Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

BACTE FINALS > finals > Flashcards

finals Flashcards

(73 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

Which Campylobacter species are most commonly associated with gastritis and diarrhea?

A

C. jejuni and C. coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the optimal temperature for the growth of Campylobacter spp.?

A

36°C-37°C and 42°C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What type of motility is exhibited by Campylobacter spp.?

A

Corkscrew darting motility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which of the following media is NOT used for the culture of Campylobacter spp.?

A

MacConkey agar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What appearance do Campylobacter spp. exhibit in stained smears?

A

Seagull-winged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the most common mode of transmission (MOT) for Campylobacter spp.?

A

Ingestion of contaminated milk and Fecal-oral route

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which transport medium is recommended for stool specimens of Campylobacter spp. that require delayed processing?

A

Cary-Blair medium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What antibiotics are present in Campy-CVA medium?

A

Vancomycin, trimethoprim, cephalothin, polymyxin B, amphotericin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which technique is most suitable for detecting Campylobacter spp. from clinical specimens?

A

Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What test is used for the rapid identification of H. pylori infection?

A

Urease breath test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which H. pylori gene is associated with the production of vacuolating cytotoxin?

A

VacA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which specimen is primarily used to diagnose Helicobacter pylori infection?

A

Antral biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the gold standard for diagnosing Brucella infections?

A

Culture on BAP and TSA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the primary mode of transmission of Legionella pneumophila?

A

Inhalation of aerosols from water sources

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What medium is specifically used for the culture of Legionella spp.?

A

BCYE agar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What diagnostic method is recommended for identifying Gardnerella vaginalis in cases of bacterial vaginosis?

A

A. Nugent scoring system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What appearance is characteristic of Streptobacillus moniliformis in broth culture?

A

B. Fluff balls or bread crumbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which of the following is a key diagnostic feature of Pasteurella multocida?

A

C. Grey-white, iridescent colonies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What test is commonly used to detect Francisella spp.?

A

C. PCR-based methods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the primary antibody detected in H. pylori infections?

A

C. IgG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which type of hemolysis is shown by Streptococcus pyogenes on blood agar?

A

B. Beta hemolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the key virulence factor of Bacillus anthracis?

A

B. Edema toxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which bacteria are identified using the Nagler reaction?

A

C. Clostridium perfringens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which organism causes Weil’s disease?

A

A. Leptospira interrogans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What color is produced by Pseudomonas aeruginosa colonies on nutrient agar?
B. Green
26
Which test is used to detect Escherichia coli O157:H7 in stool samples?
D. Sorbitol MacConkey agar
27
What condition is caused by Corynebacterium diphtheriae?
C. Diphtheria
28
What is the causative agent of Rocky Mountain spotted fever?
B. Rickettsia rickettsii
29
What is the preferred stain for detecting Mycobacterium tuberculosis in sputum?
B. Ziehl-Neelsen stain
30
What is the key characteristic of Listeria monocytogenes on wet mount?
B. Tumbling motility
31
Which organism forms colonies described as 'tiny drops of mercury' on Bordet-Gengou agar?
Bordetella pertussis ## Footnote This organism is known for causing whooping cough.
32
What is the characteristic odor produced by Pasteurella multocida?
Musty/mushroom smell ## Footnote This odor is distinctive and aids in identification.
33
Which organism is also known as the 'corroding bacterium' due to its ability to form pits on agar?
Eikenella corrodens ## Footnote This characteristic helps in differentiating it from other species.
34
Donovan bodies are a pathognomonic feature of which organism?
Calymmatobacterium granulomatis ## Footnote These bodies are indicative of granuloma inguinale.
35
Which organism has a characteristic 'fried egg' colony appearance on BHIA with 20% horse serum?
Streptobacillus moniliformis ## Footnote This appearance is crucial for laboratory identification.
36
Which organism's colonies on BCYE agar appear grey-white, iridescent pink, or blue-green?
Legionella pneumophila ## Footnote These colors are significant for diagnosing Legionnaires' disease.
37
What nickname is given to L. pneumophila due to its association with outbreaks?
Broadstreet pneumonia ## Footnote This term is historically linked to a significant outbreak.
38
Which organism is also referred to as 'Tatlock agent'?
Legionella micdadei ## Footnote This name is used in clinical contexts for identification.
39
Which organism is known to produce violacein, a characteristic violet pigment?
Chromobacterium violaceum ## Footnote This pigment contributes to its identification in cultures.
40
What is the characteristic shape of Cardiobacterium hominis in stained smears?
Rosette and serpentine pattern ## Footnote This shape is used for microscopic identification.
41
Which organism is referred to as the 'agent of granuloma inguinale'?
Calymmatobacterium granulomatis ## Footnote This organism is responsible for a specific sexually transmitted infection.
42
Which organism is commonly isolated from cat or dog bites?
Pasteurella multocida ## Footnote This organism is often associated with animal bites.
43
What is the primary zoonotic reservoir of Francisella tularensis?
Rabbits ## Footnote This organism causes tularemia, often linked to rabbit exposure.
44
Which organism requires cysteine for growth and exhibits pinpoint colonies on chocolate agar?
Francisella tularensis ## Footnote Cysteine is essential for its laboratory culture.
45
What is the odor characteristic of Eikenella corrodens colonies?
Bleach-like odor ## Footnote This distinctive odor helps in its identification.
46
Which medium is used for the selective isolation of Gardnerella vaginalis?
Human blood bilayer Tween agar (HBT) ## Footnote This medium is specifically formulated for this organism.
47
What type of cells are 'clue cells' associated with Gardnerella vaginalis?
Vaginal squamous epithelial cells ## Footnote These cells are indicative of bacterial vaginosis.
48
What is the appearance of Brucella colonies on BAP?
Small, convex, smooth, and glistening ## Footnote This appearance is typical for Brucella species.
49
Which organism is known as the 'agent of shipping fever' in cattle?
Pasteurella multocida ## Footnote This organism is significant in veterinary medicine.
50
What is the name of the selective medium for Legionella species?
BCYE agar ## Footnote This medium is essential for isolating Legionella species.
51
Which medium for the primary isolation of B. pertussis and B. parapertussis contains potato infusion agar with glycerol and sheep blood?
Bordet-Gengou ## Footnote This medium is traditionally used for these pathogens.
52
Which medium has a shelf life of 4 to 8 weeks for the primary isolation of B. pertussis and B. parapertussis?
Regan-Lowe ## Footnote This medium is preferred for its longevity in laboratory settings.
53
Which selective medium for B. pertussis and B. parapertussis contains 10% horse blood and cephalexin?
Regan-Lowe ## Footnote This formulation helps suppress contaminating flora.
54
Which of the following has a shelf life of 2 to 3 months but is considered inferior to Regan-Lowe agar?
Modified Jones-Kendrick ## Footnote This medium is less commonly used due to its shorter shelf life.
55
Which medium for B. pertussis and B. parapertussis is characterized by synthetic agar lacking blood products?
Stainer-Scholte ## Footnote This medium is unique in its formulation.
56
Which of the following selective media contains charcoal agar with yeast extract, starch, and 40 ug cephalexin?
Modified Jones-Kendrick ## Footnote This medium is designed for specific bacterial growth.
57
Which of the following selective media has the shortest shelf life (a few weeks)?
Regan-Lowe ## Footnote This medium is known for its limited usability duration.
58
Which of the following selective media is characterized by the use of methicillin or cephalexin in its formulation?
Bordet-Gengou ## Footnote This characteristic helps in suppressing unwanted bacteria.
59
Which of the following is true about Chlamydia?
They require living cells for cultivation, similar to viruses ## Footnote This distinguishes them from many other bacteria.
60
The infectious particle of Chlamydia is called:
Elementary body ## Footnote This form is essential for the infection process.
61
The reticulate body of Chlamydia is described as:
Metabolically active inclusion bodies ## Footnote These bodies are crucial for replication within the host.
62
Chlamydia trachomatis forms inclusions inside the cell, which are enclosed in a vacuole known as:
Phagosome ## Footnote This structure is important for the lifecycle of Chlamydia.
63
The inclusion bodies in Chlamydia trachomatis are known as:
Halberstaedter-Prowazek bodies ## Footnote These bodies are used for diagnosis in laboratory settings.
64
The main component of the Halberstaedter-Prowazek bodies in Chlamydia trachomatis is:
Glycogen ## Footnote This component is significant for the body's structure.
65
The inclusion bodies in Chlamydia psittaci are called:
Levinthal-Cole-Lillie bodies ## Footnote This nomenclature is specific to this species.
66
Chlamydia psittaci (now Chlamydophila psittaci) is the causative agent of:
Psittacosis/ornithosis ## Footnote This disease is associated with birds.
67
Chlamydia pneumoniae is also known as:
TWAR strain ## Footnote This name is used in clinical contexts.
68
Chlamydia trachomatis has two biovars, one of which is associated with venereal infections. This biovar is called:
Biovar LGV ## Footnote This biovar is significant in sexually transmitted infections.
69
Which of the following biovars of Chlamydia trachomatis has 12 serovars?
Biovar trachoma ## Footnote This biovar is associated with ocular infections.
70
Chlamydia trachomatis causes which of the following conditions?
Non-gonococcal urethritis ## Footnote This condition is commonly diagnosed in males.
71
Chlamydia trachomatis is associated with long-term disease in females, such as:
Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID) ## Footnote PID can lead to serious reproductive health issues.
72
Mycoplasma is unique because it:
Is the smallest free-living organism ## Footnote This characteristic makes it distinct among bacteria.
73
Which of the following species is known as Eaton's agent?
Mycoplasma pneumoniae ## Footnote This organism is associated with atypical pneumonia.

BACTE FINALS (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions