First-Aid Flashcards
Trivia Game
The EMS system is a network of trained professionals linked to proide “blank “, “blank” care for victims of sudden traumatic injury or illness.
A. life saving, high quality
B. advanced, out-of-hospital
C. advanced, life saving
D. accurate, first-aid
pg 37
B
advanced, out-of-hospital
The EMS system is a network of trained professionals linked to provide
advanced, out-of-hospital care for victims of sudden traumatic injury or illness.
pg 37
The duties of the criminal justice first-aid provider is….
A. ensure the safety of everyone
B. alerting the EMS system
C.Usually the first to provide basic first-aid
D. All of the above
pg 37
D
All of the above
The duties of the criminal justice first-aid provider are
ensuring the safety of everyone, alerting the EMS sytem, and is
usually the first to provide basic first-aid
pg 37
Your first-aid duties may include:
Gaining access to patients, assessing a patient for life threatening injuries, alerting EMS and relaying all relevant medical information, providing a patient with basic medical care, remaining with the patient till EMS arrive… and what else?
A. Wearing PPE
B. Alerting your OIC
C. A & D
D. Providing a patient with advanced medical care
pg 37-38
A
Wearing PPE
pg 37 - 38
To take some action to prevent harm to another, and for the failure of which one may be liable depending on the relationship of the parties and the circumstances.
A. Standard of Care
B. Breech of Duty
C. Duty to Act
D. Negligence
pg 39
C
Duty to Act
pg 39
When transporting an inmate in restraints to medical after a cell extraction he goes into cardiac arrest what do you do?
A. take him back to his dorm
B. continue taking him to medical
C. initiate first-aid
D. A & C
pg 39
C
initiate first-aid
“… the duty to render first-aid following a use of force incident when you know, or it is evident that the person detained or in custody sustained injuries or requires medical attention”
pg 39
The “blank” protects a first-aid provider from liability for emergency care or treatment performed in good faith or emergency care or treatment that would be expected of another first-aid provider with equal training.
A. Black’s Law Dictionary
B. Good Samaritan Act
C. BLS training
D. Good Faith Act
pg 40
B
Good Samaritan Act
The Good Samaritan Act protects a first-aid provider from liability for emergency care or treatment performed in good faith or emergency care or treatment that would be expected of another first-aid provider with equal training.
pg 40
“The failure to exercise the standarad of care that a reasonably prudent person would have exercised in a similar situation, any conduct that falls below the legal standard established to protect others against unreasonable risk of harm….”
A. Breach of Duty
B. Duty to Act
C. Negligence
D. Causation
pg 40
C
Negligence
pg 40
Negligence only occurs if what four conditions are present?
A. duty to act, breach of standard of care, causation, damages
B. damages, breach of standard of care, abandonment, not following universal precautions
C. damages, abandonment, lack of consent, duty to act
D. abandonment, damages, duty to act, lack of consent
pg 41
A
duty to act, breach of standard of care, causation, damages
pg 41
A positive confirmation an example being a physical gesture such as a nod in agreement is what type of consent?
A. implied
B. informed
C. A & D
D. expressed
pg 41
D
expressed consent
pg 41
A patient that is confirmed to be under the influence of alcohol with an altered mental status is able to refuse medical care; true or false?
pg 41
False
“To refuse medical care, a patient must be competent….Consider an adult incompetent if they are under the influence of alcohol or drugs with an altered mental status and impaired judgement…..”
pg 41
What delivers oxygen to and removes carbon dioxide from the blood?
A. circulatory system (cardiovascular)
B. respiratory system
C.nervous system
D. endocrine system
pg 47
B
respiratory system
pg 47
The following are major arteries that determine blood flow and are used to feel for a patient’s pulse EXCEPT :
A. radial
B. femoral
C. brachial
D. temporal
pg 48
D
temporal
The four major arteries….
radial, femoral,
brachial, carotid
pg 48
The largest organ of the body.
A. Intestines
B. skin
C. liver
D. brain
pg 49
B
skin
pg 49
The central nervous system has two main systems these are what?
A. central nervous system, automatic nervous system
B. peripheral nervous system, somatic nervous system
C. central nervous system, somatic nervous system
D. peripheral nervous system, central nervous system
pg 49
D
peripheral nervous system, central nervous system
pg 49
This gives the body shape, protects internal organs, and allows for body movement.
A. muscular system
B. skeletal system
C. nervous system
D. circulatory system
pg 49
A
muscular system
pg 49
The muscular system is made up of what three specific types of muscle?
A. voluntary, involuntary, semivoluntary
B. voluntary, involuntary, smooth
C. involuntary, smooth, cardiac
D. voluntary, smooth, cardiac
pg 49
D
voluntary, smooth, cardiac
smooth, and cardiac are both types of involuntary muscle
pg 49
The three practices used to protect yourself from pathogens when providing emergency first-aid are all of the following EXCEPT :
A. universal precautions
B. hand hygiene
C. standard precautions
D. body substance isolation (BSI)
pg 51
B
hand hygiene
Hand hygiene is a part of all practices but is not a practice itself
pg 51
OSHA requires “blank” bags or container for storing biomedical waste.
A. labeled
B. combustible
C. Both A & B
D. color-coded
pg 54
D
color-coded
“OSHA requires color-coded bags or containers for storing biomedical waste, such as red or yellow bags…”
pg 54
Airborne diseases can be transmitted from person to person in these ways EXCEPT:
A. talking
B. sneezing
C. spitting
D. coughing
pg 55
C
spitting
“An infected person who talks, sings, coughs, or sneezes into the air….can spread airborne pathogens.”
pg 55
Some ways to prevent the spread of Methicillin-Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus (MRSA) are the following EXCEPT:
A. Washing towels, equipment, uniforms, and other laundry in hot water and detergent daily
B. Not sharing equipment, towels, soap, or any personal care items
C. Keeping all skin wounds completed covered with a bandage
D. Keeping your hands near your nose, mouth, and eyes
pg 57
D
Keeping your hands near your nose, mouth, and eyes
pg 57
What are the four components of scene size-up?
A. scene safety, mechanism of injury or nature of illness, the number of victims, the need for more rescuers and special equipment
B. scene safety, the number of victims, amount of medical supplies
necessary, amount of PPE on hand
C. mechanism of injury or nature of illness, the need for more rescuers
and special equipment, amount of medical supplies necessary, total
number of responding units
D. mechanism of injury or nature of illness, scene safety, amount of PPE
on hand, the number of victims
pg 58
A
scene safety, mechanism of injury or nature of illness, the number of victims, the need for more rescuers and special equipment
pg 58
AVPU stands for what?
A. Airway, Veins, Pulse, Unresponsive
B. Alert, Verbal, Pain, Unresponsive
C. Alert, Veins, Pain, Unresponsive
D. Airway, Verbal, Pulse, Unresponsive
pg 60
B
Alert, Verbal, Pain, Unresponsive
pg 60
MARCH stands for what?
A. Massive Hemorrhage, Airway, Respirations, Circulation, Hypothermia/ Head injury
B. Movement, Airway, Respirations, Cranium, Hyperthermia
C. Massive Hemorrhage, Alert, Recovery, Circulation, Head injury/
Hyperthermia
D. Massive Hemorrhage, Airway,Respirations, Cranium, Hypothermia
pg 61
A
Massive Hemorrhage, Airyway, Respirations, Circulation, Hypothermia / Head Injury
pg 61
What mnemonic do we follow when conducting our primary assessment?
A. DOTS
B. START
C. MARCH
D. PMS
pg 61
C
MARCH
We complete the primary assessment in the exact order, priority of MARCH
pg 61
Other than head tilt what is a technique we use to establish an airway?
A. Mouth Gape
B. Jaw Thrust
C. Tongue Press
D. Both A & B
pg 61 - 62 (BLS training video)
B
Jaw Thrust
pg 61 - 62 (BLS training video)
What does DOTS stand for?
A. Deformities, Open Injuries, Tenderness, Swelling
B. Deformities, Obstruction, Treatment, Swelling
C. Disorder, Open Injuries, Tenderness, Spinal
D. Distress, Obstruction, Tenderness, Spinal
pg 63
A
Deformities, Open Injuries, Tenderness, Swelling
pg 63
What does PMS stand for?
A. Pain, Massive Hemorrhage, Sensory
B. Pulse, Motor, Sensory
C. Pain, Motor, Swelling
D. Pulse, Massive Hemorrhage, Swelling
pg 64
B
Pulse, Motor, Sensory
pg 64
When conducting a secondary assessment what mnemonics do we use?
A. MARCH
B. DOTS
C. PMS
D. Both B & C
pg 63 - 64
D
Dots, and PMS
pg 63 - 64
When performing a comprehensive physical assessment during a secondary assessment we inspect and touch the, head, eyes, neck, shoulder,chest and abdomen, lower and upper extremities; and what else?
A. Spine and back, feet and hands
B. spine and back
C. Pelvis and groin, spine and back
D. feet and hands
pg 64 - 65
C
Pelvis and groin, spine and back
pg 64 - 65
This helps maintain an open airway should the patient becaome nauseated or vomit, and may prevent breathing restrictions, such as positional asphyxia.
A. Prone position
B. Recovery position
C. Supine position
D. Both B & C
pg 67
B
recovery position
pg 67
The process of sorting and categorizing patients.
A. color coding
B. triage
C. treatment
D. assessment
pg 80
B
Triage
pg 80
What does RPM stand for?
A. respirations per minute
B. respiration, perfusion, mental status
C. respiration, pain, massive hemorrage
D. respiration, pulse, mental status
pg 81
B
respiration, perfusion, mental status
pg 81
In the order of immediate, delayed, ambulatory minor, and deceased what are the four colors used during triage?
A. Black (immediate), Yellow (delayed), Green (ambulatory minor), Red (deceased)
B. Red (immediate), Green (delayed), Yellow (ambulatory minor), Black (deceased)
C. Green (immediate), Yellow (delayed), Black (ambulatory minor), Red (deceased)
D. Red (immediate), Yellow (delayed), Green (ambulatory minor), Black (deceased)
pg 81
D
Red (immediate), Yellow (delayed), Green (ambulatory minor), Black (deceased)
pg 81
When you are treating a fellow officer for a massive hemorrhage in an area with an active threat is an example of what type of care when under threat?
A. Evacuation care
B. Direct Threat care
C. Indirect Threat care
D. Tactical Field care
pg 83
B
Direct Threat care
pg 83
A scene in which you are moving towards transporting an injured officer to a medical treatment facility, it can also refer to an area that has been cleared of threats and may include triage areas and incident command posts.
A. Evacuation care
B. Tactical Field care
C. Cold zone
D Both A & C
pg 84
D
Both A & C
Evacuation care, and Cold zone
pg 84
The failure of the heart and blood vessels to maintain enough oxygen-rich blood flowing to vital organs of the body.
A. Shock
B. Trauma
C. Hemorrhage
D. TBI
pg 90
A
shock
pg 90
When treating a patient for shock all of the following are steps of treatment EXCEPT :
A. Maintaining an open airway
B. Applying cooling pads to different areas of the body
C. Elevating the lower extremities
D. Covering them with a suitable material to maintain body heat
pg 91
B
applying cooling pads to different areas of the body
Keeping the body WARM is the goal during shock
pg 91
You have a patient who sustained major injuries to their legs; their skin is pale, cool, and clammy they also have an altered mental status in the absence of a head injury and are complaining of intense nausea and excessive thirst. What is going on?
A. Patient has a sucking chest wound
B. Patient has a traumatic brain injury (TBI)
C. Patient is experiencing shock
D. Patient is having a panic attack
pg 90
C
patient is experiencing shock
pg 90
Any injury that is bleeding internally or has pooling blood under the skin.
A. closed soft-tissue injury
B. open wound
C. open soft-tissue injury
D. puncture wound
pg 92
A
closed soft-tissue injury
Internally is our key word for closed there is no blood outside the body
pg 92
The three types of bleeding include all EXCEPT:
A. arterial
B. internal
C. capillary
D. venous
pg 93
B
internal
internal bleeding describes WHERE not type
pg 93
Dark red blood flowing steadily from a wound is what type of bleeding?
A. arterial
B. venous
C. capillary
D. All of the above
pg 93
B
venous
pg 93
Which of these are tools used to stop bleeding?
A. tourniquet
B. hemostatic gauze or dressing
C. dressings
D. all of the above
pg 93 - 94
D
All of the above
pg 93 - 94
When applying a tourniquet is written on the patient to alert medical personnel of their tourniquet?
A. The time the tourniquet was applied
B. A “T” on their forehead
C. The word “tourniquet”
D. Both A & B
pg 96
B
A “T” on their forehead
This is only to ALERT medical personnel
pg 96
A patient has a pen stabbed through their upper thigh these are all steps to treatment EXCEPT
A. Cutting away clothing around the impaled object
B. Applying proper dressing to prevent further contamination
C. Removing the object to pack the wound
D. Stopping the bleeding
pg 99
C
Removing the object to pack the wound
We NEVER remove an impaled object
pg 99
Some symptoms of spinal injuries include; respiratory distress, persistent erection, weakness in the arms or legs with or without movement, constant or intermittent pain or tenderness in the neck or back and what else?
A. loss of bladder or bowel control
B. tingling, numbness, loss of sensation in upper or lower extremities
C. seizures
D. Both A & B
pg 103
D
Both A & B
Loss of bladder or bowel control, and tingling,numbness, loss of sensation in the upper or lower extremities
pg 103
When stabilizing the head of a patient with a suspected spinal injury when can you leave that position?
A. When you get tired
B. When another equally trained officer arrives to take over
C. When EMS arrives
D. Both B & C
pg 103
C
When EMS arrives
MINIMAL movement is key and a handoff can cause unecessary motion
pg 103
Symptoms of a traumatic brain injury (TBI) include; altered mental status, unequal size of pupils, trouble breathing, vomiting, seizures, and what else?
A. coma
B. paralysis
C. discoloration around the eyes and behind the ears
D. all of the above
pg 105
D
All of the above
pg 105
This results from blunt force trauma to the chest area.
A. sucking chest injury
B. open chest injury
C. flail chest injury
D. closed chest injury
pg 108
D
Closed chest injury
pg 108
This occurs when two or more adjacent ribs are fractures in two or more places due to blunt force trauma.
A. sucking chest injury
B. open chest injury
C. flail chest injury
D. closed chest injury
pg 108
C
Flail chest injury
pg 108
This occurs when there is a penetration through the chest wall. Air and blood enter the area surrounging the lungs and create a change in pressure of the chest cavity.
A. sucking chest injury
B. open chest injury
C. flail chest injury
D. closed chest injury
pg 108
B
Open Chest Injury
A sucking chest wound is a larger hole in the chest wall
pg 108
This is an open wound where the organs protrude from the abdominal cavity.
A. lacerations
B. abdominal evisceration
C. amputation
D. extremity fracture
pg 110
B
Abdominal evisceration
pg 110
True or False:
When handling an abdominal evisceration it is best practice to move the exposed organs in a way to prevent further contamination?
pg 110
FALSE
*Do not touch or reinsert exposed organ(s). Repositioning the organ can stop blood flow.
pg 110
True or False:
When handling an amputated part it is best practice to not place it directly on ice.
pg 111
TRUE
“Try to find the amputated part. Wrap it……and keep it cool but do not place it directly on ice”
pg 111
You respond to a situation where a patient has broken their arm and the bone is sticking out from the skin, what type of fracture is this?
A. closed fracture
B. open fracture
C. dislocation fracture
D. extreme fracture
pg 112
B
Open Fracture
pg 112
What type of burn damages the first two skin layers, causing swelling and red, white or splotchy skin. Blisters may appear and can feel very painful.
A. superficial burns
B. full-thickness burns
C. partial-thickness burns
D. Chemical burns
pg 114
C
Partial-thickness burns
pg 114
The four common causes of burns are all EXCEPT:
A. thermal
B. inhalation
C. radiation
D. chemical
pg 115
C
radiation
fun fact radiation burns refer to sun burns as well
pg 115
True or False:
When responding to an electrical burn incident you call EMS even if the patient states that they are feeling fine?
pg 117
TRUE
Call EMS even if the patient states that they are feeling fine
pg 117
This is when you take too much of a substance or more than the recommended amout that you body can safely handle.
A. Overdose
B. Withdrawal
C. Mental health issue
D. Excited delirium
pg 118
A
Overdose
pg 118
There is a large quantity fentanyl loosely spread across a desk in a small office room, with more stashed tightly behind the built in drawers on the desk; what level of risk exposure is this?
A. Low Risk of Exposure
B. Moderate Risk of Exposure
C. High Risk of Exposure
D. No Risk of Exposure
pg 120
C
High Risk of Exposure
pg 120
True or False:
When responding to a fentanyl exposure using alcohol, hand sanitizer, or any solvent to remove the fentanyl is encouraged and best practice.
pg 120
FALSE
Alcohol, hand sanitizer, or any solvent can increase your skin’s ability to absorb the drug.
pg 120
Symptoms of acute withdrawal or detox include; insomnia or sleep disturbances, irritability, aggression, or hostility, poor memory, increased sensitivity to stress and what else?
A. substance cravings
B. severe mood swings
C. depression
D. All of the above
pg 121
D
All of the above
pg 121
A hormonse that converts sugar, starches, and other food into energery needed for daily life.
A. diabetes
B. insulin
C. estrogen
D. testosterone
pg 123
B
insulin
pg 123
With this type of diabetes the body does not produce or produces very little insulin.
A. Gestational
B. Type II
C. Type I
D. Both B &C
pg 123
C
Type I diabetes
pg 123
Signs and symptoms of a diabetic emergency can include the following:
A. sweet, fruity, or acetone-smelling breath
B. intoxicated appearance that may mimic drunken behavior
C. dizziness and drowsiness
D. All of the above
pg 123
D
All of the above
pg 123
Is a burst of uncontrolled electrical activity between cells in the brain.
A. panic attack
B. epilepsy
C seizure
D. All of the above
pg 124
C
Seizure
pg 124
Various causes of seizure include; alcohol, illegal drug use, brain abnormalities, infections, lack of sleep, genetic influences as well as the following EXCEPT:
A. stroke
B. shock
C. head trauma
D. extreme stress
pg 124
D
extreme stress
pg 124
BEFAST stands for what?
A. Balance, Eyes, Face, Arm, Speech, Time
B. Behavior, Eyes, Face, Arm, Seizure, Time
C. Behaviour, Epilepsy, Fast, Arm, Seizure, Time
D. Balance, Eyes, Fast, Airway, Speech, Time
pg 126
A
Balance, Eyes, Face, Arm, Speech, Time
pg 126
