Flatfoot Flashcards

1
Q

What compensation occurs with equinus in a pes valgus foot?

A

early heel off
STJ and MTJ pronation
medial column sag
TMTJ breech

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2
Q

if a transverse plane deformity predominates, what kind of surgical correction would be indicated?

A

Evans osteotomy

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3
Q

what radiographic findings would be indicative of a frontal plane dominant deformity?

A
  • widening of the lesser tarsal area on DP view
  • decrease of the 1st met declination angle
  • decrease of height of sustentaculum tali
  • increased superimposition of lesser tarsals on lateral view
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4
Q

axis-altering arthroereisis (i.e. STA-peg) are used for flatfoot deformitiy exhibiting primarily what plane of deformity?

A

frontal plane

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5
Q

what are some causes of rigid pronated feet?

A

vertical talus (congenital convex pes planovalgus)
tarsal coalition
peroneal spastic flatfoot
improperly corrected clubfoot

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6
Q

Describe the axis of teh STJ.

A

42 deg from transverse

16 deg from sagittal

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7
Q

what is the Hubscher maneuver?

A

in relaxed stance, the hallux is passively dorsiflexed to determine the flexibility of the arch. With passive dorsiflexion, the windlass effect is invoked, and this tightens the medial band of plantar fascia and FHL increasing the height of the arch

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8
Q

what is the Kidner procedure?

A

resection of accessory navicular and transposition of the insertion of the tibialis posterior tendon to the underside of the navicular

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9
Q

DEscribe the Young tenosuspension procedure.

A

rerouting the TA tendon thru a slot in the navicular w/o detaching the tendon from its insertion; tibialis posterior reattachment beneath the navicular and TAL if needed

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10
Q

What does the Young’s tenosuspension serve to accomplish?

A
  1. removes dorsiflexory force of TA on the 1st met and provides a mechanical advantage to plantarflexory force of PL to recreate medial column
  2. distal portion of the tendon will become a strong ligament in the medial arch, running from the plantar
    aspect of the first metatarsal to the plantar aspect of
    the navicular
  3. TA continues to function as primary dorsiflexor of the foot and ankle
  4. TA continues to invert the foot along the MTJ
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11
Q

Where is the osteotomy made for the evans procedure?

A

approx 1.5cm proximal to the CC joint

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12
Q

how is the Evans osteotomy directed and why?

A

directed anteriorly to avoid the middle facet of the STJ

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13
Q

Describe the Dwyer osteotomy

A

opening wedge with base laterally with bone graft (to correct cavus foot)
or reverse dwyer which is a medially-based closing wedge

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14
Q

is the STJ axis fell parallel to the transverse plane, motion around the axis would primarily be in which plane?

A

frontal plane

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15
Q

if the STJ axis is more vertical, what plane of motion will be dominant?

A

transverse plane

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16
Q

imbalance or dysfunction of what muscle will quickly lead to a pes valgus deformity?

A

tibialis posterior

17
Q

what deformity is a contraindication for an Evans procedure? why?

A

met adductus; will cause exaggeration of the met adductus and in-toe gait

18
Q

what muscle will be encountered when performing the Evans procedure?

A

EDB muscle belly

19
Q

what muscles and tendons will be visible when dissecting for Young’s procedure?

A

TA tendon, TP tendon, ABH muscle

20
Q

what is the size of the bone graft used with the Evans procedure?

A

8-10mm (can’t do much larger because of increased CCJ pressure)

21
Q

ligamentous laxity can occur due to a defect in collagen synthesis. Name these disorders.

A

Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
Marfans syndrome
osteogenesis imperfecta

22
Q

instability of which column of the foot is more indicative of pathological flatfoot condition?

A

lateral column

23
Q

what are radiographic findings for a flatfoot with sagittal plane dominance?

A

increased talar declination angle
naviculocuneiform breech
increased talocalcaneal angle on lateral view
decreased calcaneoinclination angle

24
Q

posterior calcaneal osteotomies are most useful in the correction of flatfoot with what dominant plane of deformity?

A

frontal plane

25
Q

in what type of patient is usually arthroereisis performed?

A

adolescents (have not reached skeletal maturity)

26
Q

what are the primary and secondary goals for surgical correction of flatfoot deformity?

A

1) restoration of joint stability

2) restoration of height of teh arch

27
Q

describe the cyma line in a pronated foot.

A

anterior break in the cyma line

28
Q

what is Kite’s angle?

A

talocalcaneal angle

29
Q

what is an adjunctive procedure for a flatfoot correction?

A

TAL (for equinus)

30
Q

what is the most common cause of peroneal spastic flatfoot?

A

tarsal coalition

31
Q

for arthroeriesis to be effective, what must be reducible?

A

heel valgus as well as FF supinatus/varus

32
Q

which procedure elevates the posterior facet by insertion of a lateral bone graft beneath it?

A

Baker-Hill

33
Q

where is the osteotomy and bone grafting performed for a Selakovich procedure?

A

sustentaculum tali

34
Q

what special radiographic views would be helpful in evaluating a patient with flatfoot deformity?

A
  1. charger view (stress DF) lateral view - assess for osseous equinus
  2. Harris and BEath views- for tarsal coalition
  3. neutral position WB DP and lateral views
35
Q

Which calcaneal osteotomy uses a bone graft under the sinus tarsi to block translocation of the talus under the calcaneus?

A

Chambers

36
Q

Describe the Koutsigiannis osteotomy.

A

medial displacement osteotomy of the calcaneus

37
Q

what radiographic findings are seen with a transverse plane dominant deformity?

A
  1. increased talocalcaneal angle on DP
  2. increased cuboid abduction angle
  3. increased percetnage of TN uncovering
  4. decreased forefoot adductus angle