if flap placard speed approaches or exceeds flap retraction schedule, use the flap placard speed minus _________ knots as the flap retraction speed.

A

5

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12
Q

_____ degree flap takeoffs are better for close-in obstacles and short runways.

A

30 degree flaps

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13
Q

Flaps at _____ degrees are preferred on takeoff due to more excess thrust which provides better climb and acceleration rates.

A

20 degrees

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14
Q

We only have a ____% stall margin on takeoff, limit bank when performance is critical

A

10%

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15
Q

The rotation go-around (RGA) computer may use a higher angle of attack (AOA) as the basis for the climbout profile due to _________________.

A

Over rotation on takeoff

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16
Q

Better acceleration and margin above stall during takeoff is obtained using _______ degrees of flap

A

20

17
Q

High-speed buffet can be characterized as:

A

Flow disruptions caused by shock waves on the main wing

18
Q

What is the procedure for dealing with Mach tuck?

A

Extend the speed brakes then reduce power

19
Q

What is the procedure for dealing with Dutch roll?

A

Use lateral controls (yoke) or descend/speed up

20
Q

Flying as little as _______kts fast on short final can result in increased flare distances of as much as 1,000 ft (even more when using less than 50 flaps)

A

6

21
Q

What do you do if the aircraft bounces on landing?

A

Either hold the landing attitude to land or go-around

22
Q

If you are below 15,000 ft and you find yourself in a stall, extend flaps to _____.

A

30 degrees

23
Q

During takeoff and landing, PWS does not report windshear on the runway at speeds above _____ kts until the airplane is airborne and above ______ft AGL.

A

100; 50

24
Q

If excessive windshear is encountered below ________ ft AGL, a go-around should be initiated.

A

500

25
Q

Overstressing the vertical fin can occur with the rudder in the high pressure range when above ___ KIAS

A

230

26
Q

EFAS starts to apply rudder when it detects a speed difference of approx _____% N1 between the two outboard engines.

A

10%

27
Q

ASM Thrust light will illuminate at a speed difference of ______%N1 between the two engines, indicating a probable engine failure.

A

30%

28
Q

During takeoff planning, what can you do to counter difficulties following an engine failure?

A

Use the lowest allowable thrust

29
Q

The EFAS assists during ___________ engine failures only

A

Outboard

30
Q

You are above Vmca and experience an outboard engine failure. Which control forces do you use to control the aircraft?

A

Rudder and aileron

31
Q

If rudder hydraulic pressure does not fall into the low range when the flaps are raised either stay below _________kts or ______________.

A

230; turn the rudder power switch off prior to 230 knots

32
Q

What speed must you be at to reengage rudder power?

A

220 KIAS or below