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Physiological Psychology > First Half > Flashcards

First Half Flashcards

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1
Q

Neuraxis

A

Imaginary line that runs from the base of the spinal cord (posterior) to the front of the brain (anterior); It curves at cephalic flexure

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2
Q

Cephalic flexure

A

Where the neurosis curves; it is located between the brainstem and the forebrain in humans

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3
Q

Anterior/Rostral and Posterior/Caudal

A

A/R is towards the head
P/C is towards the tail (feet for humans)

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4
Q

Dorsal and Ventral

A

Dorsal is towards the back/head
Ventral is towards the belly

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5
Q

Lateral and Medial

A

Lateral is towards the side
Medial is towards the midline (neuraxis)

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6
Q

Unilateral and Bilateral

A

Unilateral: one side
Bilateral: two sides

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7
Q

Ipsilateral and Contralateral

A

Ipsilateral: on the same side of the body
Contralateral: on the opposite side of the body

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8
Q

Proximal and Distal

A

Proximal: nearest point of attachment
Distal: farthest away from point of attachment

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9
Q

What is an important implication of motor neuron and sensory neuron decussating at the medulla?

A

A motor neuron lesion above the medulla will cause symptoms on the contralateral side of the body. A motor neuron lesion below the medulla will cause symptoms on the ipsilateral side of the body.

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10
Q

Coronal, Horizontal, Sagittal

A

Coronal: divides to front and back; direction of crown being placed on the head
Horizontal: parallel to the ground
Sagittal: divides to left and right

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11
Q

MRI

A
  • Detailed picture of soft tissue, but less detailed for boney structures
  • No side effects
  • Takes longer and higher cost
  • May be difficult for those with claustrophobia (noise and space)
  • May need to hold your breath and not move
  • Those with metal on their body are unable to use it
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12
Q

CT Scan

A
  • Less detailed picture of soft tissue, but detailed for boney structures
  • Little side effects
  • Can be done quickly and cheaper
  • Holding breath is not needed
  • Those with metal implants can use it
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13
Q

Nervous system can be divided into two systems

A

Central Nervous System
Peripheral Nervous System

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14
Q

Central Nervous System (CNS)

A

Consists of brain and spinal chord.
Main functions include: homeostasis, interpreting sensory info, creating motor response, learning, thinking

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15
Q

Peripheral Nervous System (PNS)

A

Consists of nerves that branch off spinal chord into all parts of the body.
Main function is to relay info between the CNS and the rest of the body

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16
Q

What are the three levels of protection for the brain and CNS?

A

Skull/cranium
Meninges
Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)

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17
Q

What are the layers in meninges?

A

Pia mater: inner layer, closest to the brain
Arachnoid membrane: middle layer, soft and spongy
Dura mater: outer layer, closest to the skull, thick and tough

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18
Q

What is the weakest point in the skull?

A

Pterion

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19
Q

What is the function of the meninges?

A

Protective sheath around the brain and spinal cord

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20
Q

What is the function of the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)?

A

Provides protection, nourishment, and waste removal

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21
Q

What are the ventricles and what are their functions?

A

Hollow vessels within the arachnoid membrane that produces and ensures the flow of the CSF

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22
Q

What part of the brain produces the CSF?

A

Choroid plexus

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23
Q

What are the usage (in %) of oxygen, glucose, and blood by the brain?

A

20% of total resting oxygen
15-20% of total blood flow goes to the brain
60% of glucose metabolism

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24
Q

How is energy divided (in %) in the brain?

A

25% = maintaining neurons and glial cells
75% = electrical signaling across the brain’s circuits.

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25
Q

What is a neural tube?

A

Serves as the embryonic brain and spinal cord; the central nervous system. Later divides into basic brain regions

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26
Q

What does neuronal migration do and when does it occur?

A

Brings neuronal cells to their appropriate locations; occurs at 6-14 weeks

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27
Q

What are the similarities and differences between apoptosis and necrosis?

A

Apoptosis: planned and purposeful neuronal cell death; removal of damaged or unneeded neurons
Necrosis: unplanned and uncontrolled.

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28
Q

What is synaptic pruning?

A

A natural process that occurs in the brain between early childhood and adulthood. During synaptic pruning, the brain eliminates extra synapses for efficiency.

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29
Q

How is synaptic pruning related to Sz and ASD?

A

Sz: over-pruning of synapses (lower synapsis)
ASD: under-pruning of synapses (higher synapsis)

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30
Q

What are the ventricles, subdivisions, and principal structures of the Forebrain?

A

Ventricles: Lateral, Third
Subdivisions: Telencephalon, Diencephalon
Structures: Cerebral cortex, Basal ganglia, Limbic system, Thalamus, Hypothalamus

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31
Q

What are the ventricles, subdivisions, and principal structures of the Midbrain?

A

Ventricles: Cerebral aqueduct
Subdivisions: Mesencephalon
Structures: Tectum, Tegmentum

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32
Q

What are the ventricles, subdivisions, and principal structures of the Hindbrain?

A

Ventricles: Fourth
Subdivisions: Metencephalon, Myelencephalon
Structures: Cerebellum, Pons, Medulla oblongata

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33
Q

Telencephalon

A
  • Largest component of the brain (the traditional “brain” we draw)
  • Includes the L and R hemispheres
  • Covered by the cerebral cortex
  • Makes up 77% of the brain mass
  • Divided into four lobes (frontal, parietal, occipital, temporal)
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34
Q

What connects the left and right hemispheres?

A

Corpus callosum

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35
Q

The convolutions of the brain

A

– Sulci: small grooves
– Fissures: large grooves
– Gyri: bulges between the sulci and fissures
This increases the brain’s surface area by 3x

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36
Q

What is the cerebral cortex made of?

A

Glia, cell bodies, dendrites, and axons

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37
Q

Glia?

A

Supportive and nourishing cells

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38
Q

What is myelin made of?

A

80% lipids
20% protein

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39
Q

What are the main sulci and gyri?

A
  • Central Sulcus: boundary between the frontal and parietal lob and the motor and sensory cortex
  • Precentral Gyrus: location of Primary Motor Cortex
  • Postcentral Gyrus: location of primary Somatosensory cortex (all senses except smell)
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40
Q

Homunculus

A

Reflects the amount of brain tissue devoted
to sensory and motor nerves in body parts

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41
Q

Which part of the brain affects empathy and guilt?

A

Ventromedial PFC

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42
Q

What are the key functions of the four lobes?

A

Frontal: executive fx (planning, reasoning)
Parietal: sensory (touch, pain)
Occipital: visual processing
Temporal: auditory

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43
Q

What structures of the brain are a part of the limbic system, and what are their main roles?

A

Basal ganglia: motor control and motor learning
Thalamus: “relay station”
Hypothalamus: homeostasis
Amygdala: “emotion center” (emotional valence, learning of reward/punishment)
Hippocampus: “seahorse”; formation of new memories

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44
Q

What structures make up the Diencephalon?

A

Thalamus and hypothalamus

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45
Q

Substantia nigra

A

Part of basal ganglia that produces dopamine

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46
Q

Dopamine dysfunction can result in what?

A

Movement disorders such as parkinsonian syndrome (i.e., Parkinson’s disease), dystonia, chorea, and tics.
Suppression of Motor Function = ↓ Purposeful Movement

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47
Q

Lateralization

A

tendency of specialization of the brain
70-95% of Language & Analysis localized to left side, Attention & Synthesis localized to right side

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48
Q

Midbrain is made up of?

A

Mesencephalon, which is made up of tectum and tegmentum

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49
Q

Tegmentum is made up of?

A

Reticular formation
Periaqueductal grey matter (PAG)
Raphe nucleus (red)
Substantia nigra (black)

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50
Q

Cerebral peduncle

A

Attaches the cerebrum to the brainstem

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51
Q

Brainstem is made of?

A

Midbrain and hindbrain

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52
Q

Cerebellum

A

“little brain”
Covered by cerebellar cortex
Attached to pons by cerebellar peduncles
Coordinated motor movements and learning
Posture, balance, fine motor movement (ataxia), motor learning (works w/BG), proprioception

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53
Q

Pons

A

“bridge”
Between mesencephalon and medulla oblongata
Refines muscular activity
Communication between cerebellum and cerebrum
Regulates breathing and arousal

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54
Q

Medulla Oblongata

A

Controls basic functions of the autonomic nervous system, including:
* Respiration
* Cardiac function
* Vasodilation
* Reflexes like vomiting, coughing, sneezing, and swallowing

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55
Q

Three sections of the spinal cord

A

Cervical spinal cord: sends nerves to the face and neck.
Thoracic spinal cord: sends nerves to the arms, chest, and abdomen.
Lumbar-sacral spinal cord: sends nerves to the lower body.

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56
Q

A bunch of nerves at the bottom of the spinal cord

A

cauda equina (horse’s tail)

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57
Q

Two types of spinal nerves

A

Afferent: towards CNS (from skin)
Efferent: outward (to muscles)

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58
Q

Dermatome

A

areas of skin on your body that rely on specific nerve connections on your spine.

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59
Q

Myotome

A

A group of muscles innervated by a single spinal nerve

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60
Q

CNS is composed of two elements and contains what type of neurons?

A

Elements: brain and spinal cord
Relay neurons

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61
Q

PNS is composed of three elements and contains what types of neurons?

A

Elements: cranial nerves, spinal nerves, peripheral nerves
Sensory and motor neurons

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62
Q

Function of the midbrain

A

The midbrain serves important functions in motor movement and serves as the pathway between the spinal cord, cerebellum, and forebrain.

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63
Q

Two structures in Tectum

A

– Superior Colliculi (visual reflexes/object tracking (orienting) )
– Inferior Colliculi (auditory system in ear)

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64
Q

Three structures in Tegmentum

A

– Periaqueductal gray matter (PAG)
– Raphe (red) Nucleus
– Substantia Nigra (black)

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65
Q

Periaqueductal gray matter (PAG)

A

Pain modulation (endogenous and exogenous opioids act here)

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66
Q

Raphe nucleus

A
  • Coordination of sensorimotor information
  • Synthesizes serotonin
  • SSRIs are believed to largely impact the raphe nuclei
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67
Q

Substantia nigra

A

Key role in dopamine production

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68
Q

What does the cerebral peduncle do?

A

Attaches the cerebrum to the brainstem

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69
Q

Reticular formation

A

Complex network of neurons located in the brain stem
* Connections to the hypothalamus and thalamus.
* Helps support wakefulness/alertness & filters incoming information (“security”)

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70
Q

Location of gray matter and white matter in brain and spinal cord

A

in brain, gray matter is on the outside
in spinal cord, grey matter is in the inside

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71
Q

Sensory neurons

A

carry signals from the outer parts of your body (periphery) into the central nervous system.
Dermatome

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72
Q

Motor neurons

A

carry signals from the central nervous system to the outer parts (muscles, skin, glands) of your body.
Myotome

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73
Q

Interneurons

A

Interneurons connect various neurons within the brain and spinal cord.

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74
Q

The vagus nerve

A

regulates the functions of organs in the thoracic and abdominal cavities.
▪ Longest cranial nerve.
▪ Helps body exit “fight or flight”
Important in gut-brain axis

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75
Q

How many cranial nerves are there?

A

12

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76
Q

Autonomic Nervous System consists of two divisions

A

Sympathetic
Parasympathetic

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77
Q

Sympathetic nerves

A

“fight, flight, freeze, fawn”
–Controls functions that accompany arousal and expenditure of energy
–Coordinates responses to a stressor
–Aka Thoracolumbar System

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78
Q

Parasympathetic nerves

A

“rest and digest”
* Involved with increases in body’s supply of stored energy
* Coordinates rest and relax responses after the body has been stressed
* Aka Craniosacral System
* Vagus Nerve responsible for the calming following a stressful situation

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79
Q

Neurons

A

Most basic Information- processing and information- transmitting element of the nervous system

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80
Q

Four structures of the neuron

A

▪ Cell body (soma)
▪ Dendrites
▪ Axon
▪ Terminal buttons

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81
Q

Role of axon hillock

A

decides whether you’ve met the threshold for the action-potential

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82
Q

Schwann cell

A

helps maintain the myelin sheath

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83
Q

Oligodendrocytes

A

produces myelin sheath

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84
Q

Synapse

A
  • Points of contact between neurons where information is passed from one neuron to the next
  • Form between axons and dendrites
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85
Q

Synapse consists of

A
  • Presynaptic neuron
  • Synaptic cleft
  • Post synaptic neuron
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86
Q

Glial cells

A
  • “Glue”
    *Provide nutrients to neurons
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87
Q

3 types of glial cells

A

–Microglia
–Astrocytes
–Oligodendrocytes

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88
Q

Microglia

A
  • Smallest glial cells
  • Clean up dead cells
  • Protect the brain from invading microorganisms/toxins
  • “immune cell” of the brain
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89
Q

How can microglia lead to neurodegeneration?

A

microglia often don’t know when to stop sending out the
inflammatory mediators

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90
Q

Astrocytes

A
  • Star shaped
  • Neuron “glue” – holds them in
    place
  • Engulf debris (phagocytosis)
  • Provide nourishment via transfer of fuel – neurons use a lot of energy but cannot store it
  • Provide electric insulation for unmyelinated neurons
  • Everywhere in your body
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91
Q

Oligodendrocyte

A
  • Produces myelin in the form of a tube by wrapping itself around the axon
  • Forms sheath in segments
  • Episodic gaps = Nodes of Ranvier
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92
Q

Blood Brain Barrier

A
  • selectively permeable
  • blocks all molecules except for those that are: lipid soluble, specialized sugars and amino acids, water molecules
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93
Q

Why are inhibitory reflexes sent to the brain?

A

it needs to control the voluntary action (e.g., neuron telling the brain not to drop
the hot bowl, because it will drop and break)

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94
Q

three activities that are happening in action potential

A
  • Diffusion
  • Electrostatic pressure
  • Sodium potassium pump
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95
Q

Diffusion

A

movement of molecules from region of high conc. to low to achieve equilibrium

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96
Q

Electrostatic pressure

A

force exerted by attraction or repulsion to move ions from place to place
- Pushes ions of opposite charges together and pushes ions with same charges apart

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97
Q

Sodium Potassium pump

A

protein molecules embedded in the membrane
– Works to keep the ion concentrations stable even as ions cross the membrane at rest
– Continuously pushes Na+ (sodium ions) out of the axon = maintains RESTING POTENTIAL

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98
Q

Resting membrane potential voltage

A

A resting (non-signaling) neuron has a voltage across its membrane (-70 mv)

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99
Q

Action potential

A
  • rapid burst of depolarization
    followed by hyperpolarization
  • Occurs because of diffusion and electrostatic pressure
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100
Q

Threshold of excitation

A

set point to produce an action
potential = -55mV

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101
Q

All or none law

A

there is AP or not– the size of AP stays constant

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102
Q

Rate law

A

Strength is based on rate of firing
Stronger simulus, more firing

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103
Q

Role of node of ranvier

A

-In myelinated fibers, depolarization and repolarization processes occur from one node of ranvier to the next instead of the entire area of the membrane
-economic and speedy

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104
Q

Synaptic transmission

A

primary means by which neuron communicates across a synapse.
* Synaptic vesicles are made of membrane and
filled with molecules of neurotransmitters

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105
Q

types of postsynaptic potentials

A

*Excitatory (EPSP):Sodium Channel Opened;Depolarizing
*Inhibitory (IPSP): Potassium Channel Opened; Hyperpolarizing

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106
Q

termination of postsynaptic potentials in two ways

A
  • Reuptake
  • Enzymatic deactivation/degradation
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107
Q

Reuptake

A

an extremely rapid removal of a
neurotransmitter from the synaptic cleft by the terminal button

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108
Q

saltatory conduction

A

The way an electrical impulse skips from node to node down the full length of an axon, speeding the arrival of the impulse at the nerve terminal. AP in nodes of Ranvier, no AP in myelinated areas.

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109
Q

Neuron at rest has high concentration of which chemicals inside and outside?

A

Outside: sodium, calcium, chloride
Inside: potassium, anion

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110
Q

Corticospinal tract

A
  • In charge of voluntary muscle control
  • It is a descending motor pathway
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111
Q

Pathway of corticospinal tract

A

Midbrain –> crus cerebri (anterior portion of the cerebral peduncle) –> pyramid of the medulla –> lateral CT or anterior CT

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112
Q

Characteristics about the upper motor neuron

A
  • no synapses
  • they form the corticospinal tract (descending motor pathway)
  • consists of lateral and anterior CT
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113
Q

Lower motor neurons

A

directly innervate muscles to produce movement

114
Q

Lateral v. Anterior corticospinal tract

A

Lateral: distal muscles, majority of the nerves in this tract decussates at the pyramid of medulla

Anterior: cervical and upper thoracic, remain ipsilateral and then crosses in the spinal cord

115
Q

endogenous v. exogenous

A

endogenous: molecues body creates itself
exogenous: molecules produced outside the body that you are introducing it to your body system

116
Q

two major aspects of drug influence

A
  • Drug effects: observed changes
  • Sites of action: drug molecule binding sites; must reach the site before able to affect bx.
117
Q

Pharmacokinetics

A

what the body does to the drugs

118
Q

Four processes of pharmacokinetics

A

Absorption
Distribution
Metabolism
Excretion

119
Q

Different types of administration

A
  • IV: fastest b/c it goes straight into your bloodstream
  • intraperitoneal: to your stomach (e.g., tubefeeding)
  • subcutaneous: into your fat
  • intracerebral: directly into your brain; bypass the blood-brain barrier; not really done in humans but on research animals
  • intracerebroventricular: straight into CSF
  • oral: one of the slowest ways; first pass metabolism (broken down in saliva, down to GI tract, etc); most common way for
    psychotherapeutic drugs
  • sublingual: absorbing through capilaries below your tongue
  • intrarectal: bypassess “first pass” metabolism
  • inhalation: into your lungs
  • insufflation: absorbed by the mucous membrane in your nose (e.g., snorting cocaine)
120
Q

Why is heroin more addictive than morphine?

A

heroin is more addictive b/c it has higher lipid solubility than morphine

121
Q

Where does drug exert effect?

A

Site of action (most of this site is related to CNS)

122
Q

What deactivates and metabolizes drugs?

A

Enzymes

123
Q

What is an example of an enzyme that has a catalytic effect on molecules and prolongs or increases the effect of the molecule?

A

fluoxetine/prozac

124
Q

primary organ of excretion

A

kidney

125
Q

organ that plays an active role in enzymatic deactivation

A

liver

126
Q

What is used to determine the point of maximum effect?

A

Dose-response curve

127
Q

What is affinity?

A

the capacity of a drug molecule to bind to a key site of action.

128
Q

What 2 things impacts the effectiveness of a drug?

A
  • Sites of Action
  • Affinity of a drug for its site of action
129
Q

What happens after the point of maximum effect?

A

After this point, increasing the dose does not produce a stronger effect

130
Q

Therapeutic index (TI)

A

a commonly used margin of safety; a quantitative
measurement of the relative safety of a drug.
TD50/ED50

131
Q

Greater or smaller margin of safety is desired?

A

greater

132
Q

What is an ideal TI?

A

greater than 10

133
Q

What are some drugs with low TI?

A

Lithium, Clozapine, Tricyclic antidepressants

134
Q

Neuromodulator

A

a chemical that affects the neurotransmission of a whole group of neurons.

135
Q

Ligand

A

neuromodulators that bind to a complementary receptor site.

136
Q

Agonist v. Antagonist

A
  • Agonist: binds to the receptor and stimulates a response = increased postsynaptic effects
  • Antagonists: binds to a receptor and blocks or inhibits the response = decreased postsynaptic effects
137
Q

Addictive drugs are agonist or antagonist?

A

Agonist (heroin, morphine, oxycodone)

138
Q

Direct agonist and an example?

A

They mimic NT, binds with and activates the receptor
e.g., nicotine and methadone

139
Q

Direct antagonist and an example?

A

Bind and block the receptor from being activated. Sits on receptor and prevents ion channels from opening
e.g., naltrexone

140
Q

Indirect agonist and an example?

A

Attach to alternate binding site and facilitates/stimulates receptors actions
e.g., Valium, Cocaine

141
Q

Indirect antagonist and an example?

A

Attach to alternate binding site and blocks/reduces the receptor actions
e.g., Reserpine

142
Q

Why are a lot of the indirect agonists and antagonists neuromodulators?

A

b/c they bind to an alternative sites

143
Q

Amino acid neurotransmitters in the brain

A

Excitatory - Glutamate
Inhibitory - GABA

144
Q

Amino acid neurotransmitters in the spinal cord

A

Excitatory - Glutamate
Inhibitory - Glycine

145
Q

Function of Acetylcholine in CNS and PNS

A
  • PNS: central role in muscle contraction
  • CNS: Found in specific locations and pathways in CNS. Key role in REM sleep, perceptual learning, and memory.
146
Q

Facts about monoamines

A
  • Neuromodulators derived from a single amino acid.
  • Produced by several systems of neurons in the brain; mainly brainstem with widespread distribution around brain.
  • Mediate a variety of CNS fxns (e.g.,motor control, cognition, emotion, memory processing, and endocrine modulation)
147
Q

Three classes of monoamines and their chemicals

A
  • Catecholamines: dopamine, norepinephrine/noradrenalin, epinephrine/adrenalin
  • Indolamine: serotonin
  • Ethylamine: histamine
148
Q

Synthesis process of catecholamines

A

Tyrosine -> L-dopa -> dopamine -> norepinephrine

149
Q

What are dopamine agonists and which one is more addictive (and why)?

A

Amphetamines and methamphetamines: more addictive b/c it blocks reuptake AND reverse transporters
Cocaine: just blocks reuptake

150
Q

What is the primary effect of dopamine?

A

movement, attention, learning, and reinforcing effects of substances

151
Q

What is the primary effect of norepinephrine?

A

vigilance and attentiveness

152
Q

T/F: dopamine has to exist first for norepinephrine to exist

A

True

153
Q

Locus Coeruleus (nucleus in the pons)

A

Where most noradrenergic systems (norepinephrine) begin

154
Q

What are the primary effects of serotonin?

A

mood and pain regulation
control of eating, sleeping, arousal, and dreaming

155
Q

What are the precursors of dopamine, norepinephrine, and serotonin?

A

Dopamine: tyrosine
Norepinephrine: dopamine
Serotonin: tryptophan

156
Q

Are dopamine, serotonin, and norepinephrine excitatory or inhibitory?

A

dopamine: excitatory and inhibitory
serotonine: inhibitory
norepinephrine: excitatory

157
Q

What are surplus and deficit effects of dopamine?

A

Surplus: Sz, substance addiction
Deficit: Parkinson’s, anxiety, memory, challenges, ADHD

158
Q

What are the surplus and deficit effects of serotonin?

A

Surplus: autism, mania
Deficit: depression and other mood d/os

159
Q

What are the surplus and deficit effects of norepinephrine?

A

Surplus: anxiety
Deficit: several psychiatric conditions

160
Q

Tolerance

A

A decrease in the effectiveness of a drug that is administered repeatedly. It is the body’s attempt to maintain homeostasis.

161
Q

Pharmacokinetic tolerance

A

body breaks down drug preventing it from reaching receptors.

162
Q

Pharmacodynamic tolerance

A
  • Decrease in receptor affinity for drug.
  • Damaged receptors
  • Receptor down-regulation (decrease in receptor)
163
Q

Sensitization

A

An increase in the effectiveness of a drug as it is administered repeatedly.

164
Q

Dependence

A

The physical or psychological symptoms that occur that make someone feel like they must continue taking a substance; lack of substance results in withdrawal

165
Q

Positive v. Negative
Reinforcement v. Punishment

A

Positive: add something to the environment
Negative: remove something from the environment
Reinforcement: to increase the behavior
Punishment: to decrease the behavior

166
Q

What are the brain regions that substances affect, and what are their effects?

A

Basal Ganglia: motivation, habits, routines. Repeated exposure decreases sensitivity, which results in tolerance.
Amygdala: anxiety, irritability, and unease. Withdrawal feelings result in motivation to seek out drug.
PFC: plan, solve problems, make decisions, and exert self-control over impulses. Reduces impulse control.

167
Q

What are brain structures involved in the reward system?

A

Ventral tegmental area (VTA), nucleus accumbens, amygdala, hippocampus, prefrontal cortex

168
Q

VTA in the reward system

A
  • Dopamine-rich nucleus that mediates reward system
  • Located in midbrain, next to the substantia nigra
  • Sends dopamine to the nucleus accumbens, amygdala, hippocampus, and prefrontal
    cortex.
  • Increased VTA pathways is implicated in OCD
169
Q

Nucleus accumbens in the reward system

A
  • Involved in all motivationally-relevant stimuli = rewarding or aversive.
  • Interface between motivation + action (connection to caudate nucleus)
170
Q

Amygdala in the reward system

A
  • Happiness & Enjoyment.
  • Anxiety, irritability, and unease - Withdrawal feelings = Motivation to seek out drug
171
Q

Prefrontal cortex in the reward system

A

Reasoning, problem-solving, impulse control, creativity, perseverance.

172
Q

Two dopamine pathways

A

Mesolimbic and Mesocortical

173
Q

Mesolimbic Dopamine Pathway

A
  • Route between VTA, Nucleus accumbens, and limbic system (hippocampus & amygdala).
  • Key Pathway in Pleasure and Reward (learning something is pleasurable and rewarding–remember, hippocampus is responsible for making new memories)
  • Substance use
174
Q

Mesocortical Dopamine Pathway

A

Route between VTA/Nucleus accumbens and PFC.

175
Q

Stress increases which hormone?

A

Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)

176
Q

How does CRH affect brain areas?

A
  • Strengthens the Amygdala
  • Weakens the hippocampus & prefrontal cortex
177
Q

What does increased stress (increased CRH) result in?

A
  • Negative emotional state
  • Lack of executive control, which increases risk of relapse
  • Memory of relief/cravings
178
Q

What are the two control orientation in stress management?

A

Primary: attempts to directly influence environment

Secondary: individual accommodates to the situational demands.

179
Q

Difference between East and West in stress perception (generally speaking)?

A

East: higher stress from psychosocial distress; more somatic symptoms
West: stress from individual failure; more psychological symptoms

180
Q

Hypofrontality is commonly seen in which disorder and have high comorbidity with what?

A

Seen commonly in Schizophrenia, high comorbidity with SUDs
(thus, Sz has high comorbidity with SUDs as well)

181
Q

What kind of neural effect does cocaine, pathological gambling, and nicotine have in the PFC?

A

Reduces the existence/activation of the grey matter in PFC

182
Q

peptides

A

two or more amino acids linked by peptide bonds;
endogenous opioids are almost all peptides

183
Q

What are the most common endogenous peptides?

A
  • Enkephalins (natural ligand)
  • Endorphins
  • Dynorphins
184
Q

T/F: Natural opioid receptors exist in the body, and your body naturally produces and releases opioids to opioid receptors

A

True

185
Q

What are the functions of opioid?

A
  • Modulation of pain response - Reward and reinforcement
  • Inhibits flee response
186
Q

How does one get addicted to opioid?

A
  • Drugs of abuse/Exogenous Peptides –> increased endorphins and enkephalins–> huge dopamine surge
  • Since this dopamine surge is far more greater than “normal” pleasurable activities (exercise, socializing, eating, sex), over time these pleasurable activities become not enough
187
Q

Per CDC what is a moderate drinking in males and females?

A

Female: up to 1 drink per day
Male: up to 2 drinks per day

188
Q

Per CDC, how many drinks is a heavy drinking in males and females?

A

Female: 8 or more per week
Male: 15 or more per week

189
Q

Per CDC, how many drinks is a binge drinking in males and females?

A

Females: 4 or more
Males: 5 or more

190
Q

Per CDC, how many drinks is a binge drinking in males and females?

A

Females: 4 or more
Males: 5 or more

191
Q

How do factors like sugar, carbonation, and menstruation affect alcohol absorption/metabolism?

A

Sugar: lowers absorption
Carbonation: increases absorption
Menstruation: lowers metabolism

192
Q

What is a congener level?

A

Congener is genetic mutation that contributes to hangover severity; higher congener contributes to hangover resistance

193
Q

Which SES population experiences the greatest ETOH use?

A

Each ends of the SES spectrum

194
Q

Which organs do alcohol absorption, metabolism, and excretion occur?

A

Absorption: small intestine
Metabolism: liver
Excretion: kidney (urine)

195
Q

How does food inhibit alcohol absorption?

A

by causing oxidation of alcohol & closing the pyloric sphincter

196
Q

What is the metabolism chain of alcohol?

A
  • Alcohol metabolized by Alcohol Dehydrogenase (ADH)(requires B vitamins), which creates Acetaldehyde
  • Acetaldehyde metabolized by aldehyde dehydrogenase (ALDH), which creates acetate
    -Basically, alcohol+ADH = Acetaldehyde,
    Acetaldehyde+ALDH =Acetate
197
Q

what biological mechanism defines intoxication?

A

consuming etoh faster than liver can break it down (usually 1 drink per hour)

198
Q

What does ETOH do to the CNS?

A

ETOH is a CNS depressant

199
Q

What effect does indirect GABAa receptor agonist have?

A

Sedation and memory functioning impairment (hippocampus)

200
Q

What happens with the over-inhibition of GABAa?

A

The body creates a new baseline with less receptors (downregulation). When the body is going through withdrawal and drugs are taken again, it can result in seizure.

201
Q

What is receptor down regulation?

A

a decrease in total receptor number in the cell caused by long-term exposure to agonists

202
Q

What happens to the body/brain with inhibition of GABA?

A
  • Cerebellum: loss of coordination & consciousness
  • PFC: decreased inhibition
  • Blocks Vasopressin: increased urination & dehydrtion
203
Q

What’s the role of thiamine in the brain?

A

Thiamine plays roles in brain cell energy production & maintenance and synthesis of myelin

204
Q

What causes Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome?

A

Thiamine deficiency

205
Q

Wernicke’s Encephalopathy

A
  • Acute phase
  • needs to be treated immediately or it can result in death
  • delirium, incoordination, memory deficits, etc
206
Q

Korsakoff psychosis

A
  • Chronic phase
  • Can develop after WE or without
  • Greater anterograde amnesia (ability to form new memories) than retrograde
  • not treatable nor reversible
207
Q

Confabulation

A

false memory of the past, and the brain fills in the space with false information

208
Q

What is fetal alcohol syndrome disorders and some of the key features?

A

FASD is an umbrella term for a range of physical, cognitive, and behavioral disorders caused by prenatal alcohol exposure.

Features: short nose, low nasal bridge, flat mid face, thin upper lip, etc

209
Q

What chemicals in the brain do stimulants affect, and how does it show?

A
  • epinephrine/norepinephrine (E/NE)
  • dopamine (DA)
  • serotonin (5-HT)
  • Cause alertness, attention, energy
210
Q

What are some medical uses for stimulants?

A

Pain management, ADHD, asthma, obesity, narcolepsy

211
Q

What are some risk factors of stimulants?

A
  • Reduced seizure threshold
  • increased BP,HR,HTN= increased risk of stroke and MI
  • Poor appetite, mood swings, anxiety, insomnia
  • Toxic levels and result in paranoia, psychosis
212
Q

What are the 2 mechanisms of absorption of nicotine?

A
  • Tobacco smoke: enters bloodstream via lungs
  • Smokeless tobacco: mucosal membrane of mouth, nose, or
    skin
213
Q

What are the effects of nicotine?

A
  • Mimics Ach: arousal, learning, memory, and emotions
  • Binds to nicotinic receptors and changes cerebral metabolism
  • Stimulates adrenal glands, resulting in increased BP, HR, respiration, alertness
    + epinephrine
214
Q

T/F: body has natural endocannabinoid system, which comprises of CB1 and CB2

A

True

215
Q

What are the main functions of the CB1 and CB2 receptors?

A
  • CB1: mediates most of the psychoactive effects of cannabinoids in brain (regulates neurotransmission)
  • CB2: regulates immune and inflammatory pathways
216
Q

What is the endocannabinoid (neuromodulator) that is naturally found in human bodies?

A

Anandamide

217
Q

What are the most notable cannabinoids?

A

Delta-9-tetrahydrocannabinol (THC) & cannabidiol (CBD)

218
Q

What effects do cannabinoids have?

A

energy, mood, appetite, and perception of time.

219
Q

How does traditional use and recreational use of marijuana differ?

A

They differ in dosage

220
Q

How is inhalation and oral absorption of cannabis differ?

A

-Inhalation: peak plasma concentration in 3-10 mins, and higher bioavailability (10%-35%)

-Oral: peak plasma concentration at 120 mins, and lower bioavailability (6%- 20%)

221
Q

Where do cannabis accumulate in the body?

A

adipose tissue

222
Q

T/F: Cannabis is able to cross the placenta and can be released in breast milk

A

True

223
Q

What is the effect of THC in the brain and chemicals?

A

-Activates hypothalamus and thalamus (increased hunger and thirst)
-Reduced activation of cerebellum and hippocampus (reduced coordination and memory) as well as amygdala
-Decreased GABA (inhibitory), increased Glutamate and Dopamine (excitatory)

224
Q

Glucose

A
  • primary source of fuel for the brain
  • provides precursors for NT synthesis & apoptosis
  • Glucose levels correlated with thinking, memory, learning
225
Q

Brain-derived neurotrophic factors (BDNF)

A

BDNF plays an important role in neuronal survival and growth, serves as a neurotransmitter modulator, and participates in neuronal plasticity, which is essential for learning and memory.

226
Q

What does high sugar diet do to BDNF?

A

It lowers BDNF in the body, which increases the risk of neurodegenerative disorders due to atrophy and small vessel disease

227
Q

What is the AMA recommended consumption level of sugar per day?

A

6-9 tsps per day

228
Q

Hallucinogens

A

Drugs that alter a person’s awareness of their surroundings as well as their own thoughts and feelings.

229
Q

What are the two categories of hallucinogens?

A

Classic: impacts serotonin (e.g., LSD, psilocybin, peyote)
Dissociative: interferes with glutamate–contributes to reduced control and disconnection (e.g., PCP, ketamine, cough syrup)

230
Q

What does social media “likes,” “re-tweets,” and “novelty” do to the brain?

A

Increases mesolimbic activation

231
Q

Why do we sleep? Sleep is important for:

A
  • Immune system functioning
  • Neurological development
  • Memory processing
  • Many, many other functions
232
Q

T/F: Every living animal with a CNS sleeps

A

True

233
Q

T/F: Those lower on the food chain tend to sleep longer than those higher up

A

False. Those higher on the food chain tend to sleep longer than those lower down

234
Q

T/F: the size of the neocortex is positively correlated to daily sleep amount

A

False. The size of the neocortex does not correlate positively with daily sleep amount

235
Q

What are two ways of measuring sleep stages?

A

Common: EEG
Gold standard: polysomnography (measures brain waves, blood oxygen levels, heart rate, breathing, and eye and leg movement

236
Q

Synchronous delta activity in measuring sleep

A

If the cells are active at about the same time, their electrical messages are synchronized and appear as a large, clear wave in the EEG data.

237
Q

Desynchronous beta wave activity in measuring sleep

A

If neurons are active at different times, their electrical messages are desynchronized and appear as small, chaotic waveforms without a clear pattern in the EEG data.

238
Q

What are the five stages of sleep?

A

Waking
NREM stage 1
NREM stage 2
NREM stage 3
REM

239
Q

What are the characteristics of NREM stage 1?

A
  • transition between wakefulness and sleep
  • lightest stage of sleep (may not realize you were sleeping)
  • theta waves
  • 2-5% of total sleep time
    -hypnic jerks can happen
240
Q

What are the characteristics of NREM stage 2?

A
  • about half the night is spent in N2
  • slowed heart rate, breathing, muscle activity, eye movements
  • reduced body temperature
  • sleep spindles and K complexes happen here
241
Q

What are sleep spindle?

A

brief powerful bursts of synch activities; important for memory consolidation

242
Q

What are K complexes?

A

sharp high voltage biphasic waves; involved in responding to external threats

243
Q

What are the characteristics of NREM stage 3?

A
  • aka deep sleep or slow wave sleep (SWS)
  • 20% of total sleep is spent here
  • sleep in this stage increases with higher level of physical or cognitive exertion
  • thought to be most restorative sleep stage (memory consolidation and waste clearance)
  • predominates the first half of the night
  • very synchronous “orchestra” of brain activity
244
Q

What are the characteristics of the REM sleep?

A
  • rapid eye movement sleep
  • muscle paralysis
  • dreams are thought to occur here
  • can be easily awoken from this stage
  • desynchronized EEG (EEG similar to that of waking stage)
  • facilitates synaptic plasticity
245
Q

How long does each sleep cycle last?

A

approximately 90 minutes

246
Q

Which sleep stages predominates the first have of the night and which the second half?

A

First half: SWS
Second half: REM

247
Q

Which brain regions are active and not active during REM and dreaming?

A

Active: extra striate cortex (part of visual cortex)
Inactive: prefrontal cortex and striate cortex (part of visual cortex for visual input)

248
Q

T/F: Brain regions active during a dream are active in the same way in real life

A

True

249
Q

What is rebound phenomenon?

A

increased frequency, depth, and intensity of rapid-eye-movement (REM) sleep following sleep deprivation or significant stressors.

250
Q

Lucid dreams

A

A state where one is “physiologically asleep while at the same time aware that they are dreaming, able to intentionally perform diverse actions”

251
Q

What does brain activity in SWS look like?

A
  • it involves a lot of different neuronal regions that require a synchronized “orchestra” of firing
  • memory consolidation
  • largely based in the prefrontal cortex
252
Q

What can sleep deprivation result in?

A
  • Memory loss
  • Concentration difficulties
  • Moodiness
  • Dyscoordination
  • Paranoia
  • Hallucinations
253
Q

Fatal familial insomnia

A

Inherited neurological disorder that is a result of damage to portions of thalamus. It is a progressive insomnia that can result in death in 1 year
Possible etiology: lack of sleep means toxins in the brain is not cleared up, resulting in damaging effects

254
Q

T/F: sleep is important following physical exertion

A

False. Relationship between sleep and exercise is subtle. Sleep probably not needed for restoration of physiological functioning

255
Q

What are two main neurological processes that occur when we sleep?

A
  • Waste clearance
  • Memory consolidation
256
Q

What is glymphatic flow?

A

Like the lymphatic system, but relying on glial cells. CSF and ISF goes through your brain and pull away built-up protein

257
Q

Synaptic homeostasis theory

A

During SWS, synapses are pruned back, increasing efficiency of stronger connections and decrease unnecessary/redundant connections

258
Q

REM sleep is important for what and during which developmental period is it spent more in?

A

Important for early neurological development, learning and memory
Highest portion of REM sleep during infancy and childhood

259
Q

REM and SWS facilitate consolidation of what kinds of memories?

A

REM: non-declarative memories
SWS: declarative memories

260
Q

T/F: Older adults spend more time in SWS sleep than younger adults do

A

False. Older adults spend less time in SWS sleep than younger adults do, possibly because different brain areas are degenerating or becoming less effective

261
Q

Adenosine

A
  • inhibitory
  • it is a byproduct of ATP usage
  • accumulation of adenosine increases sleepiness
  • increases slowly during the day and produces sleepy feelings at night
  • it is recycled at night
262
Q

What is the mechanism and role of caffeine?

A
  • blocks adenosine receptors
  • reduces FEELINGS of sleepiness, but fatigue is increased
263
Q

What happens chemically with sleep deprivation?

A

Decrease in glycogen store, and increase in adenosine (resulting in sleepiness)

264
Q

Histamine

A
  • processed by hypothalamus, then to cerebral cortex
  • increases wakefulness
  • activate the release of acetylcholine
265
Q

ACh is highest in which sleep cycles?

A

Awakened state and REM cycle

266
Q

3 groups of ACh neurons are located in which parts of the brain?

A

1 in the Hippocampus
2 located in the Pons and Forebrain

267
Q

Why is serotonin low during REM?

A

Because your body doesn’t want you to move when you are asleep (serotonin is most active during waking period)

268
Q

Arousal & Sleeplessness is controlled by which catecholamine via which brain region?

A

norepinephrine, and mediated by the Locus Coeruleus in the
pons.

269
Q

Higher Locus Coeruleus firing indicates what response?

A

Higher vigilance and focus

270
Q

T/F: Catecholamine agonists (e.g.,amphetamines) produce arousal and sleeplessness.

A

True

271
Q

Orexin

A
  • Secreted by the Hypothalamus
  • Stimulates other neurons to promote alertness & energy metabolism
  • high during exploratory activity
272
Q

Melatonin

A
  • Produced by the Pineal Gland in response to evening/darkness about 2 hours before normal sleep time
  • Serotonin is converted into melatonin
  • only needs about 1-2mg of exogenous melatonin 30min-1hr before bedtime for effectiveness
273
Q

Primary v. secondary insomnia

A
  • Primary insomnia: difficulty falling asleep after going to bed or after awakening during the night.
  • Secondary insomnia: inability to sleep due to another mental or physical condition (e.g., pain, medication)
274
Q

Drug dependency insomnia occurs in how many days?

A

3

275
Q

Chronic use of sleep-promoting drugs can cause what?

A

Rebound insomnia (difficulty sleeping that occurs when a person stops taking a medication that usually helps them sleep)

276
Q

Narcolepsy

A
  • orexin-related neurological disorder
  • those with narcolepsy is missing more that 85% of orexin-producing neurons
  • hereditary
  • inappropriate occurrence of REM-related symptoms
  • three primary symptoms: sleep attack, cataplexy, sleep paralysis
  • treated with modafinil
277
Q

REM sleep behavior disorder

A
  • Lack of muscle paralysis during REM, resulting in acting out of dreams
  • Typical onset after age 60
  • Believed to be neurodegenerative (~90% develop Parkinsons Disease, or Dementia with Lewy Body)
  • treated with clonazepam
278
Q

What are the two types of sleep apnea?

A
  • Obstructive Sleep Apnea: due to narrowing of airway (obesity, enlarged tonsils, hormonal changes)
  • Central Sleep Apnea: brain does not signal need to breathe.
279
Q

Maladaptive SWS behaviors

A
  • bedwetting due to muscle control being off
  • sleepwalking (wake them up!)
  • nigh terrors
  • most frequently seen in children, and it self-resolves over time
280
Q

T/F: up to 80% report sleep problems after TBI

A

True

281
Q

Various nap lengths and their effects

A

10-20min: best for boost of energy afterwards
30min: can leave you more groggy afterwards
60-90min: can help with learning afterwards

282
Q

pick up from emotions

A

Physiological Psychology (3 decks)

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