First Aid Flashcards

1
Q

What are Chiari I malformations associated with?

A

Syringomyelia

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2
Q

What’s a Chiari II malformation?

A

Herniation of low-lying cerebellar vermis and tonsils through foramen magnum?

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3
Q

What’s a Chiari II malformation associated with (2)?

A
  1. Hydrocephalus

2. Lumbosacral meningomyelocele

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4
Q

What condition involves agenesis of cerebellar vermis with cystic enlargement of 4th ventricle, filling the enlarged posterior fossa?

A

Dandy-Walker Syndrome

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5
Q

What is Dandy-Walker Syndrome associated with?

A
  1. Noncommunicating hydrocephalus

2. Spina bifida

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6
Q

What condition leads to a cystic cavity within the central canal of the spinal cord, leading to a “cape-like” bilateral loss of pain and temperature sensation in upper extremities, and is associated with Chiari malformations, trauma, and tumors?

A

Syringomyelia

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7
Q

What 3 cranial nerves are involved in taste?

A

7, 9, 10

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8
Q

What 3 cranial nerves are involved in tongue pain?

A

V3, 9, 10

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9
Q

What 2 cranial nerves are involved in tongue motor?

A

10, 12

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10
Q

Myelin is on which cells?

A

Oligodendrocytes in CNS and Schwann cells in PNS

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11
Q

What part of the brain is involved in thirst, water balance, hormones, circadians, temperature?

A

Hypothalamus

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12
Q

Which part of the hypothalamus synthesizes ADH and oxytocin?

A

Supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei

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13
Q

Where is ACh produced?

A

Basal nucleus of Meynert

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14
Q

Where is Dopamine produced?

A

Ventral tegmentum, SNc

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15
Q

Where is GABA produced?

A

Nucleus accumbens

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16
Q

Where is NE produced?

A

Locus ceruleus

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17
Q

Where is Serotonin produced?

A

Raphe nucleus

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18
Q

Which 2 diseases have decreased ACh?

A
  1. Alzheimer’s

2. Huntington’s

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19
Q

Which disease has increased ACh?

A

Parkinson’s

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20
Q

Which 2 diseases have decreased GABA?

A
  1. Anxiety

2. Huntington’s

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21
Q

Which EEG waveform is associated with awake eyes open?

A

Beta

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22
Q

Which EEG waveform is associated with awake eyes closed?

A

Alpha

“Blind people are alpha”

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23
Q

Which EEG waveform is associated with light sleep (N1)?

A

Theta

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24
Q

Which EEG waveform is associated with deeper sleep with bruxism (N2)?

A

Sleep spindles and K complexes

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25
Q

Which EEG waveform is associated with slow-wave sleep, nightwalking, night terrors, and bedwetting (N3)?

A

Delta

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26
Q

Which EEG waveform is associated with loss of motor tone, increased brain O2 use, variable pulse and BP, increased ACh, dreaming, nightmares, penile/clitoral tumescence, memory processing (REM)?

A

Beta

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27
Q

Depression ________ total REM sleep, but _________ REM latency?

A

Increases; decreases

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28
Q

What structure in the brain is associated with extraocular movements in REM sleep?

A

PPRF

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29
Q

Which nucleus receives input from the spinothalamic and dorsal column/medial lemniscus, and is involved in vibration, pain, pressure, proprioception, light touch, and temperature, and its destination is the primary somatosensory cortex?

A

Ventral Postero-lateral Nucleus (VPL)

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30
Q

Which nucleus receives input from the trigeminal and gustatory pathway, and is involved in face sensation and taste, and its destination is the primary somatosensory cortex?

A

Ventral Postero-medial Nucleus (VPM)

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31
Q

Which nucleus receives input from CN2 and is involved in vision, and its destination is the calcarine sulcus?

A

Lateral Geniculate Nucleus

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32
Q

Which nucleus receives input from the superior olive and inferior colliculus of tectum and is involved in hearing, and its destination is the auditory cortex of the temporal lobe?

A

Medial Geniculate Nucleus

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33
Q

Which nucleus receives input from the basal ganglia and cerebellum, is involved in motor function, and its destination is the motor cortex?

A

Ventral Lateral Nucleus

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34
Q

Which system is involved in the 5 Fs?

A

The limbic system

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35
Q

Which dopamine pathway, if its activity is decreased, leads to negative sx?

A

Mesocortical

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36
Q

Which dopamine pathway, if its activity is increased, leads to positive sx?

A

Mesolimbic

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37
Q

Which dopamine pathway, if its activity is decreased, leads to extrapyramidal sx?

A

Nigrostriatal

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38
Q

Which dopamine pathway, if its activity is decreased, leads to increased prolactin?

A

Tuberoinfundibular

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39
Q

Does proprioceptive information via the inferior cerebellar peduncle from spinal cord enter the cerebellum ipsilaterally or contralaterally?

A

Ipsilaterally

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40
Q

Which input to the cerebellum is contralateral?

A

Contralateral cortex via medial cerebellar peduncle

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41
Q

What do lateral cerebellar lesions present as?

A

Limb voluntary movements; when injured, tendency to fall toward ipsilateral side (side of lesion)

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42
Q

What do medial cerebellar lesions present as?

A

Truncal ataxia, wide-based gait, nystagmus, head tilting

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43
Q

Does the excitatory dopamine pathway lead to increased motion?

A

Yes

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44
Q

Does the inhibitory dopamine pathway lead to decreased motion?

A

Yes

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45
Q

Review brain anatomy and homunculus, pg 471

A

Good job

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46
Q

From superiomedial to inferolateral, what are the body parts of the motor/sensory homunculus?

A
Foot
Leg
Shoulder
Wrist
Hand
Thumb
Face
Mouth
Toes
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47
Q

Cerebral perfusion is primarily driven by what gas?

A

CO2

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48
Q

Which surface of the brain does the ACA supply?

A

Anteromedial

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49
Q

Which surface of the brain does the MCA supply?

A

Lateral

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50
Q

Which surface of the brain does the PCA supply?

A

Posteroinferior

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51
Q

Draw the Circle of Willis

A

Good job

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52
Q

Which 4 CN are above pons?

A

1, 2, 3, 4

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53
Q

Which 4 CN are in pons?

A

5, 6, 7, 8

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54
Q

Which 4 CN are in medulla?

A

9, 10, 11, 12

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55
Q

Which 4 CN nuclei are medial?

A

3, 4, 6, 12 (factors of 12)

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56
Q

What does the pineal gland secrete?

A

Melatonin

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57
Q

What is the superior colliculi involved with?

A

Conjugate vertical gaze

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58
Q

What is the inferior colliculi involved with?

A

Auditory

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59
Q

Where are the superior colliculi?

A

Midbrain

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60
Q

Where is the nucleus of CN11?

A

Spinal cord

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61
Q

What’s the mnemonic for remembering which words are motor, sensory, or both?

A
Some
Say
Marry
Money
But 
My 
Brother
Says
Big
Brains
Matter
Most
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62
Q

How many vagal nuclei are there?

A

3

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63
Q

What does the nucleus solitarius involve?

A

Visceral sensory information (taste, baroreceptors, gut distention) CNs 7, 8, 9

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64
Q

What does the nucleus ambiguus involve?

A

Motor innervation of pharynx, larynx, upper esophagus (swallowing, palate elevation) CNs 9, 10, 11

65
Q

What CNs are involved in the corneal reflex?

A

V1 and 7

66
Q

What CNs are involved in the lacrimation reflex?

A

V1 and 7

67
Q

What CNs are involved in the jaw jerk reflex?

A

2 and 3

68
Q

What CNs are involved in the gag reflex?

A

9 and 10

69
Q

Which CN innervates the muscles of mastication?

A

V3

70
Q

When a disc is herniated, which nerve is affected?

A

Usually the one below

71
Q

Which nerves exit above the corresponding vertebrae?

A

C1-C7

72
Q

How many cervical nerves are there?

A

8

73
Q

At what level does the spinal cord end in adults?

A

L1/L2

74
Q

What’s the function of the dorsal column?

A

Pressure, vibration, fine touch, proprioception

75
Q

What’s the function of the spinothalamic tract?

A

Pain, temperature

76
Q

What’s the function of the corticospinal tract?

A

Voluntary movement of contralateral limbs

77
Q

Where do the dorsal column tracts decussate?

A

Medulla

78
Q

Where do the spinothalamic tracts decussate?

A

Anterior white commissure of spinal cord at level

79
Q

Where do the corticospinal tracts decussate?

A

Caudal medulla

80
Q

What level does the Achilles reflex test?

A

S1

81
Q

What level does the patellar reflex test?

A

L4

82
Q

What level does the biceps and brachioradialis reflexes test?

A

C5

83
Q

What level does the triceps reflex test?

A

C7

84
Q

What level does the cremasteric reflex test?

A

L1, L2

85
Q

What level does the anal wink reflex test?

A

S3, S4

86
Q

A lesion in which area of the brain causes re-emergence of primitive reflexes?

A

Frontal lobe

87
Q

If the lesion is in the PPRF, which direction do the eyes look?

A

Away from lesion

88
Q

If the lesion is in the frontal eye fields, which direction do the eyes look?

A

Toward the lesion

89
Q

Which lesion presents with agraphia, acalcula, finger agnosia, and left/right disorientation?

A

Dominant parietal cortex

90
Q

Which lesion presents with agnosia of the contralateral side of the world?

A

Nondominant parietal cortex

91
Q

Which lesion presents with anterograde amnesia?

A

Hippocampus, bilateral

92
Q

Which lesion presents with resting tremor, chorea, and athetosis?

A

Basal ganglia

93
Q

Which lesion presents with contralateral hemiballismus?

A

Subthalamic nucleus

“Having a ball with the subwoofer”

94
Q

Which lesion presents with Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome (confusion, ataxia, nystagmus, opthalmoplegia, memory loss, confabulation, personality changes)?

A

Mamillary bodies, bilateral

95
Q

Which lesion presents with Kluver-Bucy syndrome (hyperphagia, hypersexuality, hyperorality)?

A

Amygdala, bilateral (HSV-1 encephalitis)

96
Q

Which lesion presents with Parinaud syndrome (paralysis of conjugate vertical gaze)?

A

Superior colliculus

97
Q

Which lesion presents with reduced levels of arousal and wakefulness?

A

Reticular activating system (midbrain)

98
Q

Which lesion presents with intention tremor, limb ataxia, loss of balance, and ipsilateral deficits?

A

Cerebellar hemisphere (lateral)

99
Q

Which lesion presents with truncal ataxia and dysarthria?

A

Cerebellar vermis (central)

100
Q

Which region of the brain is most vulnerable to ischemic hypoxia?

A

Hippo

101
Q

Which is the most common brain artery site of a thrombus?

A

MCA

102
Q

When do you administer tPA?

A

Within 3-4.5 hours of onset

103
Q

Which type of intracranial hemorrhage involves the MMA, presents with a lucid interval followed by rapid expansion that can lead to transtentorial herniation or CN 3 palsy and is biconvex and does not cross suture lines?

A

Epidural hematoma

104
Q

Which type of intracranial hemorrhage involves the bridging veins and is due to trauma, shaken babies, or atrophy, and can cause midline shift and crosses suture lines?

A

Subdural hematoma

105
Q

Which type of intracranial hemorrhage is often due to a berry or saccular aneurysm rupture, and presents with bloody tap, worst headache of life, vasospasm days later, and can develop hydrocephalus?

A

Subarachnoid hemorrage

106
Q

What do you use to prevent vasospasm in subarachnoid hemorrhages?

A

Nimodipine

107
Q

Which type of intracranial hemorrhage is usually due to systemic hypertension, vasculitis, or neoplasm and usually occurs in the basal ganglia and internal capsule?

A

Intraparenchymal hemorrhage

108
Q

Which artery stroke can cause contralateral hemiparesis, sensory loss, hemianopia, and either aphasia or neglect?

A

MCA

109
Q

Which artery stroke can cause contralateral leg weakness and executive dysfunction?

A

ACA

110
Q

Which artery stroke can cause hemianopia, pure sensory infarct (thalamus), memory impairment, and decreased level of consciousness?

A

PCA

111
Q

Which (broad) level of stroke can cause crossed sensory or motor findings, nystagmus, diplopia, vertiga, and Horner’s?

A

Brainstem

112
Q

Which (broad) level of stroke can cause ataxia, nystagmus, vertigo, nausea, headache, or rapid deterioration in consciousness?

A

Cerebellar

113
Q

Which type of stroke often has a characteristic pattern of pure motor, pure sensory, sensorimotor, ataxic hemiparesis, or clumsy hand dysarthria?

A

Lacunar

114
Q

Which artery of stroke causes contralateral paralysis of face and upper limb?

A

MCA

“Order MCdonalds drive-thru with your face and arm”

115
Q

Which artery of stroke causes contralateral paralysis of lower limb?

A

ACA

“Tore my ACA”

116
Q

Which artery of stroke causes contralateral paralysis of face and body?

A

Lenticulostriate (lacunar)

“Face, bodi, lenticulostri”

117
Q

Which artery of stroke causes contralateral paralysis of upper and lower limbs?

A

ASA

“Take ASA for upper and lower limb pain”

118
Q

What’s the most common site of a saccular (berry) aneurysm?

A

Junction of ACom and ACA

119
Q

What’s the tx for acute cluster headache?

A

Sumatriptan, 100% O2

120
Q

What’s the preventative tx for cluster headache?

A

Verapamil

121
Q

Lewy bodies are composed of what?

A

Eosinophilic inclusions (a-synuclein)

122
Q

What 2 meds can cause pseudotumor cerebri?

A
  1. Danazol

2. Tetracycline

123
Q

From low to high ….

A

Your pons will die (central pontine myelinolysis)

124
Q

From high to low …

A

Your brain will blow (cerebral edema/herniation)

125
Q

Why might Guillain-Barre cause papilledema?

A

Elevated CSF protein

126
Q

Where are the lesions in MS on MRI?

A

Periventricular

127
Q

Which demyelinating disease is AD inheritance and associated with hammer toe, foot drop, and sensory deficits?

A

Charcot-Marie-Tooth

128
Q

Which demyelinating disease is AR, involves deficiency of galactocerebrosidase (lysosomal storage), developmental delay, optic atrophy, and globoid cells?

A

Krabbe disease

129
Q

Which demyelinating disease is AR, lysosomal storage, leads to buildup of sulfatides and presents with ataxia and dementia?

A

Metachromatic leukodystrophy

130
Q

Which demyelinating disease involves the CNS, is seen in AIDS patients due to latent JC virus infection, and the risk is increased with natalizumab and rituxumab use?

A

PML

131
Q

Which disorder is X-linked, involves VLCFA and can lead to adrenal crisis?

A

Adrenoleukodystrophy

132
Q

Which neurocutaneous disorder has port-wine stain of face (CN V1/V2), leptomeningeal angioma, seizures, intellectual disability, and glaucoma?

A

Sturge-Weber

133
Q

Which neurocutaneous disorder is AD, has ash-leaf spots, angiofibromas, rhabdomyoma, intellectual disability, seizures, shagreen patches, and renal angiolipoma?

A

Tuberous Sclerosis

134
Q

Which neurocutaneous disorder is AD, cafe-au-lait spots, cutaneous neurofibromas, pheochromocytomas, lisch nodules (on iris)?

A

NF1

135
Q

Which neurocutaneous disorder is AD, involves bilateral acoustic schwannomas, juvenile cataracts, meningiomas, and ependymomas?

A

NF2

136
Q

Which neurocutaneous disorder is AD, involves hemangioblastomas in retina, brainstem, cerebellum, and spine, angiomas in skin etc, pheochromocytomas, and bilateral renal cell carcinomas?

A

Von Hippel-Lindau

137
Q

Which type of herniation can compress ACA?

A

Cingulate (subfalcine)

138
Q

Which type of herniation can cause rupture of basilar artery branches and is usually fatal?

A

Transtentorial

139
Q

Which type of herniation can cause down and out blown pupil?

A

Uncal

140
Q

Which type of herniation can cause coma and death when it compresses the brainstem?

A

Cerebellar tonsillar

141
Q

Which spinal cord lesion affects UMN and LMN but does not affect sensory or bowel/bladder function?

A

ALS

142
Q

What disease with asymmetric weakness (LMN only) might occur in someone unvaccinated?

A

Poliomyelitis

143
Q

What vitamin deficiency causes subacute combined degeneration of spinocerebellar tracts, lateral corticospinal tracts, and dorsal columns?

A

B12

144
Q

What does tertiary syphilis cause?

A

Tabes dorsalis (argyll robertson pupils, absence of DTRs, and positive Romberg)

145
Q

What’s an argyll robertson pupil?

A

It accommodates but does not react

146
Q

Which spinal cord lesion causes ipsilateral/contralateral everything, and sometimes even Horner’s if above T1?

A

Brown-Sequard Syndrome

147
Q

Which AR disorder causes staggering gait, falling, kyphoscoliosis, nystagmus, diabetes, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, and loss of DTRs during adolescence?

A

Friedrich Ataxia

148
Q

Where does the jaw deviate with CNV lesions?

A

Toward lesion

149
Q

Where does the uvula deviate with CN10 lesions?

A

Away from lesion

150
Q

Where does weakness occur with CN11 lesions?

A

Shoulder droops on side of lesion

151
Q

Where does the tongue deviate with CN12 lesions?

A

Toward lesion

152
Q

The ________ is spared in an UMN face lesion?

A

Forehead

153
Q

In Bell’s palsy, is the forehead affected?

A

Yes

154
Q

What mode of inheritance is the most common muscular dystrophy?

A

AD

155
Q

What’s the most common mononeuropathy in patients on hemodialysis, often caused by dialysis-related amyloidosis?

A

Carpal tunnel syndrome

156
Q

What part of the spinal cord contains pain/temperature and LMN?

A

Anterior cord

157
Q

What part of the spinal cord contains light touch/proprioception and some UMN?

A

Posterior cord

158
Q

What part of the cord is associated with arm motor function and can be damaged during whiplash?

A

Central cord

159
Q

What’s the most common cause of spontaneous lobar hemorrhage in adults >60?

A

Cerebral amyloid angiopathy