Fire Officer NFPA 1021 - Jones and Bartlett (Third Edition) Flashcards

1
Q
1. According to the NFPA, how many levels of Fire Officers are there?
A) 2
B) 3 
C) 4
D) 5
A

C) 4

Answer: C
Level: I/II
Page: 4

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2
Q
2. What is the lowest level of Fire Officer that is qualified for a Chief Officer position?
A) II 
B) III
C) IV
D) V
A

B) III

Answer: B
Level: I/II
Page: 4

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3
Q
  1. According to NFPA 1021, does a Fire Officer II have to meet the requirements of Fire Officer I?
    A) No, the two certifications are parallel, and one is not more advanced than the other.
    B) No, not formally, but it is a good idea.
    C) No, but both levels must be certified as Fire Fighter II.
    D) Yes, Fire Officer I is a prerequisite for Fire Officer II.
A

D) Yes, Fire Officer I is a prerequisite for Fire Officer II.

Answer: D
Level: II,
Page 16

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4
Q
4. Which term does the International Association of Fire Chiefs use for a Fire Officer II?
A) Station Officer 
B) Managing Fire Officer
C) Supervising Fire Officer
D) Administrative Line Officer
A

B) Managing Fire Officer

Answer: B
Level: II
Page: 16

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5
Q
5. All of the following are common ways of organizing a fire department except one. Choose the exception.
A) Function
B) Geography 
C) Demographics
D) Staffing
A

C) Demographics

Answer: C
Level: I,
Page 12-13

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6
Q
6. Which of the four functions of management deals with developing a scheme, program, or method that is worked out beforehand to accomplish an objective?
A) Organizing
B) Leading
C) Controlling 
D) Planning
A

D) Planning

Answer: D
Level: I
Page: 13

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7
Q
7. Which type of organizational document establishes or prescribes specific operational or administrative methods to be followed routinely for the performance of designated operations or actions?
A) Policy 
B) Standard operating procedure
C) Rule
D) Regulation
A

B) Standard operating procedure

Answer: B
Level: I
Page: 14

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8
Q
1. What is the term for the ability of a test to measure what it is intended to measure on a consistent basis?
A) Validity
B) Objectivity 
C) Reliability
D) Selectivity
A

C) Reliability

Answer: C
Level: I/II
Page 29

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9
Q
2. To be effective in a role-playing exercise, a candidate’s supervisory decisions should be strictly based on \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A) past practice
B) the larger context
C) the subordinate’s work history 
D) Policies and Regulations
A

D) Policies and Regulations

Answer: D
Level: I/II
Page 35-36

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10
Q
3. Which level of Fire Officer would expect to find an examination question pertaining to the evaluation of a fire company’s performance?
A) Direct line officer
B) Administrative officer
C) Supervising fire officer 
D) Managing fire officer
A

D) Managing fire officer

Answer: D
Level: I/II
Page 29

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11
Q
  1. Which statement best summarizes the role of the Supervising Fire Officer in decision making and problem solving?
    A) All serious issues will be deferred entirely to the Chiefs for their handling.
    B) Fire Officers will work together with Chiefs on issues that come up, and they will present a united front to fire fighters.
    C) Chiefs will be available for consultation, but the Fire Officers will run their stations.
    D) Fire Officers will run their own stations, leaving the Chiefs out of it entirely.
A

C) Chiefs will be available for consultation, but the Fire Officers will run their stations.

Answer: C
Level: I
NFPA Line Item: N/A
Page: 44

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12
Q
2. The formal Fire Department organization considers a Fire Officer to be the representative of whom?
A) The customer
B) The fire fighter
C) The local government 
D) The Fire Chief
A

D) The Fire Chief

Answer: D
Level: I
NFPA Line Item: N/A
Page: 46

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13
Q
  1. Fire Officers should consult their supervisors if they are going to make a decision that __________________.
    A) goes beyond their scope of authority
    B) will be felt differently by different people
    C) is not explicitly spelled out in a directive from above
    D) has no explicit precedent in that department
A

A) goes beyond their scope of authority

Answer: A
Level: I
NFPA Line Item: 4.1.1
Page: 50

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14
Q
  1. It is said that Fire Officers should “walk the talk.” What does that mean?
    A) They should use fire-service–specific language with fire fighters.
    B) They should be willing to back up their subordinates.
    C) They should be willing to complete any orders.
    D) They should demonstrate the behaviors they say are important.
A

D) They should demonstrate the behaviors they say are important.

Answer: D
Level: I
NFPA Line Item: 4.1.1
Page: 51

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15
Q
  1. According to Annex A of NFPA 1021, public safety personnel must make choices based on the ________________________.
    A) swiftest mitigation of the original and consequent incidents
    B) minimal expenditure of resources to correct the problem
    C) maximum benefit to the citizens and the community
    D) closest adherence possible to public speculations
A

C) maximum benefit to the citizens and the community

Answer: C
Level: I
NFPA Line Item: 4.1.1
Page: 51

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16
Q
6. According to the International Association of Fire Chiefs, a person who worked as a Managing Fire Officer for 3 to 5 years, is certified at the NFPA Fire Officer III level, and has completed formal education equivalent to a Bachelor’s degree is known as a(n) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A) Administrative Fire Officer
B) Tactical Fire Officer
C) Executive Fire Officer
D) Career Fire Officer
A

A) Administrative Fire Officer

Answer: A
Level: I
NFPA Line Item: N/A
Page: 57

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17
Q
7. \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the complex system of inherent attributes that determine a person’s moral and ethical actions and reactions.
A) Honor 
B) Integrity
C) Veracity
D) Reliability
A

B) Integrity

Answer: B
Level: I
NFPA Line Item: 4.1.1
Page: 50

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18
Q
  1. What is an effective method of providing feedback to responders for improving their emergency radio communications skills?
    A) Running a simulation communications exercise with portable radios
    B) Installing microphone filters on radios that do not allow shouting
    C) Having personnel listen to recordings of their own radio transmissions during emergencies
    D) Running an exercise in which, each intended communication is delayed 10 seconds, then allowed only 3 seconds to take place
A

C) Having personnel listen to recordings of their own radio transmissions during emergencies

Answer: C
Level: I
NFPA Line Item: 4.2.1, 4.4.5
Page: 67

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19
Q
2. What does the “P” stand for in SOP?
A) Practice
B) Personnel
C) Premises 
D) Procedure
A

D) Procedure

Answer: D
Level: II
NFPA Line Item: 5.6.3
Page: 72

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20
Q
3. Which type of documents are SOPs?
A) Formal and permanent
B) Formal and temporary
C) Informal and permanent
D) Informal and temporary
A

A) Formal and permanent

Answer: A
Level: II
NFPA Line Item: 5.6.3
Page: 73

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21
Q
4. Which of the following is a type of communication that is archived as a permanent file?
A) External communication
B) Informal communication 
C) Formal communication
D) Internal communication
A

C) Formal communication

Answer: C
Level: II
NFPA Line Item: 5.6.3
Page: 72

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22
Q
5. Which formal document addresses a specific subject, policy, condition, or situation?
A) Routine correspondence
B) Legal correspondence
C) An announcement 
D) A general order
A

D) A general order

Answer: D
Level: II
NFPA Line Item: 5.6.3
Page: 73

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23
Q
1. What is the leading cause of on-duty death among fire fighters?
A) Burns
B) Falls or crushing
C) Asphyxiation 
D) Sudden cardiac death
A

D) Sudden cardiac death

Answer: D
Level: I/II
NFPA Line Item: 4.7.3, 5.7
Page: 87, 102

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24
Q
  1. What is the likelihood of fire fighters dying of a heart attack versus people in other occupations?
    A) Fire fighters are more likely to die of a heart attack.
    B) Fire fighters are equally as likely to die of a heart attack.
    C) Fire fighters are less likely to die of a heart attack.
    D) There is no consistent comparison.
A

A) Fire fighters are more likely to die of a heart attack.

Answer: A
Level: II
NFPA Line Item: 5.7
Page: 101

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25
Q
3. Approximately \_\_\_\_\_ of fire fighters who die in vehicle collisions are not wearing a seat belt.
A) 25 percent
B) 40 percent
C) 60 percent 
D) 75 percent
A

D) 75 percent

Answer: D
Level: I
NFPA Line Item: 4.7.1, 4.7.3
Page: 88

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26
Q
4. NFPA 1500 requires \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ to track identities, assignments, and locations of all fire fighters operating at an incident scene.
A) tracking boards
B) helmet tags
C) a personnel tracking database 
D) a personnel accountability system
A

D) a personnel accountability system

Answer: D
Level: I
NFPA Line Item: 4.2.1, 4.7, 4.7.3
Page: 90

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27
Q
5. What is one of the most important reasons for establishing and maintaining an effective incident command structure at every incident?
A) Reduce costs 
B) Promote situational awareness
C) Perform risk–benefit analysis
D) Justify use of human resources
A

B) Promote situational awareness

Answer: B
Level: I
NFPA Line Item: 4.2.1, 4.7, 4.7.3
Page: 91

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28
Q
  1. Who determines when it is safe to reduce the level of PPE at an incident scene?
    A) Safety officer only
    B) Safety officer and company officer
    C) Incident Commander and Safety Officer
    D) Incident commander and company officer
A

C) Incident Commander and Safety Officer

Answer: C
Level: I
NFPA Line Item: 4.2.1, 4.7, 4.7.1
Page: 96

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29
Q
  1. All of the following are phases of an accident investigation except one. Choose the exception.
    A) Identification and collection of evidence
    B) Employee administrative action
    C) Interviewing of witnesses
    D) Written documentation phase
A

B) Employee administrative action

Answer: B
Level: I
NFPA Line Item: 4.7.2
Page: 99

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30
Q
8. In addition to meeting regulatory requirements, how can records of accidents be used?
A) Identifying accident-prone employees
B) Insurance reporting 
C) Identifying trends
D) Employee administrative action
A

C) Identifying trends

Answer: C
Level: II
NFPA Line Item: 5.7, 5.7.1
Page: 104

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31
Q
1. What is the term used for the process of setting performance standards and evaluating performance against those standards?
A) Performance management
B) Labor standards
C) Labor relations
D) Staffing
A

A) Performance management

Answer: A
Level: II
NFPA Line Item: 5.2, 5.2.1
Page: 121

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32
Q
  1. Gary Yukl described leadership as the process of influencing others to ______________________.
    A) be productive regardless of their level of motivation B) understand and agree about what needs to be done
    C) be willing to set aside their own agenda for the greater good
    D) prioritize group identity over individual identity
A

B) understand and agree about what needs to be done

Answer: B
Level: I/II
NFPA Line Item: N/A
Page: 128

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33
Q
  1. In which emergency is a democratic leadership style appropriate?
    A) When developing an IAP for a complex situation
    B) Whenever the span of control is exceeded
    C) When immediate action is required
    D) There are no emergency situations where it is appropriate.
A

A) When developing an IAP for a complex situation

Answer: A
Level: I
NFPA Line Item: 4.2.1, 4.2.2
Page: 129

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34
Q
  1. In which situation is an autocratic leadership style required?
    A) There are not enough personnel to cover all the usual roles of an evolution.
    B) There is a unified command structure.
    C) The operation is expected to go beyond a single operational period.
    D) The fire company is involved in a high-risk emergency scene activity.
A

D) The fire company is involved in a high-risk emergency scene activity.

Answer: D
Level: I
NFPA Line Item: 4.2.1, 4.2.2
Page: 129

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35
Q
4. Which leadership style uses all the ingenuity and resourcefulness of the group in determining how to meet an objective or complete a task?
A) Democratic
B) Laissez-faire
C) Autocratic
D) Centralized
A

A) Democratic

Answer: A
Level: I
NFPA Line Item: 4.2.1, 4.2.2
Page: 129

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36
Q
5. A goal of an effective Fire Officer is to delegate decision making in routine activities to the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A) most experienced individual 
B) lowest possible level
C) most qualified individual
D) group consensus
A

B) lowest possible level

Answer: B
Level: I
NFPA Line Item: 4.2.2
Page: 130

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37
Q
6. According to Studies of Social Power, an Incident Commander directing resources on an incident is an example of \_\_\_\_\_ power.
A) reward
B) referent
C) coercive 
D) legitimate
A

D) legitimate

Answer: D
Level: I
NFPA Line Item: N/A
Page: 130

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38
Q
7. Which of the following is a key component of leading?
A) Motivating
B) Delegating
C) Empathizing
D) Following
A

A) Motivating

Answer: A
Level: II
NFPA Line Item: 5.2.1
Page: 135

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39
Q
8. Which of the following is one of the two unique leadership challenges faced by Fire Officers?
A) Recruitment 
B) Fire station as a work location
C) Budgets
D) Technology
A

B) Fire station as a work location

Answer: B
Level: I
NFPA Line Item: N/A
Page: 134

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40
Q
1. “The process of achieving proficiency through instruction and hands-on practice in the operation of equipment and systems” is the definition of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A) training
B) coaching
C) mastery
D) learning
A

A) training

Answer: A
Level: I/II
NFPA Line Item: N/A
Page: 142

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41
Q
2. \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the process of imparting knowledge or skill through systematic instruction.
A) Teaching 
B) Education
C) Training
D) Mentoring
A

B) Education

Answer: B
Level: II
NFPA Line Item: N/A
Page: 152

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42
Q
3. To require a fire fighter to perform with a rusty skill set in an emergency situation is considered to be\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A) the best reinforcing device
B) the best motivator for learning
C) having an essentially neutral impact 
D) dangerous
A

D) dangerous

Answer: D
Level: I
NFPA Line Item: N/A
Page: 147

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43
Q
  1. Which trend was started when the National Fire Protection Association helped standardize fire fighter training by publishing the inaugural edition of NFPA 1001, Standard for Fire Fighter Professional Qualifications, in 1974?
    A) Establishment of regional training institutions
    B) Accreditation of training institutions
    C) Development of consensus standards for training
    D) Reduction in line-of-duty deaths
A

C) Development of consensus standards for training

Answer: C
Level: II
NFPA Line Item: N/A
Page: 154

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44
Q
  1. Which entity provides accreditation for fire service professional certification programs?
    A) National Fire Protection Association
    B) International Fire Service Training Association
    C) International Society of Fire Service Instructors
    D) International Fire Service Accreditation Congress
A

D) International Fire Service Accreditation Congress

Answer: D
Level: II
NFPA Line Item: N/A
Page: 155

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45
Q
6. Which of the following is a prerequisite to becoming a Supervising Fire Officer?
A) Fire Officer I
B) Fire Instructor II
C) Fire Officer II
D) Hazardous Materials Technician
A

A) Fire Officer I

Answer: A
Level: II
NFPA Line Item: 5.2.3
Page: 155

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46
Q
7. Which of the following is a prerequisite to becoming a Managing Fire Officer?
A) Fire Officer III 
B) Fire Officer II
C) Fire Inspector II
D) Fire Instructor II
A

B) Fire Officer II

Answer: B
Level: II
NFPA Line Item: 5.2.3
Page: 156

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47
Q
8. What is the NFPA standard for live fire training?
A) 1001
B) 1403
C) 1500
D) 1596
A

B) 1403

Answer: B
Level: I
NFPA Line Item: 4.2.3
Page: 148

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48
Q
1. Which program is designed to deal with issues such as substance abuse, emotional or mental health issues, marital and family difficulties, or other difficulties that affect job performance?
A) Employee Assistance Program
B) Critical incident stress management
C) Member referral program
D) Performance assistance program
A

A) Employee Assistance Program

Answer: A
Level: II
NFPA Line Item: N/A
Page: 177

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49
Q
  1. The success of an Employee Assistance Program relies on the ability of an Officer to __________.
    A) create a healthy working environment
    B) recognize signs of stress in an employee
    C) deal with employees in a fair and consistent manner
    D) establish trust with subordinates
A

B) recognize signs of stress in an employee

Answer: B
Level: II
NFPA Line Item: N/A
Page: 177

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50
Q
3. Successful Employee Assistance Programs place a high value on \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A) critical incident stress management
B) transparency 
C) confidentiality
D) personal relationships
A

C) confidentiality

Answer: C
Level: II
NFPA Line Item: N/A
Page: 177

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51
Q
  1. What is the first step in establishing a local public education program?
    A) Establish objectives for the program.
    B) Determine the resources that will be required.
    C) Identify the fire or life-safety problem.
    D) Identify the population to be instructed.
A

C) Identify the fire or life-safety problem.

Answer: C
Level: I
NFPA Line Item: 4.3, 4.3.1
Page: 212

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52
Q
2. Which NFPA standard outlines the principal duties of a public information officer?
A) 1035
B) 1028
C) 1021
D) 1001
A

A) 1035

Answer: A
Level: II
NFPA Line Item: 5.3, 5.3.1, 5.4, 5.4.4
Page: 213

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53
Q
  1. What happens to the number and complexity of decision-making situations as Fire Officers move up through the ranks?
    A) Both the number and the complexity decrease.
    B) The number increases, but the complexity decreases.
    C) The complexity increases, but the number decreases.
    D) Both the number and the complexity increase.
A

D) Both the number and the complexity increase.

Answer: D
Level: I
NFPA Line Item: N/A
Page: 225

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54
Q
  1. The primary purpose of an investigation of a complaint is to __________________.
    A) determine the legitimacy of the complaint
    B) establish the credibility of the department
    C) get buy-in from the involved parties
    D) obtain additional information
A

D) obtain additional information

Answer: D
Level: I
NFPA Line Item: N/A
Page: 232

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55
Q
3. Which of the following is one of the four possible responses to an investigation?
A) Take no further action.
B) Refer the issue to another officer.
C) Table the issue.
D) None of the above
A

A) Take no further action.

Answer: A
Level: I
NFPA Line Item: N/A
Page: 232

56
Q
  1. A facility with which feature, is required to submit information to the local emergency planning council in connection with pre-incident planning?
    A) Elevators intended for human use
    B) Height of four stories or more
    C) Storage or handling of hazardous materials
    D) High terrorist target potential
A

C) Storage or handling of hazardous materials

Answer: C
Level: I
NFPA Line Item: 4.5, 4.6
Page: 244

57
Q
  1. Which of the following is a primary goal of pre-incident planning?
    A) Allow for office-based code inspections
    B) Identify in advance suitable strategies, tactics, and actions
    C) Put a face on the fire department that the community can see
    D) Document the history of calls to that building
A

B) Identify in advance suitable strategies, tactics, and actions

Answer: B
Level: I
NFPA Line Item: 4.5, 4.6
Page: 244

58
Q
  1. In the pre-incident plan, assessment of the roof, floor, and wall construction and their structural integrity should focus on ________________________________.
    A) factors that could lead to collapse
    B) the expected level of difficulty of making an interior breach between rooms
    C) the likely flow paths
    D) where the utility lines run within the walls and floors
A

A) factors that could lead to collapse

Answer: A
Level: I
NFPA Line Item: 4.5, 4.6
Page: 244

59
Q
  1. A facility that has an evacuation or emergency operations plan should provide the Fire Department with __________________ as soon as command is established.
    A) a liaison
    B) access to the public-address system
    C) a schematic of the private fire protection system
    D) facility-specific protective ensembles
A

A) a liaison

Answer: A
Level: I
NFPA Line Item: 4.5, 4.6
Page: 246

60
Q
5. What is the major risk factor that should be considered with assembly occupancies?
A) Ceiling collapse
B) Fire spread to adjacent exposures 
C) Multiple-fatality fires
D) Combustible construction
A

C) Multiple-fatality fires

Answer: C
Level: I
NFPA Line Item: 4.5, 4.6
Page: 247

61
Q
6. Which NFPA term means “an organization, office, or individual responsible for enforcing the requirements of a code or standard, or for approving equipment, materials, an installation, or a procedure”?
A) Responsible party
B) Enforcing agency
C) Regulatory body 
D) Authority having jurisdiction
A

D) Authority having jurisdiction

Answer: D
Level: I
NFPA Line Item: N/A
Page: 247

62
Q
7. Which of the following is legally enforceable?
A) Fire code
B) Building code 
C) Both A and B
D) Neither A or B
A

C) Both A and B

Answer: C
Level: I
NFPA Line Item: N/A
Page: 247

63
Q
8. Which NFPA standard provides information on pre-incident planning?
A) NFPA 1001
B) NFPA 1500 
C) NFPA 1620
D) NFPA 1981
A

C) NFPA 1620

Answer: C
Level: I
NFPA Line Item: 4.5, 4.6
Page: 244

64
Q
9. Properties containing agricultural equipment, electronic data processing equipment, or scientific equipment; fine arts centers; and storage or manufacturing sites are examples of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ properties.
A) high-rise
B) assemblies
C) multistory 
D) high-value
A

D) high-value

Answer: D
Level: I
NFPA Line Item: 4.5, 4.6
Page: 243

65
Q
10. Nuclear power plants, bulk fuel storage facilities, hospitals, and jails are examples of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ properties.
A) high-risk
B) assemblies
C) multistory
D) high-value
A

A) high-risk

Answer: A
Level: I
NFPA Line Item: 4.5, 4.6
Page: 244–245

66
Q
11. Which type of code applies to existing buildings?
A) Building 
B) Fire
C) Construction
D) Plan
A

B) Fire

Answer: B
Level: I
NFPA Line Item: N/A
Page: 248

67
Q
12. What can an agency conduct to identify hazards and the probability of the hazard occurring?
A) Business continuity evaluation
B) Hazard analysis
C) Incident probability analysis 
D) Risk assessment
A

D) Risk assessment

Answer: D
Level: II
NFPA Line Item: 5.6, 5.3.1, 5.6.1
Page: 264

68
Q
1. A \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is defined as an itemized summary of estimated or intended revenues and expenditures.
A) fiscal analysis 
B) budget
C) revenue plan
D) financial plan
A

B) budget

Answer: B
Level: I/II
NFPA Line Item: N/A
Page: 272

69
Q
  1. What is the first step in the budget process?
    A) Differentiation of capital and consumable items
    B) Shadow analysis of prior period expenditures
    C) Efficiency determination of goods versus services
    D) Identification of needs and required resources
A

D) Identification of needs and required resources

Answer: D
Level: I/II
NFPA Line Item: N/A
Page: 272

70
Q
3. In a Career Fire Department, approximately \_\_\_\_\_ of the budget goes to personnel expenses.
A) 60 percent
B) 70 percent
C) 80 percent 
D) 90 percent
A

D) 90 percent

Answer: D
Level: II
NFPA Line Item: 5.3.1, 5.4, 5.4.2
Page: 281

71
Q
4. Which of the following is a capital item?
A) Gasoline
B) Electricity 
C) SCBA
D) Maintenance services
A

C) SCBA

Answer: C
Level: II
NFPA Line Item: 5.1.1, 5.3, 5.3.1, 5.4, 5.4.2
Page: 282

72
Q
  1. One of the best ways to ensure approval of a budget proposal is to show that __________.
    A) it is necessary to comply with some legal requirement
    B) it is voluntary and would represent goodwill by the governing body
    C) it would be a popular action to take
    D) the entire fire department is behind the request
A

A) it is necessary to comply with some legal requirement

Answer: A
Level: I
NFPA Line Item: N/A
Page: 276

73
Q
6. Uniforms are classified as which type of expense?
A) Periodic
B) General
C) Capital 
D) Operating
A

D) Operating

Answer: D
Level: II
NFPA Line Item: 5.3.1, 5.4, 5.4.2
Page: 281

74
Q
7. In a bidding process, the requirements that the purchase must meet are stated in the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A) vendor provisions
B) stated provisions 
C) specs
D) performance requirement bond
A

C) specs

Answer: C
Level: I/II
NFPA Line Item: 4.4.3, 5.4.3
Page: 279

75
Q
8. What has been used in recent years to streamline purchases and leverage greater discounts?
A) Requests for proposal
B) The Internet
C) Adoption of military specifications 
D) Interagency cooperation
A

D) Interagency cooperation

Answer: D
Level: I/II
NFPA Line Item: 4.4.3, 5.4.3
Page: 279

76
Q
9. Which type of expenditure is a durable item that will last more than one year?
A) Capital
B) Operating
C) Durable
D) Fixed
A

A) Capital

Answer: A
Level: II
NFPA Line Item: 5.3.1, 5.4, 5.4.2
Page: 282

77
Q
10. Which budget covers the day-to-day costs of delivering services?
A) Capital 
B) Operating
C) Administrative
D) Recurring
A

B) Operating

Answer: B
Level: II
NFPA Line Item: 5.3.1, 5.4, 5.4.2
Page: 281

78
Q
11. Which purchasing process is best suited for complex, technical items?
A) Purchase order
B) Requisition 
C) Request for proposal
D) Bid by specifications
A

C) Request for proposal

Answer: C
Level: I/II
NFPA Line Item: 4.4.3, 5.4.3
Page: 279

79
Q
1. One of the benefits of the ICS is to maintain \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A) a manageable span of control
B) unity of command
C) a unified command structure
D) a rational risk–benefit ratio
A

A) a manageable span of control

Answer: A
Level: I
NFPA Line Item: 4.6, 4.6.2
Page: 297

80
Q
2. In the ICS, which command level defines the actions necessary to achieve the strategic goals?
A) Strategic
B) Logical 
C) Tactical
D) Executive
A

C) Tactical

Answer: C
Level: I
NFPA Line Item: 4.6, 4.6.2
Page: 297

81
Q
3. Which of the following is one of the three strategic priorities within the ICS?
A) NIMS compliance 
B) Incident stabilization
C) Restoration of property
D) Determination of cause
A

B) Incident stabilization

Answer: B
Level: I
NFPA Line Item: 4.6, 4.6.2
Page: 297

82
Q
4. In the ICS, who is responsible for assigning the needed resources to perform the tactical assignments at an incident?
A) Individual company officers 
B) Incident commander
C) Chief fire official
D) Division or group supervisor
A

B) Incident commander

Answer: B
Level: I
NFPA Line Item: 4.6
Page: 298

83
Q
5. Which of the following is one of the three command options that the first-arriving company-level fire officer has when arriving at an incident and assuming command?
A) Defensive mode
B) Rescue mode 
C) Investigation mode
D) Offensive mode
A

C) Investigation mode

Answer: C
Level: I
NFPA Line Item: 4.6
Page: 298

84
Q
6. What is the preferred method of communication between two officers during transfer of command?
A) Radio 
B) Face-to-face
C) Writing
D) There is no preferred method
A

B) Face-to-face

Answer: B
Level: I
NFPA Line Item: 4.6
Page: 300

85
Q
7. Which of the following is one of the five components of NIMS?
A) Resource management
B) Programmed response
C) Recovery
D) Reimbursement
A

A) Resource management

Answer: A
Level: I/II
NFPA Line Item: 4.6.1, 4.6.2, 5.6.1
Page: 294

86
Q
8. Which component of ICS outlines the strategic objectives and states how emergency operations will be conducted?
A) Operational plan
B) Standard operating procedures 
C) Incident action plan
D) Situation status briefing
A

C) Incident action plan

Answer: C
Level: I
NFPA Line Item: N/A
Page: 303

87
Q
9. Where should later-arriving units stand by while awaiting instructions?
A) The nearest fire station
B) Rehab 
C) The staging area
D) The command post
A

C) The staging area

Answer: C
Level: II
NFPA Line Item: 5.6.1
Page: 308

88
Q
10. When a fire officer observes poor performance by an individual on an incident scene, the matter should be discussed \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A) in private
B) immediately
C) with the entire crew
D) during the incident critique
A

A) in private

Answer: A
Level: I/II
NFPA Line Item: 4.6.3, 5.6.2
Page: 295

89
Q
  1. When conducting an incident review for a building fire, the process should begin with _________________.
    A) the initial 911 call
    B) a review of the building
    C) the first-arriving fire officer
    D) the first officer to enter the structure
A

B) a review of the building

Answer: B
Level: I/II
NFPA Line Item: 4.6.3, 5.6.2
Page: 295

90
Q
  1. During a critique, in which order should fire officers present their descriptions of the incident?
    A) By order of rank, from lowest to highest
    B) By order of rank, from highest to lowest C) In the order they arrived on scene
    D) In any order
A

C) In the order they arrived on scene

Answer: C
Level: I/II
Page: 295

91
Q
  1. According to the Rules of Engagement, who makes the final decision regarding whether to proceed with an assigned objective?
    A) The company tasked with achieving the objective
    B) The Safety Officer
    C) The Operations Chief
    D) The Incident Commander
A

A) The company tasked with achieving the objective

Answer: A
Level: I/II
NFPA Line Item: N/A
Page: 319

92
Q
  1. What is the first Rule of Engagement?
    A) Determine the occupant survival profile.
    B) Establish and maintain personnel accountability at all times.
    C) Extend limited risk to protect savable property.
    D) Size up the tactical area of operation.
A

D) Size up the tactical area of operation.

Answer: D
Level: I/II
NFPA Line Item: 4.6.1, 5.6.1
Page: 320

93
Q
3. According to studies conducted by UL, flashover in a legacy home occurs in about \_\_\_\_\_ minutes.
A) 10
B) 15
C) 25 
D) 30
A

D) 30

Answer: D
Level: I/II
NFPA Line Item: 4.6.1, 5.6.1
Page: 320

94
Q
4. According to studies conducted by UL, flashover in a modern home occurs in about \_\_\_\_\_.
A) 3 minutes and 40 seconds
B) 6 minutes
C) 10 minutes and 30 seconds
D) 13 minutes and 20 seconds
A

A) 3 minutes and 40 seconds

Answer: A
Level: I/II
NFPA Line Item: 4.6.1, 5.6.1
Page: 320

95
Q
  1. What is Rule 2 of the Rules of Engagement?
    A) Determine the occupant survival profile.
    B) Establish and maintain personnel accountability at all times.
    C) Go in together, stay together, come out together.
    D) Determine and control the flow path.
A

A) Determine the occupant survival profile.

Answer: A
Level: I/II
NFPA Line Item: 4.6.1, 5.6.1
Page: 320

96
Q
  1. Which phrase best summarizes the factors to be considered when determining the occupant survivability profile?
    A) Fire conditions upon arrival of the fire department
    B) The occupants’ likelihood of surviving the search and rescue process
    C) The likely location of the occupants
    D) Available resources
A

B) The occupants’ likelihood of surviving the search and rescue process

Answer: B
Level: I/II
NFPA Line Item: 4.6.1, 5.6.1
Page: 320

97
Q
7. According to the Rules of Engagement, how much risk is acceptable in attempting to save property that is “savable”?
A) None
B) Incidental 
C) Limited
D) Significant
A

C) Limited

Answer: C
Level: I/II
NFPA Line Item: 4.6.1, 5.6.1
Page: 322

98
Q
  1. What is Rule 4 of the Rules of Engagement?
    A) Observe the benchmarks of air management.
    B) Maintain continuous awareness of fire conditions.
    C) Extend limited risk to protect savable property.
    D) Look for and respond to changes in the situation.
A

C) Extend limited risk to protect savable property.

Answer: C
Level: I/II
NFPA Line Item: 4.6.1, 5.6.1
Page: 322

99
Q
9. Which term means “the level of understanding and awareness one has regarding the reality of a set of conditions”?
A) Size-up 
B) Situational awareness
C) Command presence
D) Survival orientation
A

B) Situational awareness

Answer: B
Level: I/II
NFPA Line Item: 4.6.1, 5.6.1
Page: 327

100
Q
  1. What is Rule 6 of the Rules of Engagement?
    A) Maintain situational awareness through air management.
    B) Constantly monitor communications for critical information.
    C) Go in together, stay together, come out together.
    D) Situational awareness is everyone’s responsibility.
A

C) Go in together, stay together, come out together.

Answer: C
Level: I/II
NFPA Line Item: 4.6.1, 5.6.1, Page: 324

101
Q
11. Which strategy is the most appropriate when a structure is fully involved in fire and the fire is threatening adjacent exposures?
A) Combination
B) Offensive
C) Transitional 
D) Defensive
A

D) Defensive

Answer: D
Level: I/II
NFPA Line Item: 4.6.1, 5.6.1
Page: 321

102
Q
12. According to the Rules of Engagement, who is responsible for observing and reporting unsafe conditions?
A) Everyone at the incident
B) Operations Chief
C) Safety Officer
D) Company Officers/team leaders
A

A) Everyone at the incident

Answer: A
Level: I/II
NFPA Line Item: 4.6.1, 5.6.1
Page: 328

103
Q
  1. What is the key to using an authoritative style of leadership effectively?
    A) Projecting an overwhelming “command presence” that brooks no opposition
    B) Giving orders only after beginning the activity being ordered
    C) Developing the trust and confidence of the subordinates before the incident
    D) Consistent application of the “red-hot stove rule”
A

C) Developing the trust and confidence of the subordinates before the incident

Answer: C
Level: I
NFPA Line Item: 4.2.1
Page: 344

104
Q
2. What is a primary product of a strong emphasis on SOPs?
A) Reduced reflex time
B) Strong leadership
C) Reduced supervisory load 
D) Operational efficiency
A

D) Operational efficiency

Answer: D
Level: I
NFPA Line Item: 4.2.1
Page: 344

105
Q
  1. What allows Fire Officers to be able to predict where the fire is burning and where it will spread?
    A) The hot lap
    B) Forcible entry
    C) Knowledge of fire behavior
    D) Familiarity with the specific structure
A

C) Knowledge of fire behavior

Answer: C
Level: I
NFPA Line Item: N/A
Page: 345

106
Q
4. What does churning smoke indicate?
A) High organic fuel content
B) Ventilation-controlled fire 
C) High heat-release rate
D) Fuel-controlled fire
A

C) High heat-release rate

Answer: C
Level: I
NFPA Line Item: N/A
Page: 345

107
Q
5. Fire development in modern structures is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_-limited.
A) fuel
B) temperature
C) time 
D) ventilation
A

D) ventilation

Answer: D
Level: I/II

108
Q
6. What is the end result of a good size-up?
A) Good tactical execution 
B) An effective incident action plan
C) Unity of command
D) An incident command staff
A

B) An effective incident action plan

Answer: B
Level: I
NFPA Line Item: N/A
Page: 345

109
Q
7. Which strategy would an Incident Commander select when he or she believes the benefits of controlling and extinguishing the fire outweigh the risks to fire fighters?
A) Transitional
B) Combination 
C) Offensive
D) Defensive
A

C) Offensive

Answer: C
Level: I
NFPA Line Item: N/A
Page: 347

110
Q
  1. Compared to legacy dwellings, modern structures __________.
    A) have greater compartmentalization
    B) have a lower heat-release rate
    C) have a shorter time to flashover
    D) are less sensitive to changes in flow path
A

C) have a shorter time to flashover

Answer: C
Level: I/II
NFPA Line Item: N/A
Page: 342

111
Q
9. What are the two major components of the incident action plan?
A) Risk and analysis 
B) Tactics and strategies
C) Staffing and fire conditions
D) Resources and fire flow requirements
A

B) Tactics and strategies

Answer: B
Level: I
NFPA Line Item: 4.6.1, 4.6.2
Page: 348

112
Q
10. Which incident priority takes precedence over the others?
A) Property conservation
B) Incident stabilization 
C) Life safety
D) Fire attack
A

C) Life safety

Answer: C
Level: I
NFPA Line Item: 4.6.1, 4.6.2
Page: 348

113
Q
  1. On what basis does the Incident Commander assign resources when tasks outnumber available resources?
    A) Risk–benefit analysis
    B) Tactical priorities and available resources
    C) Tasks and conditions
    D) Strategies and tactics
A

B) Tactical priorities and available resources

Answer: B
Level: II
NFPA Line Item: 5.6.1
Page: 353

114
Q
12. Which resource can a Fire Officer consult to determine evacuation distances?
A) Fire Protection Handbook
B) NFPA Handbook
C) NIOSH Handbook 
D) Emergency Response Guidebook
A

D) Emergency Response Guidebook

Answer: D
Level: II
NFPA Line Item: 5.6.1
Page: 354

115
Q
13. In which type of building do the majority of civilian deaths occur?
A) Shopping malls
B) High-rise apartments
C) Multiple-family dwellings 
D) Single-family dwellings
A

D) Single-family dwellings

Answer: D
Level: II
NFPA Line Item: 5.6.1
Page: 354

116
Q
  1. How do cathedral ceilings affect firefighting operations?
    A) They make it harder to open the ceiling to check for fire extension.
    B) They are more prone to self-ventilation.
    C) They increase heat build-up.
    D) They are more prone to collapse.
A

A) They make it harder to open the ceiling to check for fire extension.

Answer: A
Level: II
NFPA Line Item: 5.6.1
Page: 354

117
Q
  1. When is the fire cause investigation conducted?
    A) After the fire has been brought under control, but is not yet extinguished
    B) After the fire is extinguished, but before the property is turned back over to the owner
    C) Within the several hours immediately after the property is turned back over to the owner
    D) After issuance of a warrant
A

B) After the fire is extinguished, but before the property is turned back over to the owner

Answer: B
Level: I/II
NFPA Line Item: N/A
Page: 364

118
Q
  1. Who is responsible for conducting the fire cause investigation?
    A) Chief fire official
    B) Incident Commander
    C) Property owner (by hiring a private agency)
    D) Officer from the first-arriving engine company
A

B) Incident Commander

Answer: B
Level: I/II
NFPA Line Item: N/A
Page: 364

119
Q

Page 38 of 69
3. A fire’s point of origin is usually determined by _________________________.
A) interviewing owners, witnesses, and bystanders
B) interpreting fire pattern evidence
C) using the Iowa volume formula
D) chemical sampling and analysis

A

B) interpreting fire pattern evidence

Answer: B
Level: II
NFPA Line Item: 5.5, 5.5.1
Page: 369

120
Q
4. A U- or V-shaped fire pattern is also known as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A) pattern inversion 
B) movement pattern
C) wall jet
D) day-sleeper’s fire
A

B) movement pattern

Answer: B
Level: II
NFPA Line Item: 5.5, 5.5.1
Page: 369

121
Q
  1. What is the relationship between char and a fire’s point of origin?
    A) The cracklier the char, the closer that surface was to facing 90 degrees from the direction of the point of origin.
    B) The deeper the char, the closer that material was to the point of origin.
    C) Sooty char means it was far from the point or origin.
    D) There is no relationship between the two.
A

B) The deeper the char, the closer that material was to the point of origin.

Answer: B
Level: II
NFPA Line Item: 5.5, 5.5.1
Page: 369

122
Q
6. In fire cause determination, when figuring out which fuel was first ignited, both the fuel type and the fuel \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ must be identified.
A) condition 
B) form
C) weight
D) specific gravity
A

B) form

Answer: B
Level: II
NFPA Line Item: 5.5, 5.5.1
Page: 369

123
Q
7. In fire cause determination, in addition to identifying and focusing on a possible cause that fits the circumstances, the investigator must \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A) interview suspects
B) take and submit samples
C) consult with law enforcement 
D) rule out all other possibilities
A

D) rule out all other possibilities

Answer: D
Level: II
NFPA Line Item: 5.5, 5.5.1
Page: 370

124
Q
  1. After all investigative possibilities have been exhausted, if two or more potential causes remain, the cause of the fire should be reported as __________.
    A) the most likely of the potential causes
    B) under investigation
    C) undetermined
    D) unreportable
A

C) undetermined

Answer: C
Level: II
NFPA Line Item: 5.5, 5.5.1
Page: 370

125
Q
  1. What is the usual location of the ignition source relative to the point of origin?
    A) Anywhere in the fire-burned area
    B) At the opposite end of the flow path
    C) In direct contact with the point of origin
    D) At or near the point of origin
A

D) At or near the point of origin

Answer: D
Level: II
NFPA Line Item: 5.5, 5.5.1
Page: 370

126
Q
  1. What does “transmission” mean in the context of a competent ignition source?
    A) Heat energy transfer via conduction or radiation
    B) Sufficient heat energy being transmitted from the point of origin to the first exposure
    C) Actions made in preparation for the creation of the ignition source
    D) The act of changing a human intention into a physical fact of action
A

A) Heat energy transfer via conduction or radiation

Answer: A
Level: II
NFPA Line Item: 5.5, 5.5.1
Page: 370

127
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about the use of fire fighters as sources of information in fire cause determination is correct?
    A) Their observations are valid only if they are cross-trained and certified as fire investigators.
    B) They must be direct witnesses to an act or omission.
    C) The testimony of fire fighters is not legally valid.
    D) Their observations can be relevant and valuable.
A

D) Their observations can be relevant and valuable.

Answer: D
Level: II
NFPA Line Item: 5.5, 5.5.1
Page: 371

128
Q
12. A(n) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is used when an individual who is attempting to conceal information is being questioned.
A) ex parte interview
B) cross-examination
C) corroboration 
D) interrogation
A

D) interrogation

Answer: D
Level: II
NFPA Line Item: 5.5, 5.5.1
Page: 372

129
Q
  1. What is suggested by a vehicle fire involving a relatively new car that had its tires removed and replaced with old, worn-out tires?
    A) The car may have been recently sold.
    B) The owner intended to keep the car.
    C) The fire may have been deliberately set.
    D) The car may have been stolen.
A

C) The fire may have been deliberately set.

Answer: C
Level: II
NFPA Line Item: 5.5, 5.5.1
Page: 372

130
Q
  1. What is the fire investigator’s primary responsibility when conducting a fire investigation?
    A) Develop a properly documented case.
    B) Determine the point of origin.
    C) Determine the identity of the arsonist.
    D) Complete the NFIRS documentation.
A

A) Develop a properly documented case.

Answer: A
Level: I
NFPA Line Item: N/A
Page: 365

131
Q
Page 41 of 69
15. Which of the following is one of the three components of a competent ignition source?
A) Pyrolysis 
B) Generation
C) Contact
D) Transfer
A

B) Generation

Answer: B
Level: II
NFPA Line Item: 5.5, 5.5.1
Page: 370

132
Q
16. When determining which material ignited first, the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ tells how the material is used.
A) type of material
B) configuration 
C) form of material
D) material class
A

C) form of material

Answer: C
Level: II
NFPA Line Item: 5.5, 5.5.1
Page: 370

133
Q
17. Which of the following is the most likely indicator that a fire was intentionally set?
A) Multiple points of origin
B) U-pattern on the wall
C) Charring along a door frame
D) Inverted burn pattern
A

A) Multiple points of origin

Answer: A
Level: II
NFPA Line Item: 5.5.1
Page: 375

134
Q
18. What is the flammable liquid of choice for most amateur arsonists?
A) Oil 
B) Gasoline
C) Lighter fluid
D) Charcoal lighting fluid
A

B) Gasoline

Answer: B
Level: I/II
NFPA Line Item: 4.5
Page: 366

135
Q
  1. What must a Fire Officer do after he or she requests a fire investigator to respond to a suspected crime scene?
    A) Secure the scene.
    B) Notify the fire chief.
    C) Instruct fire fighters to perform salvage and overhaul.
    D) Collect evidence.
A

A) Secure the scene

Answer: A
Level: I
NFPA Line Item: 4.5, 4.5.3
Page: 367

136
Q
20. Incendiary devices are tangible items that are classified as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ evidence.
A) physical 
B) demonstrative
C) documentary
D) admissible
A

B) demonstrative

Answer: B
Level: I
NFPA Line Item: 4.5, 4.5.3
Page: 367

137
Q
21. Who is responsible for preventing the contamination of evidence?
A) Fire investigator
B) Law enforcement 
C) Fire crews on the scene
D) Homeowners
A

C) Fire crews on the scene

Answer: C
Level: I
NFPA Line Item: 4.5, 4.5.3
Page: 368