Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

OS > First Exam > Flashcards

First Exam Flashcards

1
Q

Lumbar flexion

A

40-90

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Lumbar extension

A

20-45

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Lumbar side bending left/right

A

15-30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Cervical rotation left/right

A

70-90

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Whole motion cervical rotation (R-L)

A

140-180

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Cervical side bending left/right

A

20-45

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

whole motion cervical bending

A

40-90

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

cervical flexion

A

45-90

chin to chest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

cervical extension

A

45-90

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

cervical whole motion flexion/extension

A

90-180

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

arm flexion

A

180

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

arm extension

A

60

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

abduction of arm

A

180

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

arm horizontal adduction AROM

A

40-50, OR 130-140

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

arm horizontal abduction AROM

A

130-145 OR 40-55

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

arm external rotation AROM

A

90

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

arm internal rotation AROM

A

70-90

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

arm flexed AROM

A

140-150

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

arm extended AROM

A

0-5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

forearm pronation/supination AROM

A

90

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

wrist flexion AROM

A

80-90

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

wrist extension AROM

A

70

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

wrist AB/radial AROM

A

20-30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

wrist AD/ulnar AROM

A

30-40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

knee straight hip flexion PROM

A

90

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

knee flexed hip flexed PROM

A

120-135

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

hip extension PROM

A

15-30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

prone hip external rotation PROM

A

40-60

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

prone hip internal rotation PROM

A

30-40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

seated hip internal rotation PROM

A

30-40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

seated hip external rotation PROM

A

40-60

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

supine hip internal rotation PROM

A

30-40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

supine hip external rotation PROM

A

40-60

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

hip abduction with knee extended PROM

A

45-50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

hip adduction with nine extended PROM

A

20-30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

knee flexion PROM

A

145-150

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

dorsiflex PROM

A

15-20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

plantar flex PROM

A

50-65

39
Q

ankle inversion AROM

A

35

40
Q

ankle eversion AROM

A

20

41
Q

What does TART stand rfor

A

Tissue texture changes
Asymmetry
Restriction of motion
Tenderness

42
Q

What are the three types of joints?

A

fibrous- skull articulations
cartilaginous- discs between vertebrae
synovial- extremities

43
Q

anatomic barrier

A

limit of motion imposed by anatomic structure; the limit of passive motion

44
Q

physiologic barrier

A

limit of active motion

45
Q

elastic barrier

A

range between the physiologic and anatomic barrier of motion in which passive ligamentous stretching occurs before tissue disruption

46
Q

pathologic barrier

A

permanent restriction of joint motion associated with pathologic change of tissues

47
Q

restrictive barrier

A

functional limit within the anatomic range of motion, which abnormally diminishes the normal physiologic range

48
Q

Be able to discuss a brief history of the life of AT Still

A
  • studied medicine and ministry under his father
  • 1849 married Mary Vaugh and continued studying under his father and began farming
  • 1855 began studying anatomy on Indian cadavers (cholera epidemic)
  • 1859 Mary Vaugh dies
  • 1860 marries Mary Wilson: has several kids, she’s dead by 1910
  • 1861-1864 survies in Union army (abolitionist), involved in battle of Westport, performed surgeon duties but was recorded as hospital steward
  • 1864 THREE OF HIS KIDS DIE OF SPINAL MENINGITIS FOLLOWED BY BABY WHO DIES OF PNEUMONIA
49
Q

Be able to discuss the historical development of medicine leading up to Dr. Still’s era

A
  • 1855 concept of homeostasis developed
  • 1865 introduction of phenol as a disinfectant (reduced surgical mortality 45%-15%)
  • 1876-1879 germ theory thanks to Pasteur and Koch
  • 1896 x-rays developed
  • 1890 sterile rubber gloves developed
  • 1905 local anesthetic first used for surgery
50
Q

Be able to describe the developments that helped shape Still’s new ideas into osteopathy

A
  • if drugs didn’t work, if purgatives and cathartics didn’t work, if medicine didn’t work, what would work…
  • he believed God had “certainly placed the remedy within the material house in which the spirit of life dwells”
  • “by adjusting the body in such a manner that the remedies may naturally associate themselves together, hear the cries, and relieve the afflicted”
51
Q

Know the important historical dates in the development of the osteopathic profession

A

June 22, 1874: Still flings tot he breeze the banner of osteopathy
-1889 coined the term osteopathy

52
Q

Know when the first school of osteopathy was founded and the faculty associated with it

A

October 3, 1892
The American School of Osteopathy (ASO)
Faculty- Still and William Smith, MD

53
Q

Be able to describe the basic tenants of osteopathic philosophy

A
  • the body is a unit; person is a unit of body, mind, spirit
  • body is capable of self-regulation, self-healing, and health maintenance
  • structure and function are reciprocally interrelated
  • rational treatment is based on an understanding of the basic principles of body unity, self-regulation, and the interrelationship of structure and function
54
Q

Define somatic dysfunction

A

impaired or altered function of related components of the somatic system: skeletal, arthrodial, myofascial structures, related vascular, lymphatic and neural elements

55
Q

What does TART stand for

A

tissue texture changes
asymmetry
restriction of motion
tenderness

56
Q

What are acute skin changes

A

warm, moist, red, inflamed (vascular and chemical changes)

57
Q

What are chronic skin changes

A

cool, pale (chronic increase in sympathetic tone), dry, scaly, cold, pale, shiny, hairless, pimples, folliculitis

58
Q

Define tone

A

normal feel of muscle in the relaxed state. contrast with hypertonicity or hypotonicity

59
Q

Define contraction

A

normal tone of a muscle when it shortens or is activated against resistance

60
Q

Define contracture

A

abnormal shortening of a muscle due to fibrosis. most often in the tissue itself, often result of chronic condition. muscle is no longer able to reach its full length.

61
Q

Define spasm

A

abnormal contraction maintained beyond physiologic need. most often sudden and involuntary muscular contraction that results in abnormal motion and is usually accompanied by pain and restriction of normal function.

62
Q

Define bogginess

A

increased fluid in a hypertonic muscle, similar to wet sponge

63
Q

Define ropiness

A

hard, firm, rope-like or cord-like muscle tone. usually indicates a chronic condition.

64
Q

What are acute tissue changes

A

boggy edema, acute congestion, fluid in area of damage drawn by chemical reactions

65
Q

What are chronic tissue changes

A

chronic congestion, doughy, stringy, fibrotic, ropy, thickened, contractures

66
Q

What are acute vascular changes

A

inflammation, vessel wall injury, endogenous peptide release

67
Q

What are chronic vascular changes

A

sympathetic tone increases vascular constriction

68
Q

What are acute sympathetic changes

A

sympathetic activity, but local vasoconstriction overpowered by local chemical release, net effect is vasodilation

69
Q

What are chronic sympathetic changes

A

vasoconstriction, hyper sympathetic tone, may be regional

70
Q

What are acute muscular changes

A

local increase in muscular tone, muscle contraction, spasm, increased tone of muscle spindle

71
Q

What are chronic muscular changes

A

decreased muscle tone, flaccid, mushy, limited range of motion due to contractures

72
Q

What is acute restriction of motion

A

range of motion is usually sluggish, may be guarding (to prevent further pain)

73
Q

What is chronic restriction of motion

A

limited range of motion, but motion itself feels normal

74
Q

Define end feel

A

the placatory experience or perceived quality of motion when a joint is moved to its limit- a barrier is approached

75
Q

What are three types of normal end feels and examples of each

A

bone to bone- elbow extension
soft tissue approximation- knee flexion
tissue stretch- ankle dorsiflexion, shoulder lateral rotation, finger extension

76
Q

What are four types of abnormal end feels and examples of each

A

early muscle spasm- protective spasm after injury
late muscle spasm- chronic spasm, think chronic tissue changes
hard capsular- frozen shoulder
soft capsular- synovitis (swelling of the knee after injury)

77
Q

Define tenderness

A

discomfort or pain elicited by the physician through palpation
a state of unusual sensitivity to touch or pressure

78
Q

How would a patient describe acute pain

A

sharp, severe, cutting

79
Q

How would a patient describe chronic pain

A

dull, ache, paresthesias (tingling, burning, gnawing, itching)

80
Q

Are somatovisceral effects common in acute or chronic visceral function?

A

Common in chronic conditions

81
Q

What are somatic dysfunctions named for?

A

“where they like to live”
position of ease
if a body segment freely rotates to the left, but is restricted to the right- the dysfunction is named rotated left

82
Q

Be able to describe who Dr. Adam Flexner was and summarize his significance to medical education

A

Authored a report on the state of medical education in the US (including DO schools), resulted in state licensing boards enforcing stricter requirements

83
Q

Be able to explain what the osteopathic profession contributed in the influenza pandemic in the early 1900s

A

Osteopathic care: .486% death rate

Medical/osteopathic care: 1.08% death rate

84
Q

Discuss osteopathy in the military

A
  • 1957 DOs allowed to serve in military
  • 1963 DOs accepted as equal to MDs in military
  • 1967 DOs drafted as medical officers
  • 1969 200 DOs now serving during height of the Vietnam War
  • 1977 Association of Military Osteopathic Physicians and Surgeons (AMOPS) formed
  • Today 10% of active military medical officers are DOs
85
Q

Discuss women in osteopathic medicine

A
  • 1892 Still supported women in medicine from the beginning and they were included in first class at ASO, Jeanette Bolles first woman to receive DO degree
  • 1920s formation of osteopathic women’s national association (OWNA)
  • 1940s decline in women applicants, after WWI scholarships set up for women as incentives
  • 1999 National Osteopathic Women Physicians Association established
  • Today: 40% of total enrollment is women
  • in 2007-2009 academic years more women than men in DO schools
86
Q

Significant women in osteopathic history

A
  • Louisa Burnes became foremost researcher in osteopathic medicine
  • Barbara Ross-Lee first african-american woman to be appointed dean of a US med school, NYCOM dean, NYIT vice president
87
Q

Discuss minorities in osteopathic medicine

A
  • cuban born Marcelino Oliva first minority-group president of AOA
  • William Anderson was first african-american president of the AOA, extensively involved in civil rights movement
  • 2009-10 40% of enrolled students represented minority enrollees
88
Q

Discuss expansion of osteopathic education

A
  • 1892 ASO founded
  • 1916 Kansas City College of Osteopathy and Surgery
  • 1926 Kirksville COS formed by merging ASO and AT Still COS
  • 1929 AOA allowed teaching pharmacology at its colleges
  • 1931 student loan fund established
  • 1936 first inspection and approval of osteopathic hospitals for intern training programs
  • 1938 AOA requires one year pre-professional study
  • 1945 low point of enrollment: 556 students
  • 1947 first approval of osteopathic hospitals for residency training
  • 1955 AMA recommends removal of “cult” label
  • 1964 DOs allowed and encouraged to enter AMA approved internships and residencies
  • 1986 first DOs accepted for residency training in Canada
89
Q

Describe the three basic body types

A
  • endomorph: predominantly endoderm (obese with increased fatty tissues)
  • mesomorph: predominantly mesoderm (appropriate fat and distribution)
  • ectomorph (tall, lanky person)
90
Q

What factors create asymmetry in patients

A

bone deformity, joint deformity, kyphoscoliosis, dress, occupation, mental attitude, habit, sacral base unleveling, lower extremity defects, somatic dysfunction

91
Q

What do you observe for asymmetry in an anterior view

A

head carriage, eye level, nose angle to midline, ear lobe level, ear prominence, nares size/shape, teeth alignment, shoulder height, clavicle angle to midline, carriage of arms, finger tip level, breast, angle of rib cage, umbilicus, waist crease, greater trochanter, crest of ilium, angle of patella, upper/lower leg, medial/lateral malleolus

92
Q

What do you observe for asymmetry in a posterior view

A

iliac crest heights, PSIS, sacral sulcus, greater trochanter, gluteal line, upper leg, popliteal space, medial/lateral malleolus, carriage of head, shoulder level, inferior angle of scapulas, arm carriage, waist crease, deviation of spinous processes from midline

93
Q

What do you observe for asymmetry in a lateral view

A

lordosis and kyphosis

OS (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions