Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

BU231 > Finals > Flashcards

Finals Flashcards

1
Q

privity of a contract

A

the relationship that exists between parties to a contract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

vicarious performance

A

a third party performs contractual obligations on behalf of the promisor who remains responsible for proper performance (subcontractor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

exception clause

A

a clause in a contract that exempts or limits the liability of a party

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

trustee

A

a person who is trusted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

beneficial owner

A

a person who, although not the legal owner, may compel the trustee to provide benefits to him

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

trust agreement

A

the document that conveys property to a trustee to be used for the benefit of a third party beneficiary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

resulting trust

A

a trust relationship recognized when the conduct of the parties demonstrates the intention to hold property for the benefit of the other

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

constructive trust

A

a trust relationship imposed by the court to prevent a party from being unjustly enriched by keeping property that should benefit another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

undisclosed principal

A

a contracting party who, unknown to the other party, is represented by an agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

enurement clause

A

extends the rights and benefits to those inheriting from a party, succeeding the party, or taking an assignment from a party

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

4 exceptions to the privity of contract rules

A
  1. trusts
  2. insurance
  3. undisclosed principal
  4. contracts concerning land
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

principled exception

A

allows third parties to rely upon a contractual exemption clause when the parties to the contract intended to include them, and their activities come within the scope of the contract and the exemption clause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

2 assignment contracts

A

first, create unperformed right, subsequently assigned to third party in second contract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

assignment

A

the transfer by a party of its unperformed rights under a contract to a third party

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

choses in action

A

rights to intangible property such as patents, stocks, contracts that may be enforced in the courts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

choses in possession

A

rights to tangible property that may be possessed physically

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

statutory assignment

A

an assignment that complies with statutory provisions enabling the assignee to sue the other party without joining the assignor to the action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

equitable assignment

A

an assignment other than a statutory assignment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

3 requirements for assignee to sue promisor without joining the assignor in the lawsuit (statutory assignment)

A
  1. assignment was absolute (unconditional and complete)
  2. it was in writing
  3. promisor received notice of it in writing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

set off

A

the right of a promisor to deduct an existing debt owed to him by the promisee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

executor

A

the personal representative of a deceased person named in his or her will

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

intestate

A

when a person dies without leaving a will

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

administrator

A

the personal representative of a person who dies intestate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

negotiable instruments

A

a written contract containing a promise, express or implied, to pay a specific sum of money to a designated person or to “bearer”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

minor breach

A

a breach of a non-essential term of a contract or of an essential term in a minor respect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

major breach

A

a breach of the whole contract or of an essential term so that the purpose of the contract is defeated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

3 ways a breach may occur

A
  1. express repudiation
  2. acting in a way that makes it impossible to perform promises
  3. failing to perform or poor performance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

express repudiation

A

one of the contracting parties advises the other that it does not intend to perform as promised

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

anticipatory breach

A

an express repudiation that occurs before the time agreed for performance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

substantial performance

A

performance that does not comply in some minor way with the requirements of the contract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

quasi-contract

A

an obligation that may arise because one party has received an unfair benefit at the expense of the other

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

unjust enrichment

A

unfair benefit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

drawing party

A

the contracting party that prepared the agreement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

unconscionable terms

A

terms agreed to by parties of unequal bargaining power that give an unfair advantage to the powerful party over the weaker party

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

3 types af remedies

A
  1. damages
  2. equitable remedies
  3. quantum meruit
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

2 prereqs. for award of damages

A
  1. loss must flow from breach

2. damages must be mitigated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

liquidated damages

A

an amount agreed on to be paid in damages by a party to a contract if it should commit a breach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

penalty clause

A

a term specifying an exorbitant amount for breach of contract, intended to frighten a party into performance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

expectation damages

A

an amount awarded for breach of contract, based on expected benefits or profits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

consequential damages

A

secondary losses incurred by the non-breaching party that were foreseeable at the time of contracting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

general damages

A

an estimated amount for intangible injury that a court may award

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

nominal damages

A

acknowledge a breach of contract where there is no real loss suffered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

reliance damages

A

costs of expenditures and wasted effort reasonably made in preparation for performance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

punitive damages

A

used in extreme conditions, used to punish the wrongdoer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

5 prerequisites for equitable remedy - need all 5

A
  1. damages are inadequate
  2. claimant has clean hands
  3. no delay in seeking relief
  4. cannot negatively affect innocent third party
  5. sufficient consideration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

specific performance

A

an order requiring a defendant to do a contracted-for act, usually to complete a transaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

injunction - negative convenant

A

court order restraining a party from acting in a particular manner; prohibits party from committing a breach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

interlocutory injunction

A

temporary injunction preventing immediate harm from being done before full trial of the matter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

rescission

A

restore parties to pre-contract positions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

quantum meruit

A

the fair amount a person deserves to be paid for benefit conferred

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

5 common law damage remedies

A
  1. expectation damages
  2. consequential damages
  3. general damages
  4. reliance damages
  5. punitive damages
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

4 equitable remedies

A
  1. specific performance
  2. injunction
  3. rescission
  4. quantum meruit
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

execution

A

seize and sell a debtor’s chattel’s or arrange for a sale of his lands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

garnishment

A

order requiring the debtor’s employer to retain a portion of their wages each payday to surrender to creditor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

contempt of court

A

a finding by a court that a person has willfully refused to obey a court order and therefore be punished

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

bailor

A

owner of goods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

bailee

A

party accepting possession of goods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

gratuitous bailment

A

bailment where one party provides no consideration, no intention to create contractual relationship

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

bailment for value

A

contractual bailment, payed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

lien

A

gives bailee right to keep possession of good until bailor pays

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

the right of sale

A

give bailee who has lien upon goods stored an additional right to sell the goods - publicly, reasonable amount of time, reasonable price - if the bailor does not end up paying

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

3 types of transporters (bailment)

A
  1. gratuitous carrier
  2. private carrier - specific goods, contractual
  3. common carrier - almost strict liability
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

3 defences of transporters (bailment)

A
  1. act of god
  2. inherent defect in goods - defect when carrier received it
  3. default by shipper -> bad packing done by shipper
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

dependent agent

A

an agent who acts exclusively, or mostly, for a single principal i.e. insurance agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

independent agent

A

an agent who carries on an independent business and acts for a number of principals i.e. lawyers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

agency agreement

A

agreement between principal and agent whereby the agent undertakes to act on behalf of the principal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

power of attorney

A

type of agency agreement authorizing the agent to sign documents on behalf of the principal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

4 duties owed by agent to principal

A
  1. duty to comply with agency agreement
  2. duty of care
  3. personal performance
  4. good faith
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

2 duties owed by principal to agent

A
  1. compensate agent for effort

2. pay for agent’s expenses and losses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

actual authority

A

the authority given expressly or implied to the agent by the principal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

apparent authority

A

authority that a third party is entitled to assume that the agent possesses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

holding out

A

representing by words or conduct that a person is one’s agent or has a particular authority

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

ratification of an agency contract

A

subsequent adoption by the principal of a contract made by an agent without authority

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

warranty of authority

A

a person who purports to act as agent represents that she has authority to contract on behalf of the principal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

5 ways of terminating an agency relationship

A
  1. Performance
  2. Frustration
  3. Death
  4. Bankruptcy
  5. Loss of Capacity
76
Q

indefinite hiring

A

a contract of employment for an undetermined length of time, with no expectation of termination ro described end date

77
Q

payment in lieu of notice

A

payment of the amount of compensation the employee would have earned during the reasonable notice period

78
Q

constructive dismissal

A

substantial change to an employee’s job that amounts to termination of the existing employment

79
Q

dismissal for cause

A

dismissal without notice or further obligation by the employer when the employee’s conduct amounts to breach of contract

80
Q

4 reasons for dismissal without notice

A
  1. misconduct
  2. disobedience
  3. incompetence
  4. illness
81
Q

progressive employee discipline

A

imposing increasingly serious consequences for each event of improper employee behaviour

82
Q

2 remedies available for wrongful dismissal

A
  1. damages

2. reinstatement

83
Q

employment standards act

A

imposes minimum contractual obligations on employers

84
Q

worker’s safety and insurance act

A

governs workplace injury remuneration -> no fault compensation sceme

85
Q

occupational health and safety act

A

governs workplace safety prosecutions -> preventative

86
Q

human rights code

A

provides protection from discrimination - accommodate disabilities with limited hardship

87
Q

pay equity

A

raise women wages to match those equivalent of men, not applicable v.v.

88
Q

ontario labour relations act

A

create unionized environment

89
Q

PIPEDA

A

workplace privacy, duties owed to keep employee info safe

90
Q

partnership agreement

A

agreement between persons to create a partnership and to set out the terms of the relationship

91
Q

joint liability

A

situation where each of a number of persons is personally liable for the full amount of debt

92
Q

4 steps that should be taken on retirement from a partnership

A
  1. notify existing clients
  2. place notice in official gazette of province
  3. remove name from register
  4. letterheads altered to remove name
93
Q

limited partnership

A

partnership in which some of the partners limit their liability to the amount of their capital contributions

94
Q

general partner

A

a partner in a limited partnership whose liability is unlimited

95
Q

limited partner

A

a partner in a limited partnership whose liability is limited to the amount of his or her capital contribution

96
Q

llp

A

partnership in which non-negligent partners are not personally liable for losses caused by the negligence of a partner

97
Q

contractual joint venture

A

joint venture effected by agreement without the creation of any separate legal entity

98
Q

equity joint venture

A

corporation formed and jointly owned by the parties to a joint venture for the purpose of carrying on the venture

99
Q

associated corporations

A

one corporation controls the other, or both corporations are controlled by the same person/group

100
Q

3 conditions to lift corporate veil and find individual within corporation liable

A
  1. individual must control corporation
  2. control must have been exercised to commit fraud, or breach of fiduciary duty
  3. misconduct was the cause of plaintiff’s injury
101
Q

letters patent

A

a document incorporating a corporation, issued by the appropriate authority, and constituting the “charter” of the corporation

102
Q

articles of incorporation

A

founding corporate document (charter or constitution of the corporation)

103
Q

bylaws

A

internal working rules of corporation

104
Q

professional corporation

A

business corporation that may be formed by members of a profession

105
Q

issued capital

A

the shares that have been issued by a corporation

106
Q

paid-up capital

A

shares that have been issued and fully paid for

107
Q

par value

A

nominal value attached to a share at time of issue

108
Q

pre-emptive right

A

the right of a holder of shares to protect his percentage ownership in the company by buying the same percentage in any new issue of shares

109
Q

cumulative right

A

the right of the holder of a preferred share to be paid arrears from previous years before any dividend is paid on the common shares

110
Q

corporate governance

A

rules governing the organization and management of the business and affairs of a corporation in order to meet its internal objectives and external responsibilities

111
Q

board of directors

A

governing body of a corporation, responsible for the management of its business and affairs

112
Q

officers

A

high ranking members of a corporations management team as defined in the bylaws or appointed by the directors

113
Q

audit committee

A

a group of directors responsible for overseeing the corporate audit and preparation of financial statements

114
Q

compensation committee

A

committee responsible for setting director and officer pay

115
Q

nominating committee

A

committee responsible for proposing and recruiting new directors

116
Q

5 jobs of directors

A
  1. issue shares
  2. declare dividends
  3. adopt bylaws
  4. call meetings of shareholders
  5. delegate responsibilities/appoint officers
117
Q

cumulative voting

A

a method of electing directors by a form of proportional representation

118
Q

S.122a of CBCA

A

requires directors/officers act honestly and in good faith with a view to the best interests of the corporation, NOT shareholders
-> fiduciary duty, avoid conflict of interest

119
Q

S.122b of CBCA

A

requires directors/officers to exercise the care, diligence, and skill that responsible person would act in comparable circumstances, duty to shareholders
->negligence , comparable to average director

120
Q

due diligence defence

A

defence to breach of fiduciary duty; an acceptable standard of care and skill was exercised by a director/officer

121
Q

good faith reliance

A

defence to breach of fiduciary duty; reliance on audited financial statements or export reports

122
Q

corporate indemnity

A

defence to breach of fiduciary duty; agreement with corporation to reimburse a director for any costs associated with liability for breach of duty

123
Q

director’s and officer’s liability insurance

A

defence to breach of fiduciary duty; corporation may purchase liability insurance on behalf of its board

124
Q

business judgement rule

A

courts focus on process to arriving at decision; as long as directors exercise prudence and diligence while making a decision, duty of skill and care has been met

125
Q

strict liability of directors

A

unpaid wages, taxes, ei

126
Q

4 specific conducts involving conflict of interest

A
  1. disclosure of contracts with corporation
  2. interception of corporate opportunity
  3. personal use of corporate information
  4. competing with corporation
127
Q

insider trading

A

the use of confidential information relating to a corporation in dealing in its securities in order to make a profit/avoid a loss
-> pivotal info that isn’t public yet

128
Q

3 rights of shareholders

A
  1. vote at any meeting of shareholders
  2. receive any dividend declared
  3. receive remaining property of corporation on dissolution
129
Q

ordinary resolution

A

resolution adopted by the general meeting and passed by a simple majority

130
Q

special resolution

A

resolution of the general meeting required to be passed by a special (2/3) majority

131
Q

class rights

A

special rights attached to a particular class of shares

132
Q

proxy

A

a person appointed to attend a general meeting of shareholders and to cast the votes of the shareholder appointing him/her

133
Q

proxy form

A

a form required to be circulated to shareholders before a general meeting, inviting them to appoint a proxy if they wish

134
Q

pre-emptive right

A

right to purchase additional stocks before the general public

135
Q

documents of record

A

documents that a corporation is required to keep and make available to shareholders
-> minutes of meetings, charter, bylaws, register of directors

136
Q

inspector

A

person appointed by the court to investigate the affairs of a corporation

137
Q

appraisal remedy

A

the right to have one’s shares bought by the corporation at a fair price

138
Q

derivative action

A

proceedings brought by one or more shareholders in the name of the corporation in respect of a wrong done to the corporation
-> right of minority shareholder to start action against director for wrongdoing

139
Q

3 requirements for minority shareholder to bring action in the name on behalf of corporation

A
  1. directors refuse to bring up action themselves
  2. applicant acting in good faith
  3. be in best interests of the company
140
Q

winding up

A

the dissolution of a corporation -> typically used for small/family businesses

141
Q

oppression remedy

A

a statutory procedure allowing individual shareholders to seek a personal remedy if they have been unfairly treated -> broadest, most flexible remedy

142
Q

shareholder agreement

A

an agreement between two or more shareholders that is distinct from the corporation’s charter and bylaws

143
Q

unanimous shareholder agreement

A

a shareholder agreement to which all shareholders are parties

144
Q

2 rights that may be in a shareholder agreement

A
  1. right to participate in management - shareholders promise to elect each other at meetings
  2. right to fair price for a share interest - agree to a regular method of valuation of their shares
145
Q

regulatory offences

A

less serious offences created by government regulation through specialized legislation, agencies, and tribunals

146
Q

mens rea offences

A

offences where the prosecution must establish a “guilty mind” on the part of the defendant

147
Q

offences of strict liability

A

offences where there is a presumption of guilt unless the defendant can show that they took reasonable care

148
Q

offences of absolute liability

A

offences where simply doing the act makes one guilty of the offence

149
Q

3 categories of offences

A
  1. mens rea offences
  2. offences of strict liability
  3. offences of absolute liability
150
Q

the solvency test

A

in order to protect creditors, test the company of their ability to pay off their debts with their current assets

151
Q

securities commission

A

the statutory authority appointed to supervise the issue of securities to the general public, the operation of securities industry, and the stock exchange

152
Q

prospectus

A

the document that a corporation is required to publish when inviting the public to subscribe for its securities

153
Q

indoor management rule

A

a person dealing with a corporation is entitled to assume that its internal procedural rules have been complied with unless it is apparent that such is not the case
-> contractual liability of corporations

154
Q

e-retailing

A

the supply of tangible or electronic goods/services over the internet

155
Q

web wrap agreement

A

the acceptance of contractual terms, indicated by clicking on the appropriate icon

156
Q

click-wrap agreement

A

requires customer to open terms page before clicking acceptance of them

157
Q

E-commerce act

A

rules of contract formation that applies to all internet contracts

158
Q

Consumer Protection Act

A

protection available to consumers when they contract with a business online

159
Q

main tort issue relating to e commerce

A

defamation - anyone can post anything; is hyperlinking an act of defamation?

160
Q

infringement

A

violation of the rights of the owner of the intellectual property

161
Q

trademark

A

an identifiable feature that is used by a person for the purpose of distinguishing his goods or services from those of others
- may not always be registered (initial 15y + 5 years renew)

162
Q

passing off

A

tort involving misrepresentation of goods to deceive public

163
Q

cybersquatting

A

the registration of a domain name containing the trademark of another person, with the intention of selling the domain name to the owner of the mark

164
Q

alternative dispute resolution

A

the use of private procedures such as mediation and arbitration to resolve problems - trademark infringement of generic names

165
Q

copyright

A

gives the creator of the work exclusive right to copy, produce, distribute that work - life of author + 50 years

166
Q

royalty

A

fee paid to the copyright owner for permission to copy the work

167
Q

moral rights

A

rights to always be attributed as the creator of work

168
Q

copyright infringement remedy

A

damages/infringement

169
Q

fair dealing

A

exception to copyright infringement - the use of copyrighted material for fair use (research, education, private study, parody, review, news reporting)
- muse be a fair amount (20%)

170
Q

digital rights management system (DRM)

A

a system collecting data about the licensing, payment for, and authenticity of a work

171
Q

technical protection measures (TPMs)

A

use of locks for electronic material to block unauthorized use of their copyrighted material

172
Q

patent

A

20 year monopoly of new idea/process

173
Q

proper law of the contract

A

the law that the parties intended to govern their relationship - parties to name it in their contract

174
Q

GATT

A

principle document that formulates the rules for international trade - includes trade-related investment measures - nondiscrimination - all countries to receive most favoured nation treatment

175
Q

trade-related investment measures

A

national measures regulating investment that have an impact upon international trade

176
Q

most favoured nation treatment

A

the principle that goods imported from one country should not be treated less favourably than those imported from any other country

177
Q

national treatment

A

the principle that goods from another country should not be treated less favourably than domestic goods

178
Q

free trade areas

A

groups of countries within which customs duties are eliminated

179
Q

NAFTA

A

regional trade agreement - exception to GATT

180
Q

main concern of foreign investment

A

protect canadian culture - often conflicts with trade agreements

181
Q

2 steps of managing foreign investment

A
  1. investment canada receives notice of foreign investment

2. must get approval of large acquisitions to protect culture

182
Q

forum non conveniens

A

refusing to hear a proceeding because another jurisdiction is more appropriate

183
Q

security for costs

A

money deposited into the court in case an unsuccessful foreign plaintiff is ordered to pay the legal costs of the successful defendant

184
Q

party autonomy

A

the parties’ freedom to determine how their dispute will be resolved

185
Q

arbitration clause

A

a term in a commercial contract designating arbitration as the process for resolution of any disputes arising between the parties

186
Q

commercial arbitration

A

the use of arbitration methods to solve any disputes arising in commercial environments

BU231 (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions