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OS > Exam 3 OSCEs > Flashcards

Exam 3 OSCEs Flashcards

1
Q

If a patient has tight enough hamstrings what kind of dysfunction will they have?

A

hip extension dysfunction

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2
Q

What kind of restriction can lead to lateral knee pain?

A

IT Band restriction

hip abduction dysfunction

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3
Q

Grade: active muscle movement against gravity

A

3/5

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4
Q

Grade: barely detectable flicker

A

1/5

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5
Q

What all do you find in the central compartment of the hip?

A

labrum, ligamentum teres, articular surfaces

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6
Q

What all do you find in the peripheral compartment of the hip?

A

femoral neck, synovial lining

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7
Q

What all do you find in the lateral compartment of the hip?

A

gluteus medius, minimus, piriformis, IT band, trochanteric bursa

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8
Q

What all do you find in the anterior compartment of the hip?

A

Iliopsoas

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9
Q

If a patient has knock-knees what do we call that?

A

gene valgum

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10
Q

What are the nerve roots for the muscles in charge of knee extension?

A

L2-L4

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11
Q

What are the nerve roots for the muscles in charge of knee flexion?

A

L5-S1

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12
Q

A valgus force on the knee will cause what?

A

aDduction

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13
Q

What kind of dysfunction will have an ease of medial translator motion of the knee?

A

valgus

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14
Q

What does the anteroposterior glide of tibia on femur assess? How is it different from the anterior drawer test?

A

assess restricted motion, less force than drawer

draw assess excessive motion

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15
Q

What nerve runs around the fibular head and can get compressed by a fibular head fracture or somatic dysfunction?

A

common fibular

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16
Q

How do we assess the q angle?

A

one line goes from ASIS through patella

tibial tuberosity through patella

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17
Q

What are the medial bones of the foot?

A

navicular and cuneiforms

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18
Q

What bones make up the medial longitudinal arch?

A 
calcaneus
talus
navicular
cuneiforms 1-3
metatarsals 1-3
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19
Q

What makes up the transverse distal tarsal arch?

A

navicular, cuboid, cuneiforms 1-3, proximal metatarsals

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20
Q

What makes up the lateral longitudinal arch?

A

calcaneus
cuboid
metatarsals 4-5

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21
Q

What is the primary stabilizer of the medial ankle?

A

deltoid ligament

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22
Q

What does the plantar fascia attach to?

A

calcaneus and phalanges

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23
Q

What are the three tendons that pass through the tarsal tunnel?

A

posterior tibialis tendon
flexor digitorum longus
flexor hallicus longus

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24
Q

What does the fibularis longus attach to?

A

medial cuneiform and 1st metatarsal

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25
Q

What does the fibularis brevis attach to?

A

proximal portion of 5th metatarsal

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26
Q

An inversion injury to the forefoot can cause what ind of fracture where?

A

avulsion fracture of 5th metatarsal head = jones fracture

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27
Q

What does dorsiflexion and plantar flexion of the foot occur between?

A

talus and tib/fib

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28
Q

What does foot inversion and aversion occur between?

A

talus and calcaneus

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29
Q

What position should the foot be in to assess calcaneus inversion and eversion and why?

A

ankle at 90 to avoid excess laxity of joint

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30
Q

Plantar cuboid is associated with what?

A

posterior fibular head

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31
Q

Dorsal navicular is associated with

A

tight plantar fascia

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32
Q

Overall in the foot bones what kind of dysfunction is the most common?

A

plantar

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33
Q

What motions make up foot pronation?

A

abduction
eversion
dorsiflexion

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34
Q

What motions make up foot supination?

A

adduction
inversion
plantar flexion

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35
Q

What muscles are dorsiflexors? What nerve runs these bad boys and whatsthe root

A

tibialis anterior L4-L5
EHL L5
EDL L5
deep fibular

36
Q

What muscles are in charge of plantar flexion? Nerve and roots!

A 
gastric S1-S2
soleus S1-S2
FHL L5
FDL L5 
tibialis posterior (also inverts) L5
37
Q

What muscles are in charge of everting the foot? Nerve and root!

A

fibularis longus and brevis

superficial fibular nerve L5-S1

38
Q

What spinous process and transverse processes are at the inferior angle of the scapula?

A

T7 spinous

T8 TPs

39
Q

What vertebra is at the spine of the scapula?

A

T3

40
Q

What type of spinal mechanics does thoracic vertebra exhibit?

A

type I and II

41
Q

How do you assess passive side bending of vertebra?

A

push down on ipsilateral shoulder and monitor ipsilateral segmental sidebending

42
Q

How do you assess passive rotation in a seated position?

A

induce rotation via front of ipsilateral shoulder and monitor ipsilateral segmental

43
Q

If you’re assess thoracic spine and you have right PTPs on T7-9 and it doesn’t improve with flexion or extension what kind of dysfunction is it?

A

neutral so type I

44
Q

What does a 3+ DTR look like?

A

very brisk may or may not be normal

45
Q

What does a 4+ DTR look like?

A

repeating reflex, always abnromal

46
Q

What is a normal DTR rated?

A

2+

47
Q

Biceps DTR tests what nerve root?
Brachioradialis?
Triceps?

A

C5
C6
C7

48
Q

What is the Spurling maneuver?

A
  1. compress head in neutral
  2. compress head in extension
  3. sideband away from affected side then toward affected side and add compression
49
Q

What does a positive Spurling test look like and what does it indicate?

A

pain down arm in distribution of the nerve root

nerve root compression

50
Q

What type of spinal mechanics does the OA joint exhibit?

A

modified type 1- primary motions are flexion and extension but they still go oposite

51
Q

What type of spinal motion does the AA joint exhibit?

A

rotation only

52
Q

What type of spinal mechanics does the cervical vertebra 2-7 exhibit?

A

modified type 2: primary motions are F/E but they R and SB same side

53
Q

Where do you contact the OA joint to induce lateral translation?

A

occipital articulation

54
Q

Where do you contact the OA joint to induce rotation?

A

occipital ridge

55
Q

What is the key to assessing the AA joint?

A

fully flex the C spine

56
Q

Where do you contact the AA joint to assess rotation?

A

lateral mass of atlas

57
Q

the superior portion of the iliac crest corresponds with what spinous process?

A

L4

58
Q

Patellar reflex

A

L4

59
Q

Where would you have to have herniated disc to get a weird patellar reflex?

A

L3-L4

60
Q

Achilles reflex

A

S1

61
Q

What findings from the straight leg raising test (lasegue test) indicate what?

A

Less than 30 disc protrusion or rupture or radiculopathy
35-70 sciatic nerve irritation by stretching of dura
greater than 70 mechanical low back pain

62
Q

How do you perform the hip drop test?

A

pt bend on knee with both feet on grounded displace weight to leg that is not bending at knee

63
Q

What is the normal amount of lumbar side bending with the hip drop test? What is a positive test?

A

15-3

if it does not drop 15 it is positive test on the unsupported side

64
Q

How would you document this hip drop test: r iliac crest drops 10

A

+ R hip drop test -> problem sidebending left

65
Q

What type of spinal mechanics does lumbar vertebra demonstrate?

A

type I and II

66
Q

If someone had a super duper small carrying angle what would happen

A

arms would hit hips when swinging during walking

67
Q

Does ulnar abduction or adduction increasing the carrying angle

A

abduction

68
Q

What kind of force causes ulnar abduction? What does the wrist do?

A

valgus (push medially on lateral elbow and laterally at wrist)
ulnar deviation

69
Q

What is the reference point for naming ulnar abduction and adduction dysfunctions?

A

distal ulna

70
Q

with supination which way does the radial head move?

A

anterior

71
Q

Which way do the carpals move when we flex the wrist?

A

dorsal

72
Q

What’s the point of reference for MCP abduction and adduction?

A

long finger (middle)

73
Q

What does thumb abduction look like?

A

moves anterior from anatomical position

74
Q

Contraction of what muscle can cause an inhalation rib dysfunction?

A

pec muscles mainly minor

75
Q

What is an accessor muscle of inhalation when scapula is fixed in place such as when a patient is grasping a rail?

A

serratus anterior

76
Q

Rib 12 can help you identify which vertebra?

A

T12

77
Q

What ribs are typical? A typical?

A

typical 3-9

atypical all the rest duh

78
Q

What kind of motion does rib 1 have?

A

50% pump 50% bucket

79
Q

What kind of motion does rib 2 have?

A

primarily pump

80
Q

What kind of motions do ribs 3-6 have?

A

mix of pump and bucket further down you go is bucket

81
Q

Where do you place your hands to assess pump handle motion of ribs 3-6?

A

costochondral articulations

82
Q

Where do you put your hands to assess bucket handle motion?

A

midaxxilary line

83
Q

What kind of motions do ribs 7-10 have?

A

bucket

84
Q

What kind of motions do the floating ribs have and how do you assess them?

A

caliper

patient prone

85
Q

Restriction of ribs 11 and 12 is influenced by?

A

quadratus lumborum

86
Q

if a patient falls on outstretch hand in front of them what kind of somatic dysfunction do you expect?

A

radial head posterior somatic dysfunction

87
Q

If a patient falls back on an outstretched hand what kind of somatic dysfunction do you expect?

A

radial head anterior somatic dysfunction

OS (6 decks)

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