Flash Cards

1
Q

When a company operates in a way to hold itself socially accountable it is engaging in what practice?

A

Corporate Social Responsibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Define “inclusion”

A

An environment where everyone has access to the same opportunity and it is treated equally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A conflict style in which both parties give and receive factors in a series of trades in order to reach a mid-point, or temporary solution, is what?

A

Compromising

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

ERISA requires reporting and disclosure of pension and profit sharing plans and welfare plans such as those dealing with what 5 area?

A
  1. Group life
  2. Group accident
  3. Hospitalization
  4. Medical and surgical
  5. Dental care
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

______ is a group-oriented incentive pay plan that links pay directly to specific operational and productivity improvements in the company’s profitability performance.

A

Gainsharing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The practice of union members seeking work at unorganized workplaces in order to organize them is referred to as _____

A

Salting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

In order to prevail in a charge of discrimination based upon selecting the participants for a training program, an organization must:

A

Ensure the selection of trainees is well documented and does not result in an adverse impact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Name the five major examples of gross misconduct in the workplace

A
  1. Wanton disregard for the safety of others
  2. Deliberate acts of violence or hostility
  3. Attempts to financially defraud the company
  4. Significant levels of insubordination
  5. Dishonesty or other forms of misrepresentation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

An individual appointed to impartially investigate internal complaints, report findings, and facilitate equitable settlements is a(n):

A

Ombudsman

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Define the “right to work” concept

A

Prohibits agreements requiring membership in a labor organization as a condition of employment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When leaders are compelled to hold a performance management discussion with under-performing employees, what are the essential communication requirements for the leader?

A

Be clear, factual, and concise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

An unlawful boycott in which workers pressure an employer that is not directly involved in a dispute is called a _______ boycott

A

Secondary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which model, involving 8 steps, lists a variety of factors to aid in successful change in the organization?

A

Kotter’s 8-step change model

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Unions, work councils, and employee collectives are all examples of what?

A

Organized labor groups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the term for benefit plans that allow employees to choose their own mix or benefits and levels or coverage?

A

Flexible benefit plans/cafeteria plans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which job evaluation system measures a jobs worth based on how the job is valued by the broader marketplace if employers as reflected by the prevailing compensation rates for the particular job?

A

Market based

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Group incentive plans encompass what 4 areas?

A
  1. Gainsharing
  2. Team incentives
  3. Cash profit sharing plans
  4. Combination plans
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What term is used to describe when employees are compensated similarly to perform different jobs that require similar skill, effort, and responsibility under similar working conditions?

A

Comparable worth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

FLSA is the broadest piece of labor legislation. Name the 5 major areas it covers.

A
  1. Exempt status
  2. Child labor
  3. Minimum wage
  4. Overtime pay
  5. Record keeping
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What term describes compensation for the sake of products or services, usually calculated as a percentage of sale?

A

Commission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

An employee works for my organization who moonlights in a landscaping business that he owns. We have retained him and his business in the weekends to cut and maintain our yard. We have issued him a 1099 contact in the past for this work as we considered him an independent contractor. Is this permissible?

A

No. Wage and hour will not accept him as an independent contractor. He must be paid for his hours worked and overtime must be calculated if he exceeds 40 hours in total between the two positions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

______ is an employee benefit administered through a joint federal-state program designed to provide qualifying workers with financial security while they are temporarily unemployed

A

Unemployment insurance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

An employer should carefully review training facilities and materials for necessary accommodations in order to avoid liability concerning what act?

A

Americans with disability act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

ABC, inc. does not spend a lot of time monitoring its employees meal periods so it automatically deducts 30 minutes pay on a daily basis. Is this permissible?

A

No. If employees are found to be “eating on the go” or not taking the full 30 minutes as a break period, there could be substantial liabilities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Name the 4 stages of the classic “business cycle”

A
  1. Trough and introduction
  2. Expansion and growth
  3. Peak and maturity
  4. Recession and decline
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the best approach for settling the claims when two employment agencies are claiming the fee for referring a candidate when the candidate is recruited and hired ?

A

Examine the referral documents as to dates referred and pay the fee to the agency who’s referral was received first

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Layoffs, reduction in force (RIF’s), and downsizing are terms for employment terminations due to _______ rather than ______ factors

A

Economic, performance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

For virtual jobs performed by individuals working on cross-functional teams that change frequently or shift from project to project, a job analysis must focus on the:

A

Competencies required and how they are assessed and maintained

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What discriminatory act is intentional- disparate treatment or disparate impact?

A

Disparate Treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Underutilezization is having fewer minorities or women in a job classification than would be expected based on:

A

Their availability in the “relevant job market”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the best predictor of future performance?

A

Past performance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

An advancement system that offers a technical employee the choice between “management” or “advance technical work”?

A

Dual career ladder/path

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Under ADA, can an employer be reworked to reallocate an essential function of a job to another employee as a reasonable accommodation?

A

No, that is not a reasonable accommodation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

A full time work schedule that is completed in less than five days is best known as:

A

Compressed workweek

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Define “constructive discharge”

A

When an employee resigns due to intolerable working conditions imposed by a supervisor or coworker.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which landmark case established rules in pre-employment testing that selection testing must be job related?

A

Griggs v Duke Power Co.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

______ organize information gathered through the job analysis and allow a meaningful comparison of jobs for evaluation and pricing

A

Job specifications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What act requires employers with group health plans to offer continued coverage to employees and their dependents under certain circumstances where coverage would otherwise end?

A

Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Per federal law, which employee must use e-verify?

A

All federal contractors and vendors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What act prohibits most private sector employers from requiring or requesting employees or job applicant to take any lie detector test or from using the results of such a test, even if an outside agency screens employees or applicants?

A

Employee Polygraph Protection Act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the term for the process of evaluating the medical appropriateness of health care services with the purpose of ensuring that patients receive cost effective, high quality, health care?

A

Utilization Review (UR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What term describes when a company projects where the market will be at the end of the structure plan year and matched those rates at the start of the plan year?

A

Lead policy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

A job with duties that can be clearly identified, defined, and compared to other jobs in the marketplace are called __________ job.

A

Benchmark

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Which act requires the employers provide employees with specific information concerning benefit plans?

A

Employee retirement income security act (ERISA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the term that refers to pay rates that are above the maximum of the pay range?

A

Red circle rates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

The portion of earnings left after deductions require by law are called _______

A

Disposable earnings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What provides employees with financial protection in the event of a disabling workplace injury or illness and protects employers from potentially costly damage suits?

A

Workers’ compensation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Which 2 acts are designed to protect the employee from unlawful or unauthorized deductions?

A

Copeland Act and Anti-kickback Law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What term describes when a company establishes a structure that matches the market rates at the beginning of the plan year?

A

Lag policy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Which act requires the payment of minimum prevailing wages for the locale in which the workers are employed in a federally sponsored public workers?

A

Davis-Bacon Act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

In what pay structure does each job have a single rate of pay?

A

Fixed rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What term describes when a company projects where the market rates will be at the middle of the plan year and matched those rates at the start of the plan year?

A

Lead/lag policy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Which act requires employers with at least 50 employees to provide up to 12 work weeks of unpaid leave for certain events in a 12 month period?

A

Family Medical Leave Act (FMLA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Define “content validity”

A

The factors used in a performance appraisal process are content valid if they are both representative of the job and relevant to the job. Example: a typing test for a typist position.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Early withdrawal from an IRA is subject to what percentage of tax?

A

10%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Which job evaluation system appraises the whole job by comparing each job title to one another?

A

Ranking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

A percent increase in base salary paid for an individuals outstanding performance is called ________

A

Merit Pay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Employees required to remain on or so close to the employers premises that they cannot use this time effectively for their own purposes are not considered to be working while on call. True or false.

A

False. This is called “engage to wait”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

A selection test that measures certain characteristics, traits or behaviors that are important to successful job performance, when on the job, is known as _____ validity.

A

Construct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

This prevents plan participants with coverage under two or more plans from being able to collect duplicate benefits payments

A

Coordination of Benefits (COB)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Define “differential pay”

A

Adjustments to base pay made to address factors that create pay inequalities (i.e. less desirable shifts, performing unpleasant work, or arduous work)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Explain the “prudent person rule” as it applies to ERISA and the incumbent fiduciary responsibilities

A

The employer has a legal and financial responsibility to not misuse retirement funds, as they must be protected for the exclusive benefit of the participants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What are raises that are given to match the inflation rate to maintain a level of purchasing power?

A

Cost of living adjustment (COLA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Which act discusses payment for time preparing to work, but not yet actually working?

A

Portal to portal act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Define “total compensation system”

A

It refers to all forms of financial rewards, both direct and indirect, that employees receive from their employers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is it called when an apparently neutral compensation practice results in unintentional wage discrimination for a protected group?

A

Disparate impact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Under COBRA, former employees can continue their insurance coverage should they terminate their employment. There is one exception that allows employers to terminate coverage. Name this exception.

A

Gross misconduct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

If an employee is off on a paid holiday, such as Memorial Day, must the holiday hours be counted in calculating hours for overtime?

A

No. Only hours actually work must be counted.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Psychology and intellectual rewards inherent in the job itself, such as the opportunity to perform meaningful work or gain a sense of accomplishment are called what kind of rewards?

A

Intrinsic rewards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

The entity administers ERISA’s termination insurance provisions and protects against a loss of retirement benefits when a defined benefit pension plan terminated with inadequate or no funding.

A

Pension benefit guaranty corporation (PBGC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Define “predictive validity” for the performance appraisal process

A

A performance appraisal process has predicative validity if a positive statistical correlation exists between an employees performance appraisals and the employee performance in later jobs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What approach is one in which employees in the skilled trades, as well as research, and development, progress through the salary ranges by acquiring new skills and knowledge, usually on the job?

A

Technical skills ladder (similar to a career ladder)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

An employee is hospitalized after a serious work-related accident, what must the employer do within 24 hours?

A

Notify OSHA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What limits does the Norris-LaGuardia Act impose on US courts?

A

Substantially limits the jurisdiction and authority of the courts to issue restraining orders and injunctions in cases involving labor disputes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

After an employee is seriously injured in the job, what should the employer do next?

A

Conduct an accident investigation to determine causes and possible preventions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Describe the details of the “Gissel Doctrine” court decision

A

The court gave approval for authorization cards as a substitute for an election when employers actions amounted to unfair labor practices.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Define “arbitration”

A

A process in which the parties involved agree to submit an unresolved dispute to a neutral third party, who’s decision is final and binding.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

A non-resident alien who is paid by a U.S. based company, but works in a foreign country other than his or her home country is known as _______

A

Third country national

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Increasing the amount of an employees job duties is known as:

A

Job enlargement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What is the purpose of an org chart?

A

Visually defined employees roles, functions, reporting relationships, and who had the decision-making responsibility.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

When employees know they are being studied therefore perform differently, it is known as the _________

A

Hawthorne effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

One leadership theory is the “path-goal view,” which recognizes what 4 kinds of leadership behavior?

A
  1. Directive leadership
  2. Supportive leadership
  3. Participative leadership
  4. Achievement-oriented leadership
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Define “job enrichment”

A

Adding tasks to a job to increase the jobs complexity, challenge, and responsibility.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What is the most important take for the HR department during a reorganization?

A

To provide information, updates, and answers to employees?

85
Q

Comparing internal measures of productivity performance to similarly measures in other organizations is known as __________

A

Benchmarking

86
Q

A form of organizational structure in which there are clearly defined corporate level s with rigid top-down control

A

Hierarchical or pyramid

87
Q

In forecasting demand for employees, the most difficult problem is:

A

Aligning the need for personnel with the business plan

88
Q

Employers commonly implement what rule as a holiday control practices?

A

Require employees to work the day before and after a holiday to be eligible for holiday pay

89
Q

What is required if the goal of top management is to create alignment and purpose between the disparate disciplines within an organization?

A

Clearly communicated corporate goals

90
Q

Per McGregor’s model, theory X managers view people as lazy, not very bright, and irresponsible. theory Y managers view people as _________

A

Basically bright, responsible, motivated, and wanting control over their work and lives.

91
Q

Innovation cultures are most prized by organizations that compete in markets defined by:

A

Rapid change and advancement

92
Q

There are two major leader behaviors. One focuses on people and interpersonal relationships. What is the focus of the other?

A

Task accomplishment.

93
Q

Define “attrition”

A

Reducing the workforce of an organization by simply not replacing those employees who retire or quit

94
Q

What is the essential requirement for the HR manager to obtain to ensure success of any new project?

A

Top management support

95
Q

What is the most common mistake associated with the use of employee attitude surveys?

A

Survey results are not responded on by management

96
Q

When selecting instructional methods, what 3 points should be kept in mind?

A
  1. Who is the audience?
  2. What do they need to learn?
  3. How are we going to deliver the information?
97
Q

When training sessions are held before or after regular work hours, trainees should receive overtime pay unless what 3 conditions apply?

A
  1. Training is voluntary - employees do not have to attend to keep their jobs.
  2. No productive work is involved.
  3. Training will teach employee a new, different, or additional skill, but is not designed to make them more efficient at their present job
98
Q

Time spent in training courses within regular workday is considered time worker. True or false?

A

True

99
Q

The greatest cost factor for employee training is __________

A

Trainee hours lost from production

100
Q

Which performance measure is most commonly used to determine the efficiency of training resources?

A

Return on investment

101
Q

What provision requires virtually all employers to provide employees with a workplace free from recognized hazards?

A

The general Duty Clause of Occupational Safety and Health (OSH) Act of 1970

102
Q

Define “teratogens”

A

Chemical, physical, and biological agents that cause infertility, impotence, spontaneous abortion, low birth weight, congenital mental retardation, and other genetic diseases

103
Q

What are the 4 requirements of the hazard communication standard?

A
  1. Written program
  2. Label all hazardous chemicals
  3. Safety data sheets (SDS)
  4. Training for all workers
104
Q

Define “boulwarism”

A

Collective bargaining approach in which management presents its entire proposal as its final offer, holding nothing back for legal negation. This is illegal and is not good faith bargaining.

105
Q

Before setting up a security program or making changes in an existing one, the safety manager should perform a thorough _________

A

Security audit to determine the program needs

106
Q

Which act is a comprehensive federal law granting employees of private employers board rights to form or join unions and to engage in collective activity?

A

National labor relations act (also called the Wagner act)

107
Q

What must a union win in order to prevail during a representation election?

A

A simple majority of the votes cast in the elections (50%+1)

108
Q

A handy acronym for prohibited activity of supervisors involved in coercing employees with regard to union activities is TIPS. What does TIPS stand for?

A

Threats, interrogations, promises, surveillance

109
Q

A non-binding dispute resolution technique in which parties discuss their disputes with a trained, impartial outsider who assist them in attempting to reach a mutually acceptable agreement is called:

A

Mediation

110
Q

Define “union shop”

A

Requires employees to become union members (maybe be unlawful in right to work states)

111
Q

The process of removing a Union as the certified representative of employees within a bargaining unit is called________

A

Decertification

112
Q

What percentage of bargaining unit employees have to sign authorization cards so that a petition for a representation election can be filed with the NLRB?

A

30%

113
Q

Define “agency shop”

A

Requires bargaining unit members to pay the equivalent of union dues and fees to the union, but does not require actual union membership

114
Q

While neither party is required to make concessions, this mandate requires both the union and employer to negotiate on matters within the scope of representation

A

Bargaining in good faith

115
Q

Under the OSHA blood borne pathogens standard, employers must:

A
  1. Establish a written exposure control plan
  2. Provide training to affected employees
  3. Make clean-up kits available
  4. Provide hepatitis-B vaccines
116
Q

What is the name of the institution that researches hazards, conducts employer training, and recommends standards?

A

National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH)

117
Q

A Supreme Court case in which the court ruled that the employer-created “actions committees” comprised of both employees and managers that met to discuss working conditions, and were a violation of the NLRA is known as:

A

Electromation

118
Q

This is a method of satisfying legal arguments without going to court

A

Alternative dispute resolution

119
Q

Basic steps in dealing with the issue of violence in the workplace is for an HR manager to establish:

A

A selection system that screens out potentially violent applicants, coupled with a zero-tolerance policy

120
Q

How long must employees medical records be kept?

A

For the duration of the employees tenure with the company plus 30 years

121
Q

________ is a field of study that evaluates and designs workplaces, environments, jobs, tasks, equipment, and processes in relation to human capabilities and interactions

A

Ergonomics

122
Q

A ________ is a formal document that describes the essential functions of a particular job.

A

Job description

123
Q

Which act created a “bill of rights” for union members to combat wrongdoing and to limit control of union leadership?

A

Labor management reporting/disclosure act (also know as the landrum-griffin act)

124
Q

Which act requires employers with 100 or more employees to give 60 days notice of a plant closing or large-scale layoff?

A

Worker Adjustment and retraining notification (WARN) Act

125
Q

A development methodology that gradually builds new duties or more challenging responsibilities into an employees current position. It’s allows employees to require new skills while on the job and typically results in heightened job satisfaction.

A

Job enrichment

126
Q

To improve the participation rates of a professional development program, what is required?

A

Top management support

127
Q

The purpose of internal training is to create a motivated, skilled, and effective workforce to:

A

Achieve the organization’s goals

128
Q

Define “unfair labor practice (ULP)”

A

When employers or unions violate employees or each other LMRA-protected rights

129
Q

_________, along with job descriptions, record the skills required for each job and how well employees are doing currently

A

Performance evaluations

130
Q

Define “cross training”

A

A practice wherein employees are trained on jobs other than the one they normally perform so they can step into that role if required

131
Q

To increase employee satisfaction with the organizations proposed new safety program, what actions should the employer take?

A

Involve the workers in creating the plan

132
Q

What limits the weekly amount that may be withheld from an employees wages that are different from tax levies than they are for other types of garnishments?

A

Internal revenue code

133
Q

Define “job posting”

A

Listing of open jobs, with requirements, salary range, grade, and description of major activity that are places on a bulletin board for qualified applicants to see the availability of the position

134
Q

Name the two job evaluations systems that break down into “compensable components”?

A
  1. Factor comparison
  2. Point factor
135
Q

The model of that plots leadership style against the three dimensions of task behavior, relationship behavior, and task maturity is known as?

A

Hersey-Blanchard model of situational leadership

136
Q

Define “spot awards”

A

Performance-based programs that are discretionary in nature wherein payments are usually made after the fact

137
Q

Define “bandwidth time”

A

The daily range of hours during which managers allow flex scheduling (including core period). It defines the earliest time employees may arrive and the latest they may leave.

138
Q

What is HR’s most important task during the roll-out if a new health insurance benefits plan?

A

Communication of information

139
Q

What is a non-qualified deferred compensation arrangement under which an employer places funds in a trust, for an executive, that remains under the employers control.

A

Rabbi Trust

140
Q

What is the final step in the disciplinary process?

A

Termination

141
Q

What is the most important consideration when designed an organization-wide training and development initiative?

A

That it supports the strategic plan

142
Q

The goal of orientation training is:

A

To quickly align new hires with the ongoing business plan

143
Q

The term for “forecasting managerial and executive vacancies and developing or identifying potential promotional candidate”

A

Succession planning

144
Q

What is it called when a rater gives an excellent employee top ratings in all areas or gives an unsatisfactory employees low ratings in all areas?

A

Halo/horn effect

145
Q

Another term for your in-house technical gurus who were chosen to act as trainers because of their skill in the domain

A

Subject matter experts (SME’s)

146
Q

All employees with _______ or more employees must file an annual EEO-1 with the EEOC

A

100

147
Q

If an HR manager has posters of scantily clothes females removed from the shop floor, he is doing so based upon what the what theory of sexual harassment?

A

Hostile environment

148
Q

A trainer will utilize the _____ to ensure the a job-training program is valid

A

Job analysis

149
Q

When labor grievance goes to final and binding arbitration, the arbitrators base their decisions on:

A

Their interpretation of the language of the labor agreement and the information presented by both parties

150
Q

What is the name of the program that rewards individuals whose skill, abilities, performance, or contributions have enhanced an organizations productivity or profitability?

A

Key Contributor Program

151
Q

Training department overhead is an example of a(n) ________ cost

A

Indirect

152
Q

These programs establish on-the-job relationship with an experienced employees and a less experienced individual in the same career track

A

Mentoring

153
Q

Organizational sales training programs are most focused on what subject?

A

Product knowledge

154
Q

An applicant is hired that does not list being fired for misconduct by a previous employer. The truth is discovered one lord later, how can this situation be handled?

A

The employee may be terminated or disciplined for falsification of the application.

155
Q

Centralization is one of the most common errors found in using ________ in performance appraisal systems.

A

Graphic rating scales

156
Q

Define “vestibule training”

A

A training course or class that stimulates or mimics the actual job function with actual production equipment.

157
Q

What is the best way to gain support for the anticipated opposition to shift in a company culture?

A

Involve worker representatives at the outset.

158
Q

What should orientation programs do in order to reduce information overload?

A
  1. Be modularized and spread out over a period of time.
  2. Have measurable objectives that focus on developing specific KSA’s
159
Q

The heavy use of employee referrals for filling job vacancies could violate nondiscrimination laws. How?

A

It may perpetuate a status quo of underrepresented classes of workers

160
Q

Weighted applications form are most appropriate for?

A

Multiple incumbent positions

161
Q

Which positions are most ideal for telecommuting option?

A

Those with well-define and measurable tasks

162
Q

Title VII of the civil rights act of 1964 prohibits discrimination on the basis of what 5 categories?

A
  1. Race
  2. Color
  3. Religion
  4. Sex
  5. National origin m
163
Q

Using an aptitude test in a selection program best predicts:

A

Training potential

164
Q

Define “employee engagement”

A

Employee engagement is the extent to which employees feel passionate about their jobs, are committed to the organization, and put discretionary effort into their work.

165
Q

An on-the-job union representative who carries out the responsibilities of the union, in the plant, at the department level is known as a(n):

A

Shop steward

166
Q

Which appraisal method is widely accepted as a motivating system that appeals to an employees “ownership” of his or her job?

A

Management by objectives

167
Q

Name the 3 ways to determine the level of learning in that occurred in a class

A
  1. Post-test
  2. Pre-test/post-test
  3. Pre-test/post-test with a control group
168
Q

What is the training technique that allows trainees to learn at their own place? Topics are broken into discrete units and it is usually self-instructed

A

Programmed instructions

169
Q

What is the common term for requiring students to participate in a process that may involve:
1. Deciding which material gets first attention
2. Assigning tasks to subordinates
3. Dictating responses to letters in a role-play environment

A

In-basket exercise

170
Q

Name the 4 ways that a training course is evaluated for effectiveness, per Kirkpatrick’s model

A
  1. Reaction
  2. Learning
  3. Behavior
  4. Results
171
Q

Define transfer of training (AKA:transfer of learning)

A

The degree to which a trainee successfully applies the job skills learned in the classroom to the actual work place

172
Q

What is the most appropriate method when training supervisors to handle discipline and discharge incidents?

A

Role-play

173
Q

The methodology whereby employees have planned several routes into a job and several opportunities for advancement

A

Career pathing

174
Q

Rewards that derive from sources external to the job itself are called?

A

Extrinsic rewards

175
Q

The social security act provides 4 types of benefits to workers. Name these 4 types.

A
  1. Retirement income
  2. Disability
  3. Survivor’s benefits
  4. Hospital/medical insurance (Medicare)
176
Q

Name the 3 events that will end COBRA coverage

A
  1. The qualifying time period has been elapsed
  2. The former employee becomes eligible for insurance coverage under another plan
  3. The employee fails to pay the costs of coverage
177
Q

Only one group of nonexempt employees are allowed to receive “compensatory time off.” Name this group and give one example of a profession/occupation covered by this law

A

Public sector employees - police, fire fighters, emergency workers, etc.

178
Q

What is the term that involves ordering jobs from highest to lowest based on some definition of value or contribution to the organization?

A

Job ranking, which is a form of job evaluation.

179
Q

Under ERISA, an annual report form must be filed with the IRS and be made available for participants in the employee benefit plan to inspect. Name this form.

A

Form 5500

180
Q

What theory emphasizes the need for organizations to relate rewards directly to performance and to ensure that the rewards provided are deserved and wanted by the recipients?

A

Expectancy theory

181
Q

When significant aspects of performance are not measured by the performance appraisal form, this is called:

A

Criterion deficiency

182
Q

How many years does FLSA require that basic record-keeping (name, address, sex, date of birth, occupation, pay, and hours worked) be kept?

A

3 years

183
Q

A Union employee is asked to the office about violating a work rule. The employee requests the presence of a union representative. What response should the manager give?

A

The manager should approve the request

184
Q

Conduction background checks is the best defense from what kind of charge?

A

Negligent hiring

185
Q

As part of the selection process, a medical examination should be ________

A

Scheduled after an employment offer has been extended, per ADA

186
Q

A workforce staffing program that lacks consistent results, is underfunded, and results in high turnover among new hire most likely lacks:

A

Top management support

187
Q

These are proactive policies aimed at increasing the employment opportunities of certain groups (typically, minority men and/or women of all racial groups)

A

AAP

188
Q

What is the first step when a red circle rate employee has been identified?

A

Perform a job evaluating to determine if the employee is classified correctly or needs to have an adjustment in title, position, or duties

189
Q

A line of interviewing questions that follow no particular pattern is a ______

A

Non-directive interviewing technique

190
Q

An exception to ADEA that allows establishment of a mandatory retirement age is applied to what group only?

A

Highly paid executives

191
Q

What is the principle for reason employers use application forms?

A

A systemic way to compare candidates

192
Q

What is the least serious OSHA violation?

A

De minimis

193
Q

Skill tests are more accurate in predicting failures than successes. Why?

A

They assess ability rather than effort

194
Q

Define “job rotation”

A

Exposing employees to new challenges by places them, for short durations, into different jobs.

195
Q

Name the 3 most well known traditional gainsharing plans

A
  1. Scanlon plan
  2. Rucker plan
  3. Improshare
196
Q

Define “reward theory”

A

The concept that employees will repeat behaviors that are reinforced through rewards.

197
Q

_______ intelligence is the ability of the individual to understand the emotions that their peer, supervisors, and subordinates have in order to navigate them appropriately.

A

Emotional

198
Q

What act is the principal federal law governing wage garnishments?

A

Consumer credit protection act

199
Q

The age discrimination in employment act (ADEA) prohibits arbitrary age discrimination against employees or applicants age _______ and older

A

40

200
Q

In this conflict style both parties pool their goals in order to achieve all of them. This is also known as a “win-win” style

A

Collaborating

201
Q

What type of employee program provides access to health, education seminars, smoking cessation programs, nutrition and weight loss program, etc?

A

Employee wellness program

202
Q

Define “implied contract”

A

Communication stating that the employer will follow certain discharge procedures or will terminate employees only for good cause.

203
Q

Name the two methods that an employee becomes vested in an ERISA qualified pension program

A

Cliff vesting: serving a set number of continues years of employment
Graded vesting: incremental vesting over time

204
Q

The process of being reintegrated back into domestic operations after being on an international assignment outside of one’s home country is known as _______

A

Repatriation

205
Q

Define “organizational development”

A

A systems approached based on valid information to help organizations and teams to manage change

206
Q

If an employer withdraws an offer after pre-employment physical, they must be prepared to demonstrate two important facts. What are they?

A
  1. The reason for withdrawing the offer is job-related, consistent with business necessity, or essential to avoid a direct threat to health safety.
  2. No reasonable accommodation would allow the person to perform the job, or making the necessary accommodations would cause the employer undue hardship.
207
Q

The best defense an employer has in a defamation of character law suit arising from providing reference information is:

A

That the information given was the truth

208
Q

Drug tests make be given at the pre-offer stage. True or false?

A

True, while most drug tests are given at the post-offer state, cost prohibitions, no legal restraints, cause most employee to wait to give drug test at the post offer stage