First practice exam - multiple choice Flashcards

1
Q

At the suprascapular notch, the suprascapular artery passes directly [blank] to the transverse scapular ligament

A

superior

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2
Q

The posterior longitudinal ligament is positioned [blank] to the spinal cord

A

anterior

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3
Q

As the femoral artery (external iliac) exits the pelvis, it is positioned [blank] to the inguinal ligament and [blank] to the iliopsoas muscle.

A

posterior; anterior

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4
Q

The inferior gluteal nerve exits the greater sciatic nerve directly [blank] to the performs muscle.

A

inferior

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5
Q

Within the popliteal fossa, the popliteal artery is positioned directly [blank] to the popliteus muscle.

A

posterior

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6
Q

The tendon of the peroneus longs muscle passes [blank] to the lateral malleolus prior to attaching in part to the lateral aspect of the base of the 1st metatarsal.

A

posterior-inferior

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7
Q

The subclavian artery and vein pass [blank] to the clavicle.

A

posterior-inferior

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8
Q

The radial nerve passes directly [blank] to the lateral epicondyle of the humerus.

A

anterior

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9
Q

The axillary artery and cords of the brachial plexus pass directly [blank] to the pectoralis minor muscle.

A

posterior

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10
Q

The radial nerve and profunda branchii artery pass directly [blank] to the shaft of the humerus.

A

posterior

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11
Q

The long thoracic nerve is positioned directly [blank] to the serratus anterior muscle.

A

lateral

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12
Q

The ulnar nerve and superior ulnar collateral (or posterior ulnar recurrent) artery pass directly __________ to the medial epicondyle of the humerus.

A

posterior

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13
Q

Near the wrist, the radial artery is positioned directly __________ to the tendon of the flexor carpi radialis muscle.

A

lateral

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14
Q

The ulnar artery and nerve pass directly __________ to the transverse carpal ligament.

A

superficial

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15
Q

The radial artery passes directly __________ to the trapezium and base of the first metacarpal.

A

posterior

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16
Q

The tendon of the extensor pollicis longus muscle passes directly __________ to the dorsal tubercle of the radius.

A

medial

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17
Q

The obturator externus muscle passes directly __________ to the neck of the femur.

A

posterior

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18
Q

During its posterior course, the medial circumflex femoral artery passes directly __________ to the pectineus muscle.

A

lateral

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19
Q

Immediately inferior to the inguinal ligament, the femoral nerve is positioned directly __________ to the femoral artery.

A

lateral

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20
Q

The median nerve and tendons of the FDS and FDP muscles all pass directly __________ to the transverse carpal ligament.

A

deep

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21
Q

As they exit the greater sciatic foramen, the superior gluteal nerve, artery and vein are positioned __________ to the piriformis muscle.

22
Q

The obturator internus tendon passes directly __________ to the neck of the femur.

23
Q

The tendon of the flexor hallucis longus muscle passes directly __________ to the sustentaculum tali of the calcaneus.

24
Q

The tibial nerve passes directly __________ to the medial malleolus.

25
The sural nerve passes __________ to the lateral malleolus.
posterior-inferior
26
The tibial attachment of the anterior cruciate ligament is positioned __________ to the tibial attachment of the posterior cruciate ligament.
anterior
27
The plantar calcaneonavicular (spring) ligament is positioned _____ to the head of the talus.
inferior
28
As it exits the greater sciatic foramen, the sciatic nerve is positioned __________ to the piriformis muscle.
inferior
29
The tendon of the peroneus longus muscle passes __________ to the long plantar ligament.
superior
30
The radial artery passes __________ to the tendon of the extensor pollicis longus muscle prior to piercing the 1st dorsal interosseous muscle.
anterior
31
Which of the following procedure is most likely to produce radiation that can lead to a skin burn?
Angiographic pulmonary procedure
32
The DICOM standard has proven useful in medical imaging because images __________
can be routinely reviewed by multiple caregivers.
33
Fertilization normally takes place within the:
ampulla of the Fallopian (uterine) duct.
34
The conceptus on its way through the uterine tube absorbs fluids to the extent a fluid-filled cavity is formed. At this point the conceptus is referred to as a:
blastula
35
The individual cells that form as the result of cleavage following fertilization are called:
blastomeres
36
The portion of the blastocyst that makes first contact with the maternal tissue is the:
trophoblast
37
Which of the following is the ideal site for implantation of the conceptus?
Endometrium
38
Which of the following occurs during the 2nd week of embryonic development?
Neural plate forms on the ectoderm
39
Which of the following derives from the hypoblasts?
Yolk sac membrane
40
Which of the following occurs during the second week of embryonic development?
Lacunar stage
41
Which of the following structures of the 2nd week conceptus gives rise to all embryonic tissues?
Epiblasts
42
Intraembryonic coelom:
forms in the lateral mesoderm.
43
Which of the following is the result of embryonic folding (cranial, caudal & lateral)?
Cardiogenic area is positioned caudal to oropharyngeal membrane
44
Which layer of the embryonic disc undergoes neurulation?
Ectoderm
45
Which of the following is derived from the neural canal?
Central canal of spinal cord and ventricles of brain
46
The ventral body cavities of adults arise from which of the following embryonic structures?
Intraembryonic coelom
47
Which of the following structures is responsible for the formation of three germ layers during the 3rd week of development?
Primitive streak
48
Which of the following would you find in a developing limb bud?
Motor nerve (axons), Myotome, Neural crest, Sclerotome
49
What is innervated by the dorsal rami of the spinal nerve?
Erector spinae
50
What is true for the development of the musculoskeletal system?
T1 spinal nerve is located caudal to the T1 vertebra
51
Dermatomes represent:
a segmental sensory innervation of the body