Finals-Overview In Organ Transplantation Flashcards

1
Q

Developed surgical technique of the vascular anastomosis

A

Alexis Carrel

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2
Q

he was the first to report a series of human-to-human kidney transplants in the 1940s

A

Yu Yu Voronoy

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3
Q

He learned that immune system plays a crucial role in the failure of skin grafts; birth of transplant immunobiology

A

Sir Peter B. Medawar

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4
Q

He performed the first human transplant with long-term success in kidney transplant between identical twins and no immunosuppression
was required

A

Joseph Murray

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5
Q

the first liver transplant was performed by

A

Thomas Starzl

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6
Q

the first lung transplant was performed by

A

James Hardy

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7
Q

first pancreas transplant was performed by

A

William Kelly and Richard Lillehei

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8
Q

first successful heart transplant was performed by

A

Christiaan Barnard

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9
Q

is the process of transferring an organ, tissue, or cell from one place to another

A

Transplantation

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10
Q

surgical procedure wherein a
failing organ is being replaced by a functioning organ

A

Organ Transplantation

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11
Q

Organ transplant in the same anatomic location in the recipient as it was in the donor

A

Orthotopically

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12
Q

Organ transplant in another anatomic location

A

Heterotopically

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13
Q

Tranplatation from one part of the body to another part in the same person (skin, vessels, bone, cartilage,
nerve).

no immunosuppression is required

A

Autotransplant

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14
Q

from one person to another of the same species; except identical twins;immunosuppression is
required to avoid rejection of the donated organ

A

Allotransplant

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15
Q

Transplant from one organism to another of a different species;

animal-to-human transplant

A

Xenotransplant

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16
Q

Antigen encoding genes are located on chromosome

A

6

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17
Q

Class of antigens that are expressed by all nucleated cells

A

Class I
##FOOTNOTE
HLA-A, HLA-B, HLA-C

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18
Q

Class of antigens that are expressed by antigen- presenting cells (APCs) such as B lymphocytes, dendritic cells, macrophages, and other phagocytic cells.

A

Class II

HLA-DR, HLA-DP, HLA-DQ

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19
Q

HLA can trigger rejection via two mechanisms. This mechanism is the most common mechanism in which the damage is caused by activated T-lymphocytes

A

Cellular rejection

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20
Q

This mechanim of rejection by the HLA is mediated by circulating antibodies against the donor’s HLA molecules

A

Humoral rejection

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21
Q

The process of one’s body discrminating the immune system of each persons between self and nonself cells and tissues

A

Allorecognition

Tcells play a crucial roll

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22
Q

True or False

Indirect recognition occurs when the recipient’s T cells are activated by direct interaction with the donor’s HLA molecules.

A

False

this is direct recognition

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23
Q

True or False

Indirect recognition occurs when the recipient’s T cells are activated by interaction with APCs that have processed and presented the foreign antigen.

A

TRUE

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24
Q

Rejection is divided into three main types. These are

A

Hyperacute, acute and chronic

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25
Q

a very rapid type of rejection, results in irreversible damage and graft loss within minutes to hours after organ reperfusion

A

Hyperacute

It is triggered by preformed antibodies against the donor’s HLA or ABO blood group antigens.

These antibodies activate a series of events that result in diffuse intra- vascular coagulation, causing ischemic necrosis of the graft.

26
Q

the most common type of rejection, usually occurs within a few days or weeks posttransplant

A

Acute Rejection

it is further divided into cellular (T-cell–mediated) rejection, humoral (antibody-mediated) rejection, or a combination of both.

The diagnosis is based on the results of biopsies of the transplanted organ, special immu- nologic stains, and laboratory tests

27
Q

This type of rejection occurs slowly and usually is progressive. It can manifest within the first year posttransplant but most often takes place gradually over several years

A

Chronic rejection

As advances in immunosuppression have diminished the incidence of acute rejection, this form of rejection is becoming more common.

28
Q

Immunosuppresion is delivered in two phases namely

A

Induction and maintenance

29
Q

Immunosuppression phase starting immediately posttransplant, when the risk of rejection is highest

30
Q

Immunosuppression phase usually starting within days posttransplant and usually continuing for the life of the graft and the recipient

A

Maintenance

31
Q

During which time period is the degree of immunosuppression highest post-transplant, requiring prophylaxis against opportunistic pathogens?

A

First 3 to 6 months

during this time, prophylaxis against a number of different bacterial, viral, or even antifungal opportunistic pathogens is administered.

32
Q

Immunosuppressive phase which includes the use of depleting or nondepleting antibodies within the first month posttransplant

A

Induction

induction with antibody regimens may prevent acute rejection, potentially leading to improved graft survival and the use of less maintenance immunosuppression.

33
Q

A depleting antibody that is a purified gamma globulin obtained by immunizing rabbits with human thymocytes.

A

Thymoglobulin (Rabbit antithymocyte globulin)

34
Q

The only available anti-CD25 monoclonal nondepleting antibody; not designed to be used to treat acute rejection. Its selectivity in blocking IL-2–mediated responses makes it a powerful induction agent without the added risks of infections, malignancies, or other major side effects.

A

Basiliximab
## FOOTNOTE

it is followed by the use of calcineurin inhibitors, corticosteroids, and MMF as maintenance immunosuppression.

35
Q

An anti-CD52 monoclonal antibody initally used to treat chronic lymphocytic leukemia; its use has grown in the field of transplantation, given its profound lymphocyte-depleting effects.

A

Alemtuzumab

causes cell death by complement-mediated cytolysis, antibody-mediated cytotoxicity, and apoptosis. One dose alone (30 mg) depletes 99% of lymphocytes.

36
Q

MOA:
Binds to cyclophilin
Inhibits calcineurin and IL-2 synthesis

Clinical Use:
Improved bioavailability of microemulsion form

A

Cyclosporine

Nephrotoxicity
Tremor
Hypertension
Hirsutism

37
Q

MOA:
Binds to FKBP
Inhibits calcineurin and IL-2 synthesis

Clinical Use:
Improved patient and graft survival in (liver) primary immunosuppression and rescue therapy
Used as mainstay of maintenance protocol

A

Tacrolimus (FK506)

38
Q

MOA:
Antimetabolite
Inhibits enzyme
necessary for de novo purine synthesis

CLINICAL USE:
Effective for primary immunosuppression in combination with tacrolimus

A

Mycophenolate mofetil

ADVERSE EFFECTS
Leukopenia
GI Toxicity

39
Q

MOA:
Inhibits lymphocyte effects driven by IL-2 receptor

CLINICAL USE:
May allow early withdrawal of steroids and decreased calcineurin doses

A

Siroliums

## FOOTNOTE
ADVERSE EFFECTS
Thrombocytopenia Increased serum cholesterol/LDL
Poor wound healing

40
Q

MOA:
Multiple actions
Anti-inflammatory Inhibits lymphokine
production

CLINICAL USE:
Used in induction, maintenance, and treatment of acute rejection

A

Corticosteroids

Cushingoid state
Glucose intolerance
Osteoporosis

41
Q

MOA:
Antimetabolite
Interferes with DNA and RNA synthesis

CLINICAL USE:
Used in maintenance protocols or if intolerance to mycophenolate mofetil

A

Azathioprine

ADVERSE EFFECTS
Thrombocytopenia
Neutropenia
Liver dysfunction

42
Q

MOA:
T-cell blocker

CLINICAL USE
New drug for maintenance immunosuppression in renal transplants only

A

Belatecept

Increased risk of bacterial infections

43
Q

A chimeric anti-CD20 (anti-B cell) monoclonal antibody;

currently FDA approved for treating several types of lymphoma;

include the treatment of antibody- mediated rejection and use in desensitization protocols;

usually used in conjunction with plasmapheresis, steroids, and intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG).

44
Q

A proteasome inhibitor

for treating multiple myeloma. It can directly target plasma cells

shown to cause apoptosis of normal plasma cells, thereby
decreasing alloantibody production in sensitized patients

A

Bortezomib

45
Q

humanized monoclonal antibody, for treating paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria, hemolytic uremic syndrome, and generalized myasthenia gravis

It blocks the activation of the terminal complement cascade

increased risk of infections: Neisseria meningitidis therefore meningococcal vaccine should be given at least 2 weeks before the administration

A

Eculizumab

46
Q

Infection occuring within 1 month posttransplant can be due to a wide spectrum of pathogens

A

Early infection

47
Q

2nd most common cause of graft loss in pancreas recipient after vascular thrombosis

A

Intra abdominal abscess

48
Q

Signs and symptoms of intra-abdominal infections

A

Oeritonitis: fever, hypotension, ileus and abdominal pain

49
Q

Intra abdominal infections are usually polymicrobial, these bacteria includes

A

E.coli, Enterococcus, Klebsiella and Pseudomonas spp.

50
Q

For medical infections, what should be the treatment

A

Empiric antibiotics and anti fungal meds

51
Q

infections that are primarily due to chronic immunosuppression, specifically the depression of cell-mediated immunity that renders recipients susceptible to viruses, fungi, and parasites.

A

Late infections

usually occur 3 to 6 months posttransplant or during treatment for rejection

52
Q

the most common etiologic agents of viral infections posttransplantation

A

Herpesvirus group

Herpes simplex virus
Cytomegalovirus
Epstein Barr virus

53
Q

Most prominent etiologic agent for viral infection

54
Q

found in chicken, pidgeon, and bat droppings in the Ohio River and Mississippi River valleys.

Dissemination is commonplace; up to a quarter of patients have central nervous system (CNS) involvement.

Treatment consists of prolonged (3 to 13 months) administration of oral itraconazole.

A

Histoplasma capsulatum

55
Q

grows in moist soil in the Midwest and Southeast regions of the United States.

Diagnosis is confirmed by biopsy; the preferred treatment is IV amphotericin B.

A

Blastomysis dermatitidis

56
Q

cause invasive coccidioidomycosis after inhalation of aerosolized infectious particles. It is endemic in the Southwest, Northern Mexico, and various parts of Central and South America.

This infection can be resilient and difficult to treat.

The first line of treatment is high-dose amphotericin B.

A

Coccidiodes immitis

57
Q

infections exhibiting a 20% mortality rate.

Prophylaxis with fluconazole has been shown to reduce invasive fungal infections in liver recipients

A

Candida or Aspergillus

58
Q

species that are rare but can cause serious fungal infections

A

Aspergillus, Cryptococcus, Mucor and Rhizopus

59
Q

is ubiquitous and can cause pulmonary disease in immunocompromised patients.

TMP-SMX is an effective prophylaxis

A

Pneumocystis jiroveci

60
Q

Enumerate types of malignancies

A

Kaposi’s sarcoma
nonmelanoma skin cancer
non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma and
cancer of the liver, anus, vulva, and lip