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Mammo Boards > Flashcards > Flashcards

Flashcards

1
Q

Breast tissue age is measured in years from

A

Menarche to menopause

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2
Q

The most common breast symptom is

A

Breast pain

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3
Q

A ____ mammography outcome can result in a delay in diagnosis and treatment

A

False negative

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4
Q

The ____ pattern is the recommended search pattern for breast self exam

A

Linear

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5
Q

The patient is instructed to remove all deodorant and powder from the axillary and breast region prior to the mammogram because it can mimic the appearance of suspicious

A

Microcalcifications

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6
Q

The American College of radiology recommends that a woman of average risk begin annual mammography at the age of ____ and continue ____ for as long as the woman is in good health, expect to live at at least 5 to 10 years, and would seek treatment if a cancer were found

A

40/annually

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7
Q

Approximately what percent of breast cancers are the result of inherited mutations and cancer susceptible genes?
(BRCA1and BRCA2)

A

5% to 10%

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8
Q

A woman with a history of radiation therapy to the chest area for the treatment of cancer as a child or young adult significantly decreases or increases her risk of developing breast cancer

A

Increases

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9
Q

Early menarche and menopause increase a woman’s risk of developing breast cancer because

A

Get results in an increased number of menstrual cycles and hormonal fluctuations during her lifetime

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10
Q

BRCA1 and BRCA2 or referred to as tumor ______ genes because they help repair damage to DNA by producing proteins that prevent the tumor from growing abnormally

A

Suppressor

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11
Q

What is the first chemo prevention drug approved by the FDA to reduce the risk of developing breast cancer?

A

Tamoxifen

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12
Q

The Gail model is a risk prediction tool used by physicians to predict a women’s likelihood of developing future ____ breast cancer

A

Invasive

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13
Q

Women who carry mutations of BRCA14 BRCA2 genes are at a higher risk of developing breast and ______ cancers when compared to women who do not carry the mutation

A

Ovarian

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14
Q

The majority of women who developed breast cancer have risk factors or no known risk factors

A

No known risk factors

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15
Q

What kind of palpable lump with what kind of margins is suspicious for malignancy?

A

Hard/irregular and fixed in place

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16
Q

The clinical presentations of nipple, crusting, erosion, bleeding, and aerial changes are for what disease

A

Pagets disease of the breast

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17
Q

Peau de’ orange and erythema to the skin of the breast represent our clinical indicators of what

A

Inflammatory breast cancer

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18
Q

A small localized breast cancer diagnosed early on a screening mammogram likely to be treated with a

A

Lumpectomy and radiation therapy

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19
Q

A small localized breast cancer diagnosed early on a screening mammogram likely to be treated with a

A

Lumpectomy and radiation therapy

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20
Q

Brachytherapy delivers what kind of dose over a shorter period of time compared to traditional radiation therapy

A

A higher dose of radiation to a smaller area of the breast

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21
Q

Targeted therapy for a monoclonal antibody decreases the risk of relapse for women with what kind of tumors

A

HER2-positive

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22
Q

TRAM flap reconstruction create a new breast mound utilizing following mastectomy

A

Fat, skin and muscle from the lower abdomen

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23
Q

According to the final regulations of the mammography quality standards act, what question must every mammography patient be asked before beginning the exam

A

Presence of implants

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24
Q

When using my Clock method to identify the location of a breast lump 10 o’clock position in the right breast is located in which quadrant

A

Upper outer quadrant

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25
Q

Dense breasts are those placed in ACR BI-RADS category what

A

C and D

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26
Q

When is the optimal timing for self breast exams in menopausal patients

A

On the same day every month

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27
Q

Which of the following nipple, discharge fluids and/or colors is considered an increase suspicion for cancer

A

Sanguinous

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28
Q

What is the dose limit for a compressed 4.5 cm breast 50% fatty and 50% glandular breed according to the MQSA

A

3 mGy

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29
Q

What is the second highest incident cases of cancer in the United States according to the American cancer Society in 2020?

A

Lung and bronchus

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30
Q

What is the number 2 risk factor of breast cancer?

A

Advancing age

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31
Q

What part of the compression paddle should be straight and parallel to the edge of the image detector

A

Chest wall

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32
Q

What is the critic of a random sample of each technologist and interpreting physicians images to ensure quality images are being produced and interpreted

A

Equip - enhancing quality using the inspection program

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33
Q

The area of maximum radiation intensity must lie near the chest wall since that area is the thickest part of the breast. Tube manufacturer position what side of the x-ray tube at the thickest part of the breast?

A

Cathode

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34
Q

Spark compression magnification technique increases the distance between the what

A

Object to image detector (OID)

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35
Q

The area on the target and ode that is bombarded by electrons from the cathode of the x-ray tube is referred to as the what

A

Focal spot

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36
Q

What is not a characteristic of the low, penetrating being used in mammography

A

High energy

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37
Q

What is the effect of scattered radiation on image contrast?

A

As the amount of scatter radiation in the breast increases contrast decreases

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38
Q

What is the recommended focal spot size for magnification technique?

A

0.1 mm

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39
Q

The most common magnification factor used in mammography is what times

A

1.5

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40
Q

The benefits of adequate breast compression during mammography include everything but

A

Increase potential for motion due to a mobilization

(It decreases motion)

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41
Q

According to the ACR digital mammography quality control manual 2016, the average glandular must not exceeded a single view of a standard breast (4.2 cm, 50% granular, 50% adipose)

A

300 mRad (3 mGy)

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42
Q

The MQSA requirement regarding compression force is how many pounds of initial force applied

A

25 to 45 pounds

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43
Q

The basic component of a digital detector is the what

A

Pixel

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44
Q

CAD is an acronym for what? It is an important tool that assist the radiologist in interpretation by using software algorithms to recognize suspicious patterns and breast tissue, such as areas of density, masses, and patterns of micro-calcifications

A

Computer aided detection

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45
Q

The US Congress directed who to develop an employment MQSA regulations to ensure that all women have access to quality mammography for the detection of breast cancer and its earliest most treatable stages

A

FDA

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46
Q

Each Facility must have what kind of certificate in order to legally perform mammography

A

MQSA

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47
Q

The mammography technologist must perform how many mammographic examinations over how long of a period in order to fulfill MQS a continuing experience requirements

A

200 examinations over a 24 month period

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48
Q

MQSA requires that the mammography technologist obtain how many continuing education units in how long of a time

A

15 CEU over 36 months

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49
Q

If the medical physicist QC test for average glandular dose fails, corrective action, must be taken by the facility when

A

Immediately before any further exams are performed

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50
Q

The medical physicist is required to perform QC testing on all new Leland installed units, whether the equipment is new or used, at the time of installation and at least how long for MQSA

A

Annually

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51
Q

Phantom image testing is required by the QC mammography technologist on a weekly basis. When the results fail, corrective action must be taken by the facility when

A

Immediately before any further exams

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52
Q

The written report signed by the interpreting position must be provided to the patient’s healthcare provider within how many days of the exam

A

30 days

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53
Q

In addition to sending a report to the patient’s physician that facility must send a written summary of the mammography report to the patient in terms easily understood by a person within how many days of the exam

A

30 days

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54
Q

Current mammograms and records must be kept by the facility for how many years if no additional mammograms of the patient or performed at the facility

A

5 to 10 years

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55
Q

ACR accredited facilities must maintain a record of each serious consumer complaint received by the facility for at least how long after the complaint was received

A

Three years

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56
Q

For ACR accreditation purposes, the facility must submit two sets of clinical imaging for evaluation. What are they?

A

One from the patient with fatty breast and one from a patient with breast

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57
Q

Does MQSA require technique factors be identified for mammographic images

A

No

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58
Q

The phantom simulates a _____ compressed breast, consisting of 50% glandular and 50% adipose tissue

A

4.2 cm

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59
Q

A level one violation of MQSA regulations indicate what

A

A failure to meet a MQSA requirement that may compromise the quality of mammography performed at the facility

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60
Q

In FFDM systems with direct digital detectors, the photo conductor composed of what absorbs the x-rays and directly converts them to elect electrons

A

Amorphous selenium

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61
Q

What method of image capture is very efficient because the x-rays are not converted into light but instead directly into an electron signal

A

Direct conversion

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62
Q

QC testing for digital mammography does not include testing related to what

A

Image portability

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63
Q

A QC procedure performed by the mammographer to correct variances in sensitivity of the elements in the detector matrix

A

Flat field detector calibration

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64
Q

A QC test performed by the medical physicist to ensure that the hardware is performing properly so as not to degrade the resolution of the image

A

Modulation transfer function

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65
Q

The three categories for FFDM artifacts does not include

A

Handling artifacts

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66
Q

What type of artifact is unique to FFDM and results when a women’s breast compresses to less than 2 cm and thickness demonstrating the edges of the compression paddle at the corners of the image

A

Thin breast

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67
Q

What type of artifact is coming into certain manufacturers and is more commonly seen in women with thick breast

A

Breast within a breast

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68
Q

With fulfilled, digital mammography, the greater the number of pixels per inch the greater the what

A

Resolution

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69
Q

In the digital detector, what is similar to a collection of bins that store in electrical charge depending upon the number of x-rays that fall into that area

A

Pixels

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70
Q

What is the number of shades of gray or the contrast resolution in the image?

A

Dynamic range

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71
Q

As the pixel sizes made smaller, the amount of data contained in the image does what?

A

Rapidly increases

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72
Q

Mammography units offer how many focal sizes

A

Two

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73
Q

A special feature of a high transmission cellular grid is what

A

Scatter control in two dimensions

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74
Q

Digital images are not limited by the characteristic curve of film because why

A

Brightness and contrast can be changed post exposure

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75
Q

High image contrast is of great importance in mammography in order to what

A

Visualize subtle signs of pathology, such as microcalcifications or small nodules

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76
Q

Contrast on a mammogram results from the varying density differences between what

A

Glandular and adipose tissues

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77
Q

What is controlled by the MA?

A

Quantity or the total number of photons in the beam

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78
Q

The maximum MAS tube limit is established before automatic cut offs occur in order to what

A

Protect the x-ray tube from damaging heat

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79
Q

The exposure increases or decreases how many percent with each increment in the density setting

A

10% to 20%

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80
Q

What kind of array are the active electronic readout mechanism commonly used in both direct and indirect digital mammography systems

A

Thin film transistors (TFT)

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81
Q

The amount of filtration required to reduce the intensity of the xray beam by one half its original value

A

Half value layer

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82
Q

If a grid were used for magnification views, the exposure time would what

A

Increase significantly

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83
Q

The air gap technique refers to the gap of air between one

A

Breast and the image detector

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84
Q

In magnification radiography, a small focal spot is necessary in order to what related to the penumbra effect

A

Counter the effect of increased blurring at the edges of the image

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85
Q

What appears darkest on the mammographic image?

A

Adipose tissue

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86
Q

The main reason we use a low KVP in mammography because why

A

There is greater differentiation in attenuation between the breast tissue types

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87
Q

The average glandular dose for an automated exposure on a digital mammography system will what

A

Increase with increasing compressed breast thickness

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88
Q

At higher kvp, with an appropriate reduction in MAs to maintain the same image density there will be a ____ due to more penetrating x-ray being produced, but also some loss of subject contrast

A

Reduced dose

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89
Q

If magnification mammography were performed without the use of a small spot, the resulting image would be magnified and what

A

Blurred

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90
Q

The effective spot magnification on the patient dose does what

A

Dose increases because source to patient distance is reduced

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91
Q

Grids and air gap techniques are effective means of controlling, scatter radiation and what in mammography

A

Improving contrast

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92
Q

A measure of image sharpness and is described as the ability of the system to display high frequency structures, such as microcalcifications without losing them in the noise of the system

A

Modulation transfer function

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93
Q

The detection of what in FFDM is most visible as graininess or waves and uniform surfaces

A

Noise

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94
Q

When quality control test that evaluate the performance of the image acquisition components fall outside the action limits as specified by the manufacturer the source, the problem shall be identified and corrective action shall be taken when

A

Before any further examinations

95
Q

If a facility accepts self referred to to patients who do not name a healthcare provider, what happens

A

Facility must send the patient the written mammography report in addition to a summary in lay terms

96
Q

The mammography accreditation phantom is a QC tool that detects imaging changes that degrade imaging quality. The target items with the phantom do not include what

A

Asymmetry

97
Q

How often must EQUIP be performed

A

Yearly

98
Q

Mammographic image displays and printers are regulated under the MQSA. It is essential that the printing device can display the same grayscale information as the electronic display. The what was developed for this purpose?

A

SMPTE test pattern

99
Q

During magnification imaging, positioning the breast above the detector reduces scatter radiation to the detector. This demonstrates what

A

Air gap technique

100
Q

What QC test uses a scale?

A

Compression force

101
Q

What usually presents itself as a small group of malignant microcalcifications on a screening mammogram

A

Ductal carcinoma in-situ

102
Q

What is the gold standard for the detection of early nonpalpable breast cancer?

A

Digital mammography

103
Q

Which nipple discharge is not considered suspicious for malignancy

A

Milky

104
Q

The first selective population study to demonstrate a reduction in breast cancer mortality as a result of screening mammography was the what

A

HIP Study for New York (Health Insurance Plan)

105
Q

What are the smallest structures visible on mammogram

A

Micro calcifications

106
Q

The average doubling time for a breast cancer cell is what

A

90-100 days

107
Q

A triple negative breast cancer diagnosis indicates that the cancerous tumor is estrogen receptor negative, progesterone receptor negative, and what

A

HER2 receptor negative

108
Q

The final assessment category is assigned by the radiologist, following interpretation of the mammographic images. When the radiologist assigns a category four to patient study, it is understood that the mammogram is what

A

Demonstrates the suspicious abnormality and biopsy should be considered

109
Q

Younger women tend to have a predominant of what and what kind of breast tissue making the detection of early breast cancer in these women, more difficult

A

Heterogeneously dense and/or extremely dense glandular

110
Q

The majority of breast cancer 50% are found in the dense, glandular tissue of what quadrant

A

Upper outer quadrant

111
Q

Breast tissue extend superior to the level of the what

A

Clavicle

112
Q

An early embryonic breast formation known as the what extends from the armpit to the groin

A

Mammory line/milk Ridge

113
Q

What is composed of layers of adipose and connective tissue separating the breast tissue from the pectoralis major muscle?

A

Retromammary fat space

114
Q

The skin of the breast is thickest at the what

A

Base

115
Q

What begins at the extra lobular terminal duct and extends to the terminal ductules

A

Terminal duct lobular unit (TDLU)

116
Q

A condition in which breast has more than one nipple

A

Polythelia

117
Q

The term used to describe a steady decrease in the amount of glandular tissue (INVOLUTION)

A

Atrophy

118
Q

On the mammogram, fibroglandular tissue produces lower optical density appears what

A

Radiopaque, light or whiter

119
Q

A halo size typically present with a benign circumcised tumor. A halo sign is a what.

A

Narrow radiolucent ring around the periphery of a lesion

120
Q

A mass is three-dimensional and occupied space. It is seen on what

A

On two different mammographic projections

121
Q

If a potential mass is seen only on a single projection, it should be called a what until is three dimensionally confirmed

A

Asymmetry

122
Q

A stellate lesion is characterized by what

A

A radiating structure with ill defined borders consisting of spicules

123
Q

The Montgomery glands are large, sebaceous glands within the nipple, areola complex that opened the skin surface via protrusions on the skin known as what

A

Morgagni tubercles

124
Q

What act is suspensory ligaments of the breast?

A

Cooper’s ligaments

125
Q

Most breast cancer are identified as what

A

Addenosarcomas

126
Q

The ____, small glandular sacs at the terminal ducts, are the milk producing units to the breast

A

Acini

127
Q

The breast extends from which rib to approximately which rib in the midclavicular line

A

Second rib to sixth rib

128
Q

Approximately 2/3 of the upper breast overlies which muscle

A

Pectoralis major

129
Q

Each breath of the total of between how many lobes of glandular tissue?

A

15 to 20

130
Q

What transports milk from the terminal ductile lobular unit to the nipple

A

Ducts

131
Q

Approximately how many openings are found on the surface the nibble

A

15 to 20

132
Q

The chief arterial blood supplies the breast is from the perforating branches of which artery

A

Internal mammory artery

133
Q

What is adenopathy?

A

Swollen lymph nodes or glands

134
Q

What are the common sites of metastasis?

A

Brain, lung, liver & bone

135
Q

The most important factors involved in analyzing microcalcifications are formed, size and density (morphology) of the individual particles, as well as the number and ____ of the particles

A

Distribution

136
Q

Cystic enlargement within the breast that contains milk and usually occurs during lactation

A

Galactocele

137
Q

What is the defined as cancer cells confined to the duct and their site of origin?

A

Ductal carcinoma in situ

138
Q

Male breast cancer is primarily what

A

Invasive ductal carcinoma

139
Q

The most common characteristic symptom of a male with breast cancer is what

A

Painless, subareolar lump

140
Q

The radiologist will assign BI – RADS final assessment category what to an incomplete mammogram needing additional imaging and/or prior mammograms for comparison

A

Zero

141
Q

The opening in the duct, which transports breastmilk to the nipple is referred to as the what of the duct

A

Lumen

142
Q

A rare inflammatory malignant cancer of the nipple and are

A

Paget’s disease

143
Q

Women with several first-degree relatives, diagnosed with breast cancer should begin mammography, how many years prior to the youngest age of the relative at time of diagnosis

A

10 years

144
Q

What refers to carcinoma invading into and obstructing the lymphatics of the skin of the breast

A

Inflammatory breast cancer

145
Q

The main prognostic factors for breast cancer staging are based on what

A

Tumor size, lymph node, involvement, evidence of distant metastasis, grade, hormone receptors, proliferation index, and HER2/Neu receptors

146
Q

What kind of tumor is an example of a sarcoma that can occur in the breast

A

Phyllodes

147
Q

Benign lesions that mimic cancer mammography and histologically

A

Radial scars

148
Q

What are particularly useful for discussion of the optimal therapy for patients with a biopsy proven diagnosis of breast disease

A

Multidisciplinary tumor boards

149
Q

When a patient with a protruding abdomen presents for a mammogram, you will encounter difficulty positioning the breast over the image detector. One possible solution may be to ask your patient to _____.

A

stand slightly back from the digital detector then ask her to lean in with her hips back

150
Q

The development of the C-View, a 2-D synthesized image, in Digital Breast Tomosynthesis (DBT) resulted in the elimination of the 2D exposure, a reduction in exam time and ______.

A

a reduction in patient dose

151
Q

_____ is the most valuable adjunct imaging method to mammography.

A

Ultrasound (U/S)

152
Q

3D DBT images can be acquired in either a _____ or a step-and-shoot motion.

A

continuous

153
Q

_____ is the most valuable modality for investigating the integrity of breast implants.

A

Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)

153
Q

____ was/were developed for MR imaging of the breast for improved spatial resolution.

A

Dedicated surface coils

154
Q

Sentinel node mapping is performed following the injection of a radioactive tracer in order to locate the _____ for surgical biopsy and pathologic inspection.

A

first lymph node to drain lymphatic fluid from the cancer site

155
Q

_______ uses an iodinated intravenous contrast agent in combination with mammography, allowing the x-ray image to become enhanced to potentially detect hidden lesions or masses in the breast.

A

Contrast-enhanced spectral mammography (CESM)

156
Q

____ utilizes the principle of triangulation to determine the horizontal, vertical and depth of the lesion within the breast.

A

Stereotactic biopsy

156
Q

____ uses a thin needle and syringe to collect cell clumps or single cells from a breast lump.

A

Fine-Needle Aspiration Cytology (FNAC)

157
Q

When a patient with a nonpalpable lump is scheduled for an open surgical biopsy, a ____ must be performed before the surgeon is able to excise the area.

A

needle localization procedure

158
Q

Specimen radiography, utilizing a magnification technique, should always be done when a biopsy is performed for ____.

A

microcalcifications

159
Q

Prior to an interventional procedure, the benefits, limitations, and risks of the procedure, as well as alternative procedures should be discussed with the patient and _______ should be obtained and documented.

A

The informed consent form

160
Q

The FDA approved the use of ______ only as an adjunct to mammography.

A

breast thermography

160
Q

3D breast tomosynthesis virtually eliminates the challenges associated with _____, the greatest problem associated with 2D mammography.

A

overlapping structures within the breast

161
Q

The total angular range covered by the x-ray tube in 3-D tomosynthesis is known as the _____.

A

scan angle

162
Q

During 3-D breast tomosynthesis, the projection images are reconstructed into a data set of slices through the breast in planes _____.

A

parallel to the detector

163
Q

Routine annual screening on a patient with breast implants results in a series of at least _____ projections.

A

8

164
Q

Molecular breast imaging requires the injection of a radioactive isotope (tracer) followed by _____.

A

imaging with a gamma scanner

165
Q

Color Doppler Ultrasound is used to evaluate the _____ of a questionable lesion.

A

vascularity

166
Q

A ____ of the tissue sample will provide the pathologist with a visual measure of the size, number and distribution of the microcalcifications.

A

specimen radiograph

167
Q

Lymphatic mapping with sentinel lymph node (SLN) biopsy is performed on patients ____.

A

as an alternative to axillary lymph node dissection

168
Q

A basic rule in mammography on a male patient is that _____.

A

the nipple should always be projected in profile

169
Q

The ____ is/are necessary in order to triangulate a lesion.

A

CC and 90-degree lateral

170
Q

The ACR identifies _____ as the primary cause for the clinical failure of an image.

A

improper patient positioning

170
Q

Magnification mammography would NOT be recommended _____.

A

to better image implant patients for capsular contracture

171
Q

Mammographic screening routinely includes two views because it provides _____.

A

the best opportunity to visualize all breast tissue

172
Q

What is the optimal time for the performance of a diagnostic mammogram?

A

When a radiologist is onsite in order to evaluate the patient and request additional views

173
Q

As related to the breast’s natural mobility, how do we visualize the maximum amount of breast tissue on the Craniocaudal (CC) view?

A

Elevate the inframammary fold before compression is applied

174
Q

If the mammographer fails to elevate the inframammary fold on the Craniocaudal (CC) view and leaves the detector too low, the superior and _____ tissues will not be visualized.

A

posterior

175
Q

Approximately _____ of women are estimated to have a prominent axillary Tail of Spence making it necessary to include Exaggerated Craniocaudal Lateral views (XCCL) on the screening study.

A

10%

175
Q

The mammographer will use the “up and out maneuver” while _____.

A

supporting the anterior breast tissue for the Mediolateral Oblique (MLO) position

175
Q

The pectoralis muscle will be visualized on the properly positioned Craniocaudal (CC) view in _____ of our patients.

A

30% to 40%

176
Q

It is preferred that the Exaggerated Craniocaudal Lateral (XCCL) be performed with no tube angulation. Only when necessary, the maximum tube angulation allowable for this view is no more than _____.

A

5-degrees

177
Q

Which true lateral projection takes advantage of the mobile borders of the breast, allowing the pectoral muscle and lateral breast tissue to move medially along the rib cage toward the detector?

A

Lateromedial Lateral (LM)

178
Q

To identify the location of a lesion, the radiologist will request a 90-degree true lateral. If the lesion moves down on the lateral view or is located lower than it was on the MLO view, the lesion is located in the _____ aspect of the breast.

A

lateral

179
Q

The view that would best demonstrate whether an abnormality is medial or lateral to the nipple is the _____.

A

Craniocaudal (CC)

180
Q

When the radiologist suspects that calcifications seen on the mammogram are probably located in the skin, the _____ view will verify its skin location.

A

tangential (TAN)

181
Q

_____ identifies the Left breast examined in the CC projection with the superior breast tissue rolled laterally.

A

LCCRL

182
Q

The _____ requires that the X-Ray beam be directed from the lower-outer aspect of the breast to the upper-inner breast.

A

Lateromedial Oblique (LMO)

183
Q

Vigorous compression over the area of a breast implant could cause _____ and is NEVER advised.

A

an implant to rupture

184
Q

To create uniform density and contrast throughout the examination on an implant patient, _____ should be used.

A

a combination of manual and automatic exposure techniques

185
Q

A/An _____ compression paddle is needed for the localization of dermal calcifications.

A

alpha-numeric localizing biopsy (fenestrated or windowed)

186
Q

The _____view can be used to better define a lesion obscured by dense fibroglandular tissue on the standard views.

A

Tangential (TAN)

187
Q

The _____ technique is used to better define the margins of a mass because it is less obscured by superimposed tissue and the area of interest is brought closer to the detector.

A

spot compression

188
Q

The distance _____ is NOT measured when locating a lesion for a Spot Compression view.

A

from the nipple to the pectoralis muscle

189
Q

One of the major reasons why ultrasound screening cannot replace mammography for the detection of early breast cancer is because ______.

A

mammography is currently the only method capable of depicting malignant calcifications without an associated mass

190
Q

Motion is a common problem on magnification views because _____.

A

the smaller focal spot results in a longer exposure time

191
Q

The _____ view is used to separate overlapping structures that are superimposed on the standard views.

A

Roll

192
Q

An additional _____ view can eliminate the radiologist’s concern regarding benign Milk of calcium calcifications.

A

90-degree lateral (ML or LM)

192
Q

With the biopsy needle properly advanced to the area of interest, two stereo images, called _______ are taken to verify the proper positioning of the tip of the needle in the area of the lesion.

A

Pre-fire images

193
Q

When severe capsular contracture prohibits the mammographer from performing Implant-Displaced (ID) views, a _____ should be added to the CC and MLO routine views.

A

90-degree lateral (ML or LM)

194
Q

The mammographer will experience difficulty visualizing _____ breast tissue in the Craniocaudal (CC) projection when examining a patient with Pectus Excavatum.

A

medial

194
Q

Large-breasted patients who do not fit on the standard image detector are examined using the ____ positioning technique.

A

mosaic / tiling

195
Q

______ is a result of radiation therapy following lumpectomy. Identify the finding that is INCORRECT.

A

Pectus excavatum

196
Q

A _____ mammogram is performed on asymptomatic patients at regular intervals.

A

screening

197
Q

The intravenous contrast material most commonly used for an MRI exam contains a metal called _____.

A

gadolinium

198
Q

On a properly positioned CC view, the nipple should point _____ to the midline of the detector.

A

straight back

199
Q

The _____ measurement on the CC must be within 1 cm of the PNL measurement on the MLO to verify that the maximum amount of breast tissue has been captured on both views.

A

Posterior Nipple Line (PNL)

200
Q

When imaging the full breast on a patient with breast implants, minimal compression is used in order to _____.

A

immobilize the breast

201
Q

Correct positioning of the CC view always requires the inclusion of _____ breast tissue since it is NOT visualized on the MLO view.

A

medial

202
Q
A
203
Q
A
204
Q

When positioning for the CC view, it is recommended that the technologist use two hands to elevate and pull the breast anteriorly onto the detector in order to visualize the _____ breast tissue.

A

inferior and posterior

204
Q

On the MLO view, the patient leans in toward the unit for maximum tissue visualization with the detector positioned at an angle parallel to the _____.

A

pectoralis muscle

205
Q

When positioning for the CC view, the shoulder on the side being examined is relaxed and lowered to relax the pectoralis muscle and include the breast tissue in the _____.

A

upper outer quadrant

206
Q

On a properly positioned mediolateral oblique (MLO) view, the pectoralis muscle should be depicted obliquely down to the level of the _____ or lower. The shape of the muscle should bulge outward in a _____ curve as a sign that the muscle is relaxed. The nipple should be depicted in profile and a small amount of abdominal tissue should be visible as a sign that all _____ breast tissue is included.

A

nipple / convex / inferior

206
Q

During routine screening mammography, the mediolateral oblique (MLO) view is preferred over a lateral 90-degree (ML) projection because more of the breast tissue can be imaged in the _____.

A

upper outer quadrant and the axilla

207
Q

Fine-Needle Aspiration Cytology (FNAC) uses a fine gauge needle of _____ compared to stereotactic core biopsy, which uses a needle of _____.

A

22 or 25 gauge / 11 or 14 gauge

208
Q

By properly supporting the anterior aspect of the breast during MLO positioning, the technologist can avoid the drooping _____ appearance.

A

camel’s nose

209
Q

The preferred route for the needle during a needle localization procedure is _____.

A

the shortest distance from the skin to the lesion

209
Q

If the radiologist places a tissue marker at the biopsy site, a post-procedure mammogram is performed using two orthogonal views, _____, to document the placement of the marker.

A

CC and 90-degree lateral

210
Q

Your patient presents with a palpable lump. The diagnostic mammogram does not visualize any abnormality in the area. The radiologist’s next step is to _____.

A

order a targeted breast ultrasound exam

211
Q

The craniocaudal (CC) view demonstrates a density in the extreme posterior-medial aspect of the breast. The radiologist suspects it is the demonstration of the sternalis muscle. You are asked to perform a _____ view for verification.

A

cleavage

212
Q

The craniocaudal (CC) view demonstrates a linear density on the lateral side of the breast. This line represents a _____.

A

skin fold

213
Q

A common problem when positioning a patient with very small breasts is the mammographer’s hand will get caught under the compression paddle as she holds the patient’s breast in place. Which of the following suggestions listed below would NOT be helpful in performing this task?

A

Ask the patient to hold her breast tissue in place

214
Q

When a lactating patient presents with a clinical finding, ultrasound and mammography may be requested. As part of an infection control protocol, the mammographer should _____.

A

wear gloves

215
Q

When performing a stereotactic core-needle biopsy, the term “stroke margin” refers to the distance from the _____.

A

tip of the probe in the fired position to the breast support / image receptor

216
Q

When a patient in her mid-twenties presents with a palpable lump in her breast, the initial method of evaluation is ________.

A

Ultrasound US

216
Q

Current cancer related indication for breast MRI is _______________.

A

Lesion characterization of proven or suspected cancer and delineation of extent of disease, including multifocality (within the same quadrant), multicentricity (cancer in other quadrants), and evaluation of the contralateral breast.

217
Q

__________ have almost totally replaced surgical excision for biopsy of lesion from the breast.

A

Percutaneous image guided breast biopsy

218
Q

Excising the tumor and getting appropriate margins around the cancer while preserving cosmetic integrity are the primary goals for the surgeon. A _________ microscopic margin is a free margin.

A

2 to 3 mm

219
Q

Regardless of the surgical treatment chosen for the breast, axillary sampling of the _________ axilla should be performed.

A

Ipsilateral

220
Q

__________ therapy (adjuvant) after lumpectomy should be considered standard of care for invasive and many non-invasive breast diseases.

A

Radiation

220
Q

The common side effects of hormonal therapy when taken for the treatment of breast cancer are _____.

A

Vaginal dryness, hot flashes, night sweats, sexual disfunction

221
Q

Approximately _______ percent of women are candidates for hormonal therapy and are advised to take it to prevent breast cancer recurrence.

A

50

Mammo Boards (2 decks)

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