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A320/ FCOM > Flight Controls > Flashcards

Flight Controls Flashcards

1
Q

The fly-by-wire system was designed and certified to render the new generation of aircraft even more

A

safe, cost effective, and pleasant to fly.

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2
Q

Flight control surfaces are all :
‐ Electrically-controlled, and
‐ Hydraulically-actuated.
The stabilizer and rudder can also be mechanically-controlled.
Pilots use sidesticks to fly the aircraft in pitch and roll (and in yaw, indirectly, through ___

A

turn coordination).

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3
Q

However, when in normal law, regardless of the pilot’s input, the computers will prevent excessive maneuvers and exceedance of the safe envelope in pitch and roll axis.
However, as on conventional aircraft, the __ has no such protection.

A

rudder

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4
Q

___ flight control computers process pilot and autopilot inputs according to normal, alternate, or direct flight control laws.

A

Seven

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5
Q

FLIGHT CONTROLS COMPUTERS
2 ELACs : (Elevator Aileron Computer)

A

Normal elevator and stabilizer control. Aileron control.

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6
Q

FLIGHT CONTROLS COMPUTERS
3 SECs : (Spoilers Elevator Computer)

A

Spoilers control.
Standby elevator and stabilizer control.

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7
Q

FLIGHT CONTROLS COMPUTERS
2 FACs : (Flight Augmentation Computer)

A

Electrical rudder control.

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8
Q

FLIGHT CONTROLS
COMPUTERS
2 FCDC
Flight Control Data Concentrators (FCDC) acquire data from the ELACs and SECs and send it to

A

the electronic instrument system (EIS) and the centralized fault display system (CFDS).

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9
Q

Two elevators and the Trimmable Horizontal Stabilizer (THS) control the aircraft in pitch. The maximum elevator deflection is

A

30 ° nose up, and 17 ° nose down. The maximum THS deflection is 13.5 ° nose up, and 4 ° nose down.

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10
Q

‐ In normal operations, ___ controls the elevators and the horizontal stabilizer, and the green and yellow hydraulic jacks drive the left and right elevator surfaces respectively. The THS is driven by N° 1 of three electric motors.

A

ELAC2

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11
Q

‐ If a failure occurs in ELAC2, or in the associated hydraulic systems, or with the hydraulic jacks, the system shifts pitch control to

A

ELAC1. ELAC1 then controls the elevators via the blue hydraulic jacks and controls the THS via the N° 2 electric motor.

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12
Q

‐ If neither ELAC1 nor ELAC2 is available, the system shifts pitch control either to

A

SEC1 or to SEC2, (depending on the status of the associated circuits), and to THS motor N° 2 or N° 3.

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13
Q

Mechanical control of the THS is available from the pitch trim wheel at any time, if either

A

the green or yellow hydraulic system is functioning.
Mechanical control from the pitch trim wheel has priority over electrical control.

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14
Q

One aileron and four spoilers on each wing control the aircraft about the roll axis. The maximum deflection of the ailerons is ___

A

25 °.

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15
Q

The ailerons extend ___ down when the flaps are extended (aileron droop).
The maximum deflection of the spoilers is ___ .

A

5 ° / 35 °

(The purpose of aileron droop is to use the ailerons as wing flaps. Wing flaps increase the lift generated by the wings at low speed.)

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16
Q

‐ The ___ normally controls the ailerons.
If ELAC1 fails, the system automatically transfers aileron control to ELAC2. If both ELACs fail, the ailerons revert to the ___ .

A

ELAC 1 / damping mode

(Damping Mode: Servojack follows surface movement.)

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17
Q

‐ SEC3 controls the N° 2 spoilers, SEC1 the N° 3 and 4 spoilers, and SEC2 the N° 5 spoilers. If a SEC fails, the spoilers it controls are ___

A

automatically retracted.

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18
Q

The flight crew controls the speedbrakes with the speed brake lever. The speedbrakes are

A

spoilers 2, 3 and 4.

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19
Q

Speedbrake extension is inhibited, if one of the following occurs:
6 points

A

‐ SEC1 and SEC3 both are faulty, or
‐ An elevator (L or R) is faulty, or
‐ ANGLE-OF-ATTACK PROTECTION IS ACTIVE, OR
‐ FLAPS ARE IN CONFIGURATION FULL (3 or FULL A321) , OR
‐ THRUST LEVERS ARE ABOVE MCT POSITION, OR
‐ ALPHA FLOOR IS ACTIVATED.

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20
Q

If an inhibition occurs when the speedbrakes are extended, they retract automatically and stay retracted until the inhibition condition disappears and the flight crew resets the lever (the speedbrakes can be extended again ___ after the lever is reset).

A

10 s or more

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21
Q

When the aircraft is flying faster than 315 kt or M 0.75 with the autopilot engaged, the speedbrake retraction rate is reduced (retraction from FULL to CLEAN takes about ___ ).

A

25 s

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22
Q

The maximum speedbrake deflection in manual flight is:

A
  • 40 ° for spoilers 3 and 4
  • 20 ° for spoiler 2.

(A321 The maximum deflection for the spoilers 2, 3 and 4 is 25 °)

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23
Q

The maximum speedbrake deflection with the autopilot engaged is:

A
  • 25 ° for spoilers 3 and 4
  • 12.5 ° for spoiler 2.

(A321 The maximum deflection for the spoilers 2, 3 and 4 is 25 °)

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24
Q

For these surfaces (which perform both roll and speedbrake functions) the ___ has priority: When the sum of a roll order and a simultaneous speedbrake order on one surface is more than the maximum deflection available in flight, the symmetric speedbrake on the other wing is retracted until the difference between the two surfaces is equal to the roll order.

A

roll function

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25
Q

The ground spoiler function involves ___

A

all spoilers (full extension)

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26
Q

FULL EXTENSION – REJECTED TAKEOFF PHASE
▪ If the ground spoilers are armed and the wheel speed exceeds 72 kt, the ground spoilers will automatically extend as soon as

A

both thrust levers are reset to idle.

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27
Q

FULL EXTENSION – REJECTED TAKEOFF PHASE
▪ If the ground spoilers are not armed and the wheel speed exceeds 72 kt, the ground spoilers will automatically extend as soon as

A

reverse is selected on one engine (the other thrust lever remains at idle).

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28
Q

FULL EXTENSION - LANDING PHASE
The ground spoilers will automatically extend when the following conditions are met:
‐ Speed brake lever not in the retracted position or ground spoilers armed and:
‐ Speed brake lever in the retracted position but ground spoilers not armed and:

A
  • Both main landing gears on ground,
  • Both thrust levers at or below Idle position, or Reverse selected on at least one engine
    (and the other thrust lever below MCT position).
  • Reverse selected on at least one engine (and the other thrust lever below MCT position).
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29
Q

PARTIAL EXTENSION
In order to accelerate the full spoiler extension, the Phased Lift Dumping (PLD) function allows the ground spoilers to deploy with a reduced deflection.
When landing in crosswind conditions or on contaminated runways.

A
  • One main landing gear on ground,
  • Both thrust levers at or below Idle position.
  • Reverse selected on at least one engine (and the other thrust lever below MCT position).
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30
Q

PARTIAL EXTENSION
In order to reduce the bounce severity at landing in the case of an inappropriate thrust lever handling during flare, ground spoilers are also partially deployed when the following conditions are met:

A

‐ Ground spoilers armed,
‐ Both main landing gears on ground,
‐ BOTH THRUST LEVERS AT OR BELOW THE CLIMB POSITION.

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31
Q

The ground spoilers retract:

A
  • After landing, when the ground spoilers are disarmed
  • After a rejected takeoff, when the ground spoilers are disarmed
  • DURING A TOUCH AND GO, WHEN AT LEAST ONE THRUST LEVER IS ADVANCED ABOVE 20 °.
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32
Q

The yaw damping and turn coordination functions are automatic.
The ___ compute yaw orders for coordinating turns and damping yaw oscillations, and transmit them to the FACs.

A

ELACs

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33
Q

There is no feedback to the ___ from the yaw damping and turn coordination functions.

A

rudder pedals

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34
Q

In the case of a failure that causes loss of the Rudder Travel limit system, the rudder deflection limit stops at the last value reached. At ___ , full rudder travel authority is recovered.

A

slats extension

LOW SPEED vs. HIGH SPEED logic for LOW SPEED MAX RUDDER DEFLECTION

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35
Q

RELATIONSHIP BETWEEN SIDESLIP/RUDDER DEFLECTION/RUDDER PEDAL TRAVEL
Regardless of the aircraft speed, therefore the maximum rudder deflection, full rudder pedal travel remains available. However, except at low speed, maximum rudder deflection is achieved before reaching

A

maximum rudder pedal travel.

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36
Q

RUDDER TRIM
The two electric motors that position the artificial feel unit also trim the rudder. In normal operation, motor N° 1 (controlled by FAC1), powers the trim, and FAC2 with motor N° 2 remains synchronized as a backup.
In manual flight, the pilot can apply rudder trim via the rotary RUD TRIM switch on the pedestal. The pilot can use a button on the RUD TRIM panel to reset the rudder trim to zero.

With the autopilot engaged, the ___ computes the rudder trim orders. The rudder trim rotary switch and the rudder trim reset pushbutton are not active.

A

FMGC

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37
Q

The normal flight control laws provides:

A

‐ Aircraft control on the 3 axis
‐ Flight envelope protection
‐ Alleviation of maneuver loads.

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38
Q

Despite system protections, the PF must not deliberately exceed the normal flight envelope. In addition, these protections are not designed to be

A

structural limit protections (e.g. opposite rudder pedal inputs).

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39
Q

NORMAL LAW Protection
5 points

A

Pitch Attitude
Load Factor
High Speed
High Angle of Attack
Bank Angle

LOW ENERGY AURAL ALERT ( IF INSTALLED)

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40
Q

FLIGHT CONTROL SYSTEM - NORMAL LAW
Pitch Control Modes
4 points

A

Ground Mode
Rotation Mode
Flight Mode
Flare Mode

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41
Q

FLIGHT CONTROL SYSTEM - NORMAL LAW
Lateral Control Modes
2 points

A

Ground Mode
Flight Mode

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42
Q

Flight > Ground Transition
Once the flight crew set the THR lever to a position more than CLB, the Rotation Mode activate after a transition phase of

A

2 s.

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43
Q

Ground mode is a direct relationship between sidestick deflection and elevator deflection.
There is no auto trim. The THS is automatically set at 0 ° (inside the green band). However, when the flight crew enters manually a THS setting to adjust the CG, this one has priority for

A

the take off.

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44
Q

During the take off roll, the system reduces the maximum up elevator deflection from 30 ° to

A

20 °.

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45
Q

The objective of the rotation mode is to provide a homogeneous rotation for all possible weight, CG and configurations, while minimizing the risk of

A

a tail strike.

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46
Q

The rotation mode is a pitch rate demand control law, providing tail strike protection.
The flight crew can override the tail strike protection.
The rotation mode depends on:

A
  • The pitch rate
  • The tail clearance
  • The sidestick position.
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47
Q

The rotation mode is active from 70 kt during takeoff roll until

A

10 s after lift-off and pitch attitude is above 8 °.

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48
Q

The normal-law flight mode is a ___ mode with automatic trim and protection throughout the flight envelope.

A

load-factor-demand

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49
Q

With the sidestick at neutral, wings level, the system maintains ___ in pitch (corrected for pitch attitude), and there is no need for the flight crew to trim by changing speed or configuration.

A

1 g

If the flight crew senses an overcontrol, the sidestick should be released.

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50
Q

Automatic pitch trim freezes in the following situations:

A

‐ The flight crew enters a manual trim order
‐ The radio height is below 50 ft (100 ft with autopilot engaged) ‐ The load factor goes below 0.5 g
‐ The aircraft is in high-speed or high-Mach protection.

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51
Q

When angle-of-attack protection is active, the THS setting is limited between the setting at entry of the aircraft into this protection and ___ nose down. Neither the flight crew nor the system can apply additional nose-up trim.

A

4 °

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52
Q

When the load factor is higher than 1.25 g or when the aircraft exceeds 33 ° of bank, the THS setting is limited to values between the current setting and ___ nose down.

A

3.5 °

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53
Q

The flight crew can also disconnect the autopilot when they push the rudder pedals ( ___ out of trim), or they move the pitch trim wheel beyond a certain threshold.

A

10 °

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54
Q

CONTROL WITH AUTOPILOT ENGAGED
‐ All protections of normal laws remain effective except

A

pitch attitude protection.

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55
Q

FLARE MODE A320
When the aircraft passes ___ RA, the THS is frozen and the normal flight mode changes to flare mode as the aircraft descends to land. Flare mode is essentially a ___ relationship

A

50 ft / direct stick-to-elevator

The system memorizes the aircraft’s attitude at 50 ft, and it becomes the initial reference for pitch attitude control.

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56
Q

FLARE MODE A320
As the aircraft descends through 30 ft, the system begins to reduce the pitch attitude to ___ . Consequently, to flare the aircraft, a gentle nose-up action by the pilot is required.

A

-2 °nose down over a period of 8 s

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57
Q

FLARE MODE A321
When passing ___ RA, the THS is frozen and the normal flight mode changes to flare mode as the aircraft descends to land.
The flare mode is a direct stick-to-elevator law without ___ , with some damping provided by load factor and pitch rate feedback. The flare law provides full elevator authority.
The flare law does not compensate the ___

A

100 ft / auto trim / ground or thrust effect

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58
Q

The normal law protects the aircraft throughout the flight envelope in PITCH CONTROL, as follows :

A

‐ load factor limitation
‐ pitch attitude protection
‐ high-angle-of-attack (AOA) protection
‐ high-speed protection.

LOW ENERGY AURAL ALERT ( IF INSTALLED)

59
Q

LOAD FACTOR PROTECTION
High load factors can be encountered during evasive maneuvers due to potential collisions, or CFIT …
The load factor is automatically limited to:

A

+2.5 g to -1 g for clean configuration. +2 g to 0 for other configurations.

60
Q

Airbus LOAD FACTOR PROTECTION AND SAFETY
In emergency situations, initial PF reaction on a yoke or sidestick is ___

A

hesitant, then aggressive.

61
Q

With load factor protection, the PF may immediately and instinctively pull the sidestick full aft: The aircraft will initially fly a 2.5 g maneuver without losing time. Then, if the PF still needs to maintain the sidestick full aft stick, because the danger still exists, then the ___ will take over.

A

high AOA protection

Load factor protection enhances this high AOA protection.

62
Q

Pitch attitude protection limits pitch attitude:

A

‐ 30 ° nose up in conf 0 to 3 (progressively reduced to 25 ° at low speed).
‐ 25 ° nose up in conf FULL (progressively reduced to 20 ° at low speed).
‐ 15 ° nose down (indicated by green symbols “=” on the PFD’s pitch scale).

63
Q

PITCH ATTITUDE PROTECTION
The flight director bars disappear from the PFD when the pitch attitude exceeds 25 ° up or 13 ° down. They return to the display when the pitch angle returns to the region between

A

22 ° up and 10 ° down.

Pitch attitude protection enhances
high speed protection,
high load factor protection, and
high AOA protection.

64
Q

HIGH ANGLE-OF-ATTACK PROTECTION
In normal law, the aircraft is protected against stall.
When the current AOA becomes greater than ___ , the high AOA protection activates.

A

αPROT

65
Q

Without flight crew input, the F/CTL computers maintain the AOA equal to αPROT. The AOA can be further increased by flight crew input, up to a maximum value equal to

A

αMAX.

66
Q

When the High AOA protection is activated, the normal law demand is modified and the sidestick input is an ___ , instead of a load factor demand.

A

AOA demand

67
Q

The flight crew must not deliberately fly the aircraft with a High AOA, except for short periods of time, when maximum High Lift coefficient is required (like during

A

windshear or GPWS maneuvers).

68
Q

Vα PROT, Vα Floor, Vα MAX are mainly computed based on the ___ , and therefore they vary with configuration, weight and load factor.

A

AOA

69
Q

AOA Protection
The flight crew can hold full back sidestick, if it is needed, and the aircraft stabilizes at an AOA close to but less than the ___

A

1 g stall.

70
Q

The AOA will not exceed αMAX, even if the flight crew gently pulls the sidestick all the way back.
When flying at αMAX, the flight crew can make gentle turns, if necessary. If the flight crew releases the sidestick, the AOA returns to

A

αPROT and stays there.

71
Q

As the aircraft enters protection at the ___ strip (αPROT), the system inhibits further nose-up trim beyond the point already reached. The nose-down trim remains available.

A

amber and black

72
Q

At takeoff, the αPROT is equal to the αMAX for ___ .

A

5 s

73
Q

This High AOA protection has priority over all other protections.
If the flight crew flies into αPROT, they should leave it as soon as other considerations allow. This is achieved by

A

easing forward on the sidestick to reduce alpha below the value of αPROT.

74
Q

Between the αPROT and ___ , αFloor protection may automatically set the go-around thrust.
The αFloor will usually be triggered just after entering αPROT, and the go-around thrust will automatically be applied.
Therefore, if the sidestick is held aft, either inadvertently or deliberately, the aircraft will start to climb at a relatively constant low airspeed.

A

αMAX

75
Q

To recover a normal flight condition, the αPROT should be exited by easing forward on the sidestick, and the αFloor should be cancelled by using

A

the instinctive disconnect pushbutton on either thrust lever as soon as a safe speed is regained

76
Q

HIGH SPEED PROTECTION
The aircraft automatically recovers, following a high speed upset.
Depending on the flight conditions (high acceleration, low pitch attitude), high speed protection is activated at/or above

A

VMO/MMO.

77
Q

HIGH SPEED PROTECTION
When high speed protection is activated, positive spiral static stability is introduced to ___ bank angle (instead of 33 ° in normal law), so that with the sidestick released, the aircraft always returns to a bank angle of 0 °. The bank angle limit is reduced from 67 ° to ___ .

A

0 ° / 40 °

78
Q

HIGH SPEED PROTECTION
As the speed increases above VMO/MMO, the sidestick nose-down authority is progressively

A

reduced, and a permanent nose-up order is applied to aid recovery to normal flight conditions.

79
Q

HIGH SPEED PROTECTION
In a dive situation:
* If there is no sidestick input on the sidestick, the aircraft will slightly overshoot VMO/MMO and
fly back towards the envelope
* If the sidestick is maintained full forward, the aircraft will significantly overshoot VMO/MMO. At
approximately ___ , the pitch nose-down authority reduces to zero

A

VMO + 16 kt / MMO + 0.04

80
Q

The high speed protection is deactivated, when the aircraft speed decreases below ___ , where the usual normal control laws are recovered.
The autopilot disconnects at ___ .

A

VMO/MMO / VMO + 15 kt and MMO + 0.04

81
Q

On PFD, High speed protection symbol:

A

Two green bars at VMO + 6 Kt

82
Q

The ECAM displays an overspeed warning at

A

VMO + 4 kt and MMO + 0.006.

83
Q

When the aircraft is in “in flight” mode, normal law combines control of the ailerons, spoilers (except N° 1 spoilers), and rudder (for turn coordination).
The system gives the flight crew control of the roll and heading, it also limits the roll rate and bank angle, coordinates the turns, and damps ___

A

the dutch roll

(Dutch roll is a type of aircraft motion consisting of an out-of-phase combination of “tail-wagging” (yaw) and rocking from side to side (roll). )

84
Q

The roll rate requested by the flight crew during flight is proportional to the sidestick deflection, with a maximum rate of:

A
  • 15 °/s in nominal conditions, when the sidestick is at the stop
  • 7.5 °/s in AOA protection or in pitch angle protection, when the sidestick is at the stop.
85
Q

During ___ phase, the aircraft will limit induced roll after pedal input, in order to ease flight crew control.

A

decrab

86
Q

If the flight crew releases the sidestick at a bank angle greater than 33 °, the bank angle automatically reduces to 33 °. Up to 33 °, the system holds the roll attitude constant when the sidestick is at neutral. If the flight crew holds full lateral sidestick deflection, the bank angle goes to ___ and no further.

A

67 °

87
Q

If the AOA protection or the pitch attitude protection is active, and the flight crew maintains full lateral deflection on the sidestick, the bank angle will not go beyond ___

A

45 °.

88
Q

If the high speed protection is active, and the flight crew maintains full lateral deflection on the sidestick, the bank angle will not go beyond ___ . If the high speed protection is operative, the system maintains positive spiral static stability from a bank angle of ___ , so that with the sidestick released, the aircraft always returns to a bank angle of 0 °.

A

20 ° / 0 °

89
Q

If the bank angle protection is active, ___ is inoperative.

A

auto trim

90
Q

If the bank angle exceeds 45 °, the autopilot disconnects and the FD bars disappear. The FD bars return when the bank angle decreases to less than ___

A

40 °

91
Q

In the case of steep turns (bank angle greater than 33 °), the flight crew must apply:

A
  • Lateral pressure on the sidestick to maintain bank
  • Aft pressure on the sidestick to maintain level flight.
92
Q

LOAD ALLEVIATION FUNCTION (LAF)
The load alleviation function permits to alleviate the wing structure loads.
The function is achieved through the upward deflection of:

A

‐ The two ailerons only, or
‐ The two ailerons associated to the spoilers 4 and 5.

93
Q

LOAD ALLEVIATION FUNCTION (LAF) has 2 sub-functions:

A

‐ A sub-function activated in case of stable maneuver (ailerons deflections only)
‐ A sub-function activated in case of gust detection (ailerons and spoilers deflections)

94
Q

The LAF is available when the aircraft is in clean configuration and in Normal law.
The LAF is inhibited with:

A
  • Flaps Lever Not In 0 Position.
  • Speed Below 200 Kts.
  • Slats / Flaps Wing Tip Brake Engaged.
  • Pitch Direct Law.
95
Q

SIDESLIP TARGET
If one engine fails, the ___ modifies the sideslip indication slightly to show the pilot how much rudder to use to get the best climb performance (ailerons to neutral and spoilers retracted).

A

FAC

96
Q

AIRCRAFT TRIMMING
the rudder trim should stay between

A

1 ° right and 2.3 ° left.

97
Q

Depending on the failures occurring to the flight control system, or on its peripherals, there are 3 levels of reconfiguration :

A

‐ Alternate law
They are two levels of alternate law : with and without reduced protections.
‐ Direct law
‐ Mechanical

98
Q

When protections are lost, amber crosses (X) appear, instead of the green protection symbols (=). When automatic pitch trim is no longer available, the PFD indicates this with an amber ___ message below the FMA.

A

“USE MAN PITCH TRIM”

99
Q

FLIGHT CONTROLS LAW RECONFIGURATION
HYD G + Y vs. HYD G + B

A
  • HYD G + Y ALTN REDUCED PROT
  • HYD G + B ALTN NO REDUCED PROT

Refer table FCOM

100
Q

ALTERNATE LAW
PITCH CONTROL
GROUND MODE
Under alternate law, the ground mode becomes active on the ground ___ after touchdown. It is identical to the ground mode of the normal law.

A

5 s

101
Q

ALTERNATE LAW
PITCH CONTROL
FLIGHT MODE
In flight, the pitch alternate law is similar to the normal law and is based on ___

A

load factor demand.

The basic high speed protection, pitch attitude protection and angle-of-attack protection are not available.

102
Q

ALTERNATE LAW
PITCH CONTROL
FLARE MODE
In pitch alternate law, the flight mode changes to the flare mode when the flight crew selects landing gear down. The flare mode is a

A

direct stick-to-elevator relationship.

103
Q

ALTERNATE LAW
LATERAL CONTROL
FLARE MODE
In alternate law, the lateral control is ensured through a roll direct law and an alternate fly-by-wire or mechanical law.
ROLL DIRECT LAW
YAW ALTERNATE LAW
Only the yaw damping function is available. Damper authority is limited to

A

±5 ° of rudder deflection

104
Q

ALTERNATE LAW
REDUCED PROTECTIONS
LOAD FACTOR LIMITATION
The ___ is similar to the load factor limitation in normal law.

A

load factor limitation

105
Q

ALTERNATE LAW
REDUCED PROTECTIONS
PITCH ATTITUDE PROTECTION
There is no pitch attitude protection. X (amber) replaces ___ on the PFD.

A

= (green)

106
Q

ALTERNATE LAW
REDUCED PROTECTIONS
LOW SPEED STABILITY
An artificial low speed stability replaces the ___ . It is available for all slat/flap configurations, and the low speed stability is active from about 5 kt up to about 10 kt above stall warning speed.

A

normal angle-of-attack protection

107
Q

ALTERNATE LAW
REDUCED PROTECTIONS
LOW SPEED STABILITY
A gentle progressive nose down signal is introduced, that tends to keep the speed from falling below these values. The flight crew can override this demand.
The system also injects bank-angle compensation, so that operation effectively maintains a constant angle of attack.
In addition, stall warnings (crickets + STALL synthetic voice message and STALL STALL message on PFD) are activated at an appropriate margin from the stall condition.
The PFD speed scale is modified to show a ___ below the stall warning.

The α floor protection is inoperative.

A

black/red barber pole

108
Q

ALTERNATE LAW
REDUCED PROTECTIONS
HIGH SPEED STABILITY
Above VMO or MMO, a nose up demand is introduced to avoid an excessive increase in speed. The flight crew can ___ this demand.
In addition, the aural overspeed warning ___ remains available.

A

override / (VMO + 4 or MMO + 0.006)

109
Q

ALTERNATE LAW
REDUCED PROTECTIONS
BANK ANGLE PROTECTION
No bank angle protection is provided.
However, both PFDs display the message BANK BANK when the bank angle exceeds ___ .

A

45 °

110
Q

ALTERNATE LAW
REDUCED PROTECTIONS
The AP will disconnect, if speed exceeds ___ , or if the bank angle exceeds ___ .

A

VMO/MMO / 45 °

111
Q

ALTERNATE LAW WITHOUT REDUCED PROTECTION
This is identical to alternate law except that it does not include ___ .
It includes only the load factor limitation.

A

the low-speed stability or the
high-speed stability

112
Q

DIRECT LAW
PITCH CONTROL
The pitch direct law is a ___

A

direct stick-to-elevator relationship (elevator deflection is proportional to stick deflection).

113
Q

DIRECT LAW
PITCH CONTROL
There is no automatic trim : the pilot must trim manually.
The PFD displays in amber the message ___ .
No protections are operative.
The ___ function is inoperative.
Overspeed and stall warnings are available as for alternate law.

A

“USE MAN PITCH TRIM”

α floor

114
Q

DIRECT LAW
ROLL DIRECT LAW
The roll direct law is a direct stick-to-surface-position relationship.
With the aircraft in the clean configuration, the maximum roll rate is about ___ .
With slats extended, it is about ___ .

A

30 °/s & 25 °/s

115
Q

DIRECT LAW
YAW MECHANICAL CONTROL
The pilot controls yaw with the rudder pedals.
The yaw damping and turn coordination functions are ___ .

A

lost

116
Q

ABNORMAL ATTITUDE LAWS
If for any reason the aircraft goes far outside the normal flight envelope and reaches an extreme attitude, the flight control law will be modified.
The abnormal attitude law will engage and will provide the PF with maximum efficiency to recover normal attitude.
The abnormal attitude law engages when one of the following values is reached:

A

‐ Bank angle above 125 °
‐ Pitch attitude:
* If at least 2 ADC are valid and consistent: Pitch attitude above 50 ° nose up or below 30 ° nose down
* In all other cases: Pitch attitude above 40 ° nose up or below 20 ° nose down
‐ Speed below 70 to 90 kt (depending on the aircraft pitch attitude), or above 440 kt
‐ Mach above 0.91
‐ Angle of attack above 40 °.

117
Q

When the abnormal attitude law engages:

A

‐ The pitch alternate law with no protection is active (no load factor limitation)
‐ The roll direct law is active
‐ The yaw mechanical law is active
‐ Autotrim is not available. Therefore, USE MAN PITCH TRIM is displayed on the PFDs
‐ F/CTL DIRECT LAW is displayed on the ECAM.

118
Q

When the aircraft returns within the normal flight envelope, the abnormal attitude law disengages and the following conditions remain for the remainder of the flight:

A

‐ The pitch alternate law without reduced protection is active,
‐ The roll direct law is active
‐ The yaw alternate law is active
‐ F/CTL ALTN LAW is displayed on the ECAM.

119
Q

MECHANICAL BACK-UP
The purpose of the mechanical backup is to achieve all safety objectives in MMEL dispatch condition: to manage a temporary and total electrical loss, the temporary loss of ___ fly-by-wire computers, the loss of ___ elevators, or the total loss of ailerons and spoilers.

A

five / two

120
Q

MECHANICAL BACK-UP
PITCH
The pilot manually applies trim to the ___ to control the aircraft in pitch. The PFDs display “MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY” in ___ .
LATERAL
The pilot uses the ___ as the mechanical backup to laterally control the aircraft .

A

THS / RED / rudder pedals

121
Q

(1) RUD TRIM rotary selector
Controls the rudder trim actuator, which moves the neutral point of the artificial feel by the equivalent of

A

one degree of rudder travel per second.

Note: The rudder trim rotary selector has no effect, when the autopilot is engaged.

122
Q

RUD TRIM RESET pb
By pushing the RESET pb, the zero trim position is ordered at

A

1.5 °/s.

After the reset, an indication of up to 0.3° (L or R) may be observed in the rudder trim position indication.
Note: The RESET pb is not active, when the autopilot is engaged.

123
Q

(5) PITCH TRIM Wheel
Both pitch trim wheels provide mechanical control of the THS and have priority over electrical control. A pilot action on the pitch trim wheel disconnects the ___ .

A

autopilot

124
Q

Following nosewheel touchdown, as the pitch attitude becomes less than ___ for more than ___ , pitch trim is automatically reset to zero.

A

2.5 ° / 5 s

Note: This function is inoperative, when the green or yellow hydraulic system is not pressurized.

125
Q

SIDESTICKS
If a flight crewmember applies a force above a given threshold:
3 points

A

‐ The sidesticks unlock
‐ The autopilot disengages
‐ The AUTO FLT AP OFF alert triggers.

126
Q

SIDESTICK PRIORITY LOGIC
If both flight crewmembers use their sidesticks simultaneously, their orders are ___ .

A

algebraically added

127
Q

SIDESTICK PRIORITY LOGIC
To deactivate the other sidestick, the flight crewmember must press their sidestick pb for ___ . The other sidestick is permanently deactivated, until any flight crewmember presses their ___ .

A

40s / sidestick pb

128
Q

SIDESTICK PRIORITY LOGIC
If both flight crew members press their sidestick pb, the ___ pilot to press gets the priority.

A

last

129
Q

If one sidestick was deactivated on ground, the ___ alert is triggered at takeoff power application, or during the TO CONFIG test.

A

CONFIG L(R) SIDESTICK FAULT

130
Q

ELAC 1(2) Elevator and Aileron Computer performs the following functions :

A

‐ Normal pitch and roll, normal LAF 
‐ Alternate pitch, alternate LAF 
‐ Direct pitch and roll
‐ Abnormal attitude
‐ Aileron droop
‐ Acquisition of autopilot orders.

131
Q

SEC 1(2)(3) Spoiler and Elevator Computer performs the following functions:

A

‐ Normal roll (by controlling the spoilers)
‐ Speed brakes and ground spoilers
‐ Alternate pitch (SEC 1 and SEC 2 only)
‐ Direct pitch (SEC 1 and SEC 2 only)
‐ Direct roll
‐ Alternate LAF
‐ Abnormal attitude.

132
Q

Both FACs Flight Augmentation Computer perform the following functions:

A

‐ Normal roll (coordinating turns and damping dutch roll)
‐ Rudder trim
‐ Rudder travel limit
‐ Alternate yaw

133
Q

SPOILERS/SPEEDBRAKES INDICATION
GREEN ARROW Spoiler deflected by more than ___

A

2.5 ° .

134
Q

The slat and flap system includes all of the following main components:
A321

A

‐ Five slat surfaces and two double-slotted flap surfaces per wing. These surfaces are electrically controlled and hydraulically operated. The flight crew extends the slats and flaps by moving the flaps lever on the center pedestal. It has five positions.

135
Q

The slat and flap system includes all of the following main components:
A320

A

‐ Five slat surfaces and two flap surfaces per wing. These surfaces are electrically controlled and hydraulically operated. The flight crew extends the slats and flaps by moving the flaps lever on the center pedestal. It has five positions.

136
Q

The WTBs which activate in the case of an uncommanded movement of the surfaces, such as ___ . They cannot be released in flight.

A

runaway, asymmetry or over speed

137
Q

If the flap WTB is on, the flight crew can still operate the ___ , and if the slat WTB is on, the flight crew can still operate the ___
‐ If one SFCC is inoperative, both slats and flaps operate at ___
‐ If one hydraulic system is inoperative, the corresponding surfaces (slats or flaps) operate
at ___ .

A

slats / flaps / half speed / half speed

138
Q

FLAPS AND SLATS
When in Configuration 1 + F, the FLAPS retract to 0 ° automatically at

A

210 kt (before the airspeed reaches VFE).

139
Q

ALPHA/SPEED LOCK FUNCTION (SLATS)
This function inhibits slat retraction at

A

high angles-of-attack and low speeds.

140
Q

When the FLAPS lever is set to 0, the slats alpha/speed lock function activates and inhibits slats retraction, if:

A

‐ The AOA is above 8.5 °, or
‐ The speed is less than 148 kt.

Note: If the FLAPS lever is already set to 0, when either of the above conditions occurs, the function will not activate therefore the slats will continue to retract or will remain at 0.

141
Q

Once the slats alpha/speed lock function is active, the slats retract to 0 when:

A

‐ The AOA is less than 7.6 ° and
‐ The speed is above 154 kt.

Note: When the aircraft is on ground and its speed is less than 60 kt, then the function will not activate.

142
Q

TAKEOFF IN CONFIGURATION 1
1 + F (18 °/10 °) is selected. If the flight crew does not select configuration 0 after takeoff, the flaps retract automatically at

A

210 kt.

143
Q

The “A-LOCK” legend pulses in ___ , on ___ when the slat alpha/speedlock function is active.

A

green / ECAM UPPER DISPLAY

A320/ FCOM (32 decks)

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