Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

OAT- Gen Chem > Flashcards > Flashcards

Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Periodic Table flashcards Chemistry 101 flashcards AP® Chemistry flashcards Organic Chemistry 101 flashcards
1
Q

Can molecules with polar bonds be non polar?

A

Yes if there is no net dipole moment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the shape of an s orbital?

A

spherical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is the shape of p orbital?

A

bi-lobed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which type of bonds form between atoms with small differences in electronegativity (.4-1.7)?

A

polar covalent bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which type of bond forms between atoms with the same electronegativities?

A

non polar covalent bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is a coordinate covalent bond?

A

one in which a pair of bonding electrons originates from just one of the atoms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

(T/F) A dipole moment exist when a molecule has a separation of positive and negative charges.

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the formula for calculating formal charge on an atom involved in a covalent bond?

A

Formal charge= V-(1/2 N bonding + N nonbonding)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are resonance structures?

A

2 or more non-identical lewis structures for the same molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

(T/F) A lewis structure with small or no formal charges is preferred over one with large formula charges.

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Should a negative formal charge be placed in highly electronegative atoms or weakly electronegative atoms?

A

highly electronegative atoms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what are the bond orders of single, double, and triple bonds?

A

single=1st order
double=2nd order
triple=3rd order

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

(T/F) A triple bond is longer than a single bond..

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is a bond energy?

A

amount of energy required to separate two bonded atoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Can both bonding and nonbonding electrons be valence electrons?

A

yes.
nonbonding e- = not involved in a bond
bonding e- = involved in a bond

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which type of elements contains the halogens?

A

group VIIA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which group of elements contains alkaline earths?

A

group IIA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which group of elements contains noble gases?

A

group VIIIA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which groups of elements contain the transition metals?

A

groups IB to VIIIB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is an ionic bond?

A

transfer of electrons between two atoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is a covalent bond?

A

sharing of electrons between two atoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is a polar covalent bond?

A

has properties of ionic and covalent bonds. electrons are shared but not equal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is a cation?

A

positively-charged ion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

(T/F) Metals are found on the left side of the periodic table and are good conductors of electricity and heat.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

(T/F) Non metals are found in the middle of the periodic table and are malleable, ductile and shiny.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

(T/F) Metalloids are found between the metals and nonmetals and have varying properties.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which group of elements contains the alkali metals?

A

Group IA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the electron affinity trend within the periodic table?

A

increases left to right across a period & up a group.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

(T/F) Group VIIIA elements have high electron affinities.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is electronegativity?

A

measure of attraction an atom has for the electrons in a chemical bond.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the electronegative trend within the periodic table?

A

increases left to right across a period and up a group.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What happens to the number of electrons when one moves from left to right across a row?

A

added as you move across a row.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Are electrons more tightly held or less highly held as one moves down a column?

A

tightly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the atomic radii trend within the periodic table?

A

decrease as you move from left to right across a period and up a group.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Does a period run horizontally or vertically?

A

Horizontally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Does a group run horizontally or vertically?

A

Vertically

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

(T/F) Groups have the same valence configuration and have similar chemical properties.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which group A or B contains the representative elements?

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

(T/F) one amu is equal to 1/12 the mass of a carbon-12 atom.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

how many particles are in a mole?

A

6.02 x 10 ^23

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what is atomic weight?

A

reflects the number of grams per mole of the element. The atomic weight is usually derived from a weighted average of the naturally occurring isotopes of the element.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what is an isotope?

A

different form of the same element due to a different number of neutrons.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are the 3 steps for determining geometric configuration?

A
  1. draw lewis structure
  2. count bonding and non bonding electron pairs in the valence shell of the central atom
  3. arrange the electron pairs around the central atom so that they are as far apart as possible.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what is an anion?

A

negatively- charged ion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

which type of bonds forms between two atoms with substantial differences in electronegativities (>1.7)?

A

ionic bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

(T/F) all atoms bond according to the “octet rule”

A

False.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what are some characteristics of ionic compounds?

A

crystal lattices
conduct electricity in solution
high melting
boiling points

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what is ionization energy?

A

energy required to completely remove an electron from an atom.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

compare the values of the first ionization and second ionization energy of an atom.

A

second ionization higher than first

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what is electron affinity?

A

energy released when an atom accepts an electron.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

How s a photon’s energy related to its wavelength?

A

energy is inversely proportional to wavelength

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

How is a photon’s energy related to its frequency?

A

energy is proportional to frequency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is a paramagnetic material?

A

unpaired electrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is a diamagnetic material?

A

no unpaired electrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

How many fourth quantum numbers (ms) are possible for an electron?
What are they?

A

two.

+1/2 and -1/2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is Hund’s rule?

A

electrons will fill to create the max number of half-filled orbitals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

what are the first four subshells?

A

s,p,d and f

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

what is the formula for the max number of electrons allowed in a subshell?

A

(4l+2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

what does the magnetic (3rd) quantum number (ml) represent?

A

represent an orbital within a subshell. The possible values range from -l to l

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

How many orbitals can each subshell accommodate?

A

7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What are three types of intermolecular forces?

A

dipole-dipole interactions
hydrogen bonding
dispersion forces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

state the intermolecular forces in order of increasing strength.

A

dispersion forces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

which molecules, polar or non polar, typically have higher boiling points?

A

polar molecules typically have higher boiling points.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Geometric arrangement:

CO2

A

Linear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Geometric arrangement:

BH3

A

trigonal planar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Geometric arrangement:

NH3

A

pyramidal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Geometric arrangement:

CH4

A

tetrahedral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Geometric arrangement:

PCl5

A

trigonal bipyramidal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Geometric arrangement:

SF6

A

octahedral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

How many more protons are in a carbon-14 from than in a carbon-12 atom?

A

none.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

what is an atomic emission spectrum?

A

electrons fall to their ground state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

what is an atomic absorption spectrum?

A

electrons are excited to higher energy levels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

define Heisenberg uncertainty principle.

A

it is impossible to know both the momentum and position of an electron at the same time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

what are valence electrons?

A

electrons farthest from the nucleus, as well as many electrons available for bonding.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Define the Pauli exclusion principle?

A

no two electrons in an atom can have the same quantum numbers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

what does the principal (1st) quantum number (n) represent?

A

shell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

what is the maximum number of electrons allowed in the second shell (n=2)?

A

2n^2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What does the azimuthal (2nd) quantum number (l) represent?

A

subshell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Classify the Rxn:

A+X -> AX

A

Combination or additon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Classify the Rxn:

AX -> A + X

A

decomposition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Classify the Rxn:

AX + B -> BX + A

A

single displacement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Classify the Rxn:

AX+ BY -> AY + BX

A

double displacement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Classify the Rxn:

HA (aq) + BOH (aq) -> AB (aq) + H2O

A

neutralization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What is an empirical formula?

A

simplest whole number ratio of the element in a compound.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is a molecular formula?

A

actual number of atoms each element present in a molecule of the compound.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

what is the formula for calculating % composition

A

mass of X compound / MW of compound x 100%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What is molar mass (molar weight)?

A

Number of grams per molecule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

what is the formula for gram equivalent weight?

A

Molar mass / n = Gram equivalent weight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

what is the formula for calculating equivalents?

A

Weight of compound/ Gram equivalent weight= equivalents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

How do increasing temp and reactant concentration affect the rate of the reaction?

A

increases the rate of most reactions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

can the medium in which a reaction takes place affect the reaction rate?

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

how does a catalyst increase reaction rate?

A

by decreasing activation energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

what is the reaction rate of the following one step reaction:
2A + B -> A2B

A

Rate = k [A]^2 [B]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

what is the enthalpy change of a reaction?

A

difference between potential energy of the products and the potential energy of the reactants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

what is the general formula for the rate law of the following reaction?
aA + bB -> cC + dD

A

rate= k [A]^x [B]^y

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What is the reaction order for the following rate law?

rate= k [A] [B]^2

A

Reaction order =3

x=1, y=2, and order =x+y

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Is the rate of a zero order reaction dependent on the concentration of the reactants?

A

No, a zero order reaction has a constant rate that is independent of the concentration of reactants.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

what is an elementary reaction?

A

reaction that can not be decomposed into other reactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

(T/F) A complex reaction can be broken down into two or more elementary reactions.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

what is an intermediate?

A

complex that appears during the course of a reaction but does not appear in the net reaction or as a final product.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

what is the rate determining step of a reaction?

A

slowest step of a reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

what is theoretical yield?

A

amount of product that can be predicted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

what is actual yield?

A

amount of product actually isolated from the run experimentally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What is percent yield and what is the formula for calculating it?

A

relationship between actual yield and theoretical yield

actual/theoretical x 100%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What is the equilibrium constant expression for the following reaction:
A+ 3B -> 2C + 2D

A

Keq= [C]^2 [D]^2 / [A] [B]^3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Do pure solids or liquids appear in an equilibrium constant expression?

A

No

107
Q

Does Keq for a reaction remain constant at all temperatures?

A

No

108
Q

If there is much more product than reactant at equilibrium, what can be said of Keq (as compared to 1)?

A

Keq>1

109
Q

If Keq is very small compared to 1, then what can be said about the amount of reactants and products at equilibrium?

A

Keq

110
Q

According to Le Chatelier’s principle, in which direction will equilibrium shift if products are removed?

A

will shift to favor the forward reaction.

111
Q

(T/F) Increasing the pressure of a system will shift equilibrium so as to increase the number of moles produced.

A

False.

Increasing pressure will shift equation so as to produce fewer molecules of gas.

112
Q

What is an isolated system?

A

an isolated system can not exchange energy or matter with its surroundings.

113
Q

What is a closed system?

A

a closed system can exchange energy but can not exchange matter with its surroundings.

114
Q

what is an open system?

A

an open system can exchange both energy and matter with its surroundings

115
Q

what is an isothermal process?

A

process that can occur @ constant temp.

116
Q

what is an isobaric process?

A

process that takes place @ constant pressure.

117
Q

what is an adiabatic process?

A

process to which no heat exchange occurs between the system and the surroundings

118
Q

(T/F) heat absorbed by a system is considered positive and heat lost by a system is considered negative.

A

true

119
Q

what is an endothermic process?

A

process that absorbs heat from the surroundings.

120
Q

what is an exothermic process?

A

release heat

121
Q

what is the formula for calculating heat (q) absorbed or released by a process.

A

q= (mass)(heat capacity)(change in temp)= mcAt

122
Q

what is the formula for calculating Delta Hrxn?

A

(sum of Delta Hf of products)-( Sum of Delta Hf of reactants)

123
Q

Does a positive Delta H correspond to an endothermic or exothermic process

A

endothermic process.

124
Q

Does a negative Delta H correspond to an endothermic or exothermic process?

A

exothermic

125
Q

What is standard heat of formation ( Deta Hf)?

A

enthalpy change that occurs when one mole of a compound is formed from its elements in their standard states.

126
Q

What is the Delta Hf of an element in its standard state?

A

0

127
Q

(T/F) Hess’s law states that enthalpies of reactions are additive.

A

True

128
Q

If the Delta H of a forward reaction is -220kJ, what is the Delta H of the reverse reaction?

A

+220kJ

129
Q

What is bond dissociation energy?

A

amount of energy required to break a particular bond in one mole of gaseous molecules.

130
Q

What is entropy?

A

measure of disorder or randomness of a system.

131
Q

When does a system reach max entropy?

A

@ equilibrium

132
Q

What is the Gibb’s free energy equation? ΔG=

A

ΔG= ΔH- T ΔS

133
Q

How does the value of ΔG correlate with the spontaneity of a reaction?

A

Δ G is negative for spontaneous rxn.

Δ G is positive for non-spontaneous run

134
Q

What is the value of ΔG for a system @ eq?

A

0

135
Q

(T/F) A reaction with (+) ΔH and (-) ΔS is always spontaneous.

A

False

136
Q

Under what conditions will a run with (+) ΔH and (+) ΔS be spontaneous?

A

@ high temp

137
Q

under what conditions will a reaction with (-)ΔH and (-) ΔS be spontaneous?

A

@ low temp

138
Q

what is standard free energy, ΔG?

A

process occurring @ 25 C, 1 atm of pressure and when the concentrations of all reactant and products are 1M

139
Q

what is standard free energy formation ΔGf?

A

free energy change that occurs when 1 mol of a compound in its standard state is formed from its elements in their standard states.

140
Q

what is the formula relating ΔG to Keq?

A

ΔG= -RT ln Keq

141
Q

(T/F) Once a reaction commences:

ΔG= ΔG+ RTln Q

A

True

142
Q

What are the three phases of matter?

A

solid
liquid
gas

143
Q

What is standard pressure in atm, mm Hg and torr?

A

1atm=760 mmHg= 760 torr

144
Q

What is standard term in Kelvin? celsius?

A

273 K

0C

145
Q

(T/F) an ideal gas represents a hypothetical gas whose articles take up no volume and experience no intermolecular forces.

A

True

146
Q

What is Boyle’s law?

A

under isothermal conditions, pressure is inversely proportional to volume.
P1V1=P2V2

147
Q

What is Charles Law?

A

under constant pressure, volume is directly proportional to absolute temp.
(V1/T1)=(V2/T2)

148
Q

(T/F) Avogadro’s principle states that at constant temp and pressure, volume is directly proportional to the number of moles of gas.

A

True

149
Q

what is the ideal gas law?

A

PV=nRT

150
Q

what is the difference between I.P and Ksp?

A

I.P is defined with respect to initial concentrations.

Ksp is defined with respect to the concentrations of a saturated solution at equilibrium.

151
Q

(T/F) Metals, which are on the left side of the periodic table, generally form positively-charged ions. non-metals on the right side generally from negative-charged ions.

A

True

152
Q

What is an electrolyte?

A

solute whose solution is conductive

153
Q

What is the formula for percent composition by mass?

A

mass of solute/ mass of solution x 100%

154
Q

What is the definition of mole fraction (X)?

A

moles of compound/ total number of moles.

155
Q

What is the definition of molarity?

A

moles of solute/ L in solution

156
Q

what is the definition of molality?

A

moles of solute/ Kg of solvent

157
Q

what is the definition of normality?

A

GEW of solute/ L of solute.

158
Q

(T/F) A solution which is diluted is related to its initial concentration as follows: M1V1= M2V2

A

True

159
Q

Name:

Cu+

A

Copper (I)
or
Cuprous

160
Q

Name:

Cu+2

A

Copper (II)
or
Cupric

161
Q

Name:

H-

A

Hydride

162
Q

Name:

ClO-

A

Hypochlorite

163
Q

Name:

ClO2-

A

Chlorite

164
Q

Name:

ClO3-

A

Chlorate

165
Q

Name:

ClO4-

A

Perchlorate

166
Q

What is the Arrhenius definition of an acid?

Of base?

A

Arrhenius acid: produces H+ in aq solution.

Arrhenius base: produces OH- in aq solution.

167
Q

What is the Bronsted-Lowry definition of an acid?

A

donates protons

168
Q

What is the Bronsted-Lowry definition of an base?

A

accepts protons

169
Q

If the I.P is larger than the solubility product constant (Ksp), is the solution saturated. unsaturated or supersaturated?

A

I.P> Ksp supersaturated

170
Q

If the I.P is smaller than the solubility product constant (Ksp), is the solution saturated. unsaturated or supersaturated?

A

I.P

171
Q

If the I.P is equal than the solubility product constant (Ksp), is the solution saturated. unsaturated or supersaturated?

A

I.p = Ksp saturated

172
Q

what is the common ion effect?

A

when a slightly soluble salt is added to a solution which already contains one of its components, the added salt is less soluble than if it were added to a pure solvent.

173
Q

what is the name of the process for combing smaller nuclei into larger nuclei?

A

Fusion is the combining of smaller nuclei to create a larger nuclei.

174
Q

what is nuclear fission?

A

splitting of atomic nuclei

175
Q

Define reduction potential

A

tendency of species to acquire electrons.

176
Q

Whats the formula for EMF

A

EMF= E red+ E ox

177
Q

(T/F) When adding standard potentials, multiply by the number of moles oxidized or reduced first.

A

False

178
Q

what is the formula for the standard free energy of an electrochemical cell?

A

ΔG= -(number of moles) (Faraday’s constant)(EMF)

= -nFE

179
Q

what is the relationship between EMF and Keq?

A

nFE= RT ln Keq

180
Q

If the half life of an isotope is 2 years, how much of the original isotope will be left after 4 years?

A

25%

181
Q

What is the formula for exponential decay?

A

n=no e ^ -λt

182
Q

what is mass defect?

A

difference between the mass of a nucleus and the sum total of its constituents (nucleons)

183
Q

what formula is used for calculating binding energy?

A

Energy= (mass defect)(speed of light)^2

Δmc^2

184
Q

What is the oxidation number of free elements?

A

0

185
Q

(T/F) Group IA elements usually have a +1 charge in a compound, and group IIA usually have a +2

A

true

186
Q

what is the oxidation number of oxygen in most compounds?

A

-2

187
Q

What is the oxidation number of Group VIIA element in a compound?

A
  • 1
    except: if a group VIIA element is combined with and element with higher electronegativity, then the oxidation number is +1 or higher
188
Q

what are the two types of electrochemical cells?

A

galvanic (voltanic)

electrolytic

189
Q

does oxidation occur at the anode or cathode?

A

anode

190
Q

does reduction occur at the anode or cathode?

A

cathode

191
Q

which type of electrochemical cell generates energy?

A

galvanic

192
Q

Does a galvanic cell have a positive or negative ΔG?

A

negative= spontaneous

193
Q

what is the function of a salt bridge?

A

permits balancing of charge between cells

194
Q

(T/F) A cell diagram adheres to the following conventions:

anode/anode solution// cathode solution/cathode

A

true

195
Q

does an electrolytic cell have positive or negative ΔG?

A

positive= non- spontaneous

196
Q

In which electrochemical cell is the anode positive?

A

electrolytic cell

197
Q

In which electrochemical cell is the cathode positive?

A

galvanic cell

198
Q

what is faraday (F)?

A

F is equivalent to the amount of charge contained in one mole of electrons = 96,487 C.

199
Q

(T/F) Electrons always flow from the anode to the cathode.

A

True

200
Q

(T/F) An acid equivalent is equal to one mole of H+

A

True

201
Q

Does high Ka correspond to weak or strong acid?

A

High Ka= strong acid

202
Q

Does high Kb correspond to weak or strong acid?

A

High Kb= weak acid.

203
Q

What is a polyprotic acid?

A

can lose more than one proton

ie: H2SO4 or H3PO4

204
Q

what is an amphoteric species?

A

can act as acid or base

205
Q

ph?

Strong acid + Strong base

A

pH of 7

206
Q

pH?

Weak acid + Strong base

A

pH greater than 7

207
Q

(T/F) A buffer solution consist of a mixture of a strong acid and its salt

A

False.

buffer= mix of weak acid & its salt

208
Q

What is the henderson-Hasselbalch equation for a weak acid buffer solution?

A

pH= pKa + Log (conjugate base)/(weak acid)

209
Q

What is the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation for a weak base buffer solution?

A

pOH=pKb + log (conjugate acid)/(weak base)

210
Q

Does the gain of electrons result in reduction or oxidation?

A

reduction

211
Q

Does the loss of electrons result in reduction or oxidation?

A

oxidation

212
Q

(T/F) An oxidizing agent is oxidized in an electrochemical reaction.

A

False

213
Q

what is a reducing agent?

A

species that loses electrons and thereby causes another agent to be reduced.

214
Q

What is the lewis definition of an acid?

A

accepts electron pair

215
Q

What is the lewis definition of an base?

A

donates electron pair

216
Q

(T/F) All broasted-lowry acids are lewis acids.

A

true

217
Q

Name:

HF

A

Hydrofluoric acid

218
Q

Name:

HClO4

A

Perchloric acid

219
Q

Name:

HNO2

A

Nitrous acid

220
Q

Name:

HNO3

A

Nitric acid

221
Q

what is the water dissociation constant @ 25 C? Kw=

A

Kw=[H+][OH-]=10^-14

222
Q

What is the pH of a solution @ 25C with a pOH of 5?

A

pH= 14-pOH =9

223
Q

What is the log formula for calculating pH?

A

pH= -log [H+]

224
Q

What is the log formula for calculating pOH?

A

pOH= -log [OH-]

225
Q

What is the pH of a 1 x 10^-14 M HCl solution?

A

pH=4

226
Q

would the pH of a 1.4 x 10^-14 M HCl solution be greater or less than 4?

A

less than 4

227
Q

What is the product of a neutralization reaction?

A

salt

228
Q

will the titration of a weak acid with a strong base produce a slightly acidic or slightly basic solution?

A

basic

229
Q

will the titration of a strong acid with a strong base produce a slightly acidic or slightly basic or neutral solution?

A

neutral

230
Q

will the titration of a strong acid with a weak base produce a slightly acidic or slightly basic solution?

A

acidic

231
Q

(T/F) Solids and liquids are often referred to as the condensed phases.

A

True

232
Q

What does it mean when two liquids are immiscible?

A

liquids repel each other and do not mix to form a solution.

233
Q

What is an emulsion?

A

mix of immiscible liquids which are broken up into extremely small particles.

234
Q

What is an amorphous solid?

A

no ordered 3D arrangement.

235
Q

What are the two most common types of crystalline solids?

A

ionic & metallic

236
Q

(T/F) A unit cell is a repeating unit of crystals

A

True

237
Q

What is condensation?

Evaporation?

A

Condensation: gas to liquid
Evaporation: liquid to gas

238
Q

What is fusion?

A

solid to liquid

239
Q

what is solidification (crystallization)?

A

liquid to solid

240
Q

What is sublimation?

A

solid to gas

241
Q

what is deposition?

A

gas to solid

242
Q

(T/F) The rates at which two gases diffuse are inversely proportional to the square root of their molar masses.

A

true

243
Q

what is effusion?

A

flow of gas particles under pressure from one container to another through a small opening.

244
Q

(T/F) The rates of effusion for 2 molecules are directly proportional to the square root of their molar masses.

A

False.

245
Q

What is Dalton Law of Partial pressure?

A

the total pressure of a gaseous mix is equal to the sum pf partial pressure of the individual components.

246
Q

What is the formula for calculating partial pressure?

A

PA= Pt XA ; XA= mol of A/ total mol

247
Q

(T/F) A gas molecule’s kinetic energy is inversely proportional to the absolute temp of the gas

A

False.

Kinetic energy is directly proportional to the absolute temp.

248
Q

Under what conditions is the ideal gas law most correct?

A

gases behave in a near-ideal fashion at low temp and high temp.

249
Q

How do actual volume and predicted volume of a gas compare at moderately high pressures? Extremely high pressures?

A

Moderately high: gas volume less than would be predicted

Extremely high: gas volume more than would be predicted

250
Q

How do actual volume and ideal volume of a gas compare at very low temp?

A

low temp: actual volume less than would be predicted.

251
Q

What is the volume of 1 mole of gas at STP?

A

22.4 L

252
Q

What are the typical units of density for a gas?

A

g/L

253
Q

(T/F) For a specific sample of gas, (P1VA/T1)=(P2V2/T2)

A

True

254
Q

What is the formula for calculating the density of a gas?

A

d=m/V= P(MM)/RT

255
Q

What is an aqueous solution?

A

one which water is the solvent

256
Q

what is solubility?

A

measure of the amount of substance that can be dissolved in a particular solvent @ a particular temp

257
Q

what is a saturated solution?

A

contains mx amount of solute that can be dissolved in a particular solvent @ a particular temp

258
Q

Is osmotic pressure proportional to molarity?

A

yes

259
Q

What is the formula for osmotic pressure?

A

π= MRT

260
Q

What is the formula for the vapor pressure of A in a solution of A and B?

A

PA= XA PA

261
Q

What is a colligative property?

A

property derived sole from the number of particles present, not the nature of those particles.

262
Q

Name the 4 colligative properties.

A

freezing point depression
boiling point elevation
osmotic pressure
vapor pressure lowering

263
Q

What is the formula for freezing-point depression?

A

ΔTf=Kf m

264
Q

What is the formula for boiling-point elevation?

A

ΔTb= Kb m

OAT- Gen Chem (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions