finals

Question 1

Which cells are antigen-presenting cells?

Answer 1

Macrophages, dendritic cells + B cells

Question 2

What is the approximate number of genes in the human genome?

Answer 2

25,000

Question 3

What does the term ‘VDJ’ stand for?

Answer 3

Variable, Diversity and Joining

Question 4

Junctional diversity

a) increases variation
b) decreases variation
c) has no effect on variation
d) increases specificity

Answer 4

a) increases variation

Question 5

What determines antibody function?

Answer 5

Constant region

Question 6

Which two antibody classes are expressed with the same specificity on the surface of newly formed B-cells?

Answer 6

IgM and IgD

Question 7

What is the cranium formed from?
a) Calvaria and Cranial base
b) Basicranial and Intracranial regions
c) Neurocranium and Viscerocranium
d) Mandible and Vomer
e) Spinal cord and Sensory neurons

Answer 7

C) Nuerocranium and Viscerocranium

Question 8

What is a function of the Midbrain?
a) Processes sensory information
b) Processes visual and auditive information
c) Processes Crude touch
d) AandB
e) A,BandC

Answer 8

d

Question 9

What is another name for the hypophysis and where is it’s position?
a) Pituitary gland, sits on top of sphenoid body
b) Hypothalamus, sits in the foramen magnum
c) Thalamus, sits in the foramen magnum
d) Pituitary gland, sits on top of ethmoidal bone
e) Hypothalamus, sits on top of the sphenoid body

Answer 9

a

Question 10

How many cranial nerves are there?
a) 36
b) 12
c) 24
d) 18
e) None of the above

Answer 10

c) 24

Question 11

After examining a CT scan of a patient that was admitted due to a brain injury, Dr Smith discovers that the patient is experiencing some brain swelling. Which of the following may be an explanation for this?
a) Reactive astrocytes forming glial scars due to the damaging of neural structures resulting
from the brain injury
b) Reactive astrocytes absorbing calcium and water resulting from the brain injury
c) Radial glia’s inability to absorb potassium and water due to the damaging of neural
structures resulting from the brain injury
d) Reactive Astrocytes absorbing potassium and water resulting from the brain injury
e) Oligodendrocytes inability to absorb potassium and water due to the damaging of neural
structures resulting from the brain injur

Answer 11

d) Reactive Astrocytes absorbing potassium and water resulting from the brain injury

Question 12

Which of the following statements is false?
a) Motor neurons are produced in the ventral neural tube, whilst sensory neurons are
produced in the dorsal neural tube.
b) Radial glial cells migrate from the interventricular surface and outwards towards the
overlying mantle.
c) BMP is secreted from the floor plate, SHH is secreted from the roof plate.
d) Radial migration refers to migration outwards, and tangential migration refers to migration
horizontally.
e) PNS neurons are derived from neural crest cells that leave from the dorsal parts of the CNS
as the neural tube is formed.

Answer 12

c

Question 13

What are the functions of the cerebral cortex?

Answer 13

• Emotion
• Reasoning
• Language
• Memory `

Question 14

191) Patient X has a lesion in the area of the gracile and cuneate tracts. Which of the following senses will not be affected?
a) Conscious proprioception
b) Fine touch
c) Vibration sense
d) Two point touch discrimination e) Unconscious proprioception

Answer 14

e) Unconscious procioception

Question 15

Which of the following is not a characteristic of spastic paralysis
a) Positive Babinski
b) Clonus
c) Hypotonia
d) Upper motor neuron lesion
e) Hyperreflexia

Answer 15

C) Hypotonia

Question 16

What happens if you conduct reflex tests after a spinal cord injury a) No response
b) Reflex tests worsen the area of injury
c) Reflex tests determine the un-affected area
d) Reflex tests determine area of injury e) Reflex tests promote recovery

Answer 16

d) Reflex tests determine area of injury

Question 17

From what layer of the cortex do inputs from the thalamus arise from?

Answer 17

4th layer

Question 18

Which of the following statements are true?
a) The cochlea is located in the inner ear
b) The cochlea is located in the middle ear
c) The cochlea is located in the outer ear
d) The cochlea is located in a spiral tube.
e) “The cochlea is located in the organ of Corti.

Answer 18

a) The cochlea is in the inner ear

Question 19

Out toungues have _____ tase buds and each taste bud has __- ___ taste receptor cells

Answer 19

10,000

50 - 100 taste receptor cells `

Question 20

Which individual(s) concept of pain was predominant for 2000 years ?
a) Plato, Aristotle
b) Plato
c) Aristotle, Hume
d) Hippocrates, Plato, Kant
e) Aristotle

Answer 20

e) Aristotle

Question 21

What’s the correct function for each fibre type?
a) Aβ – Touch, Aδ – Fast pain, C - slow pain
b) Aβ – Slow pain, Aδ – Fast pain, C- Touch
c) Aβ – touch, A δ– slow pain, C – fast pain
d) Aβ– slow pain, Aδ – fast pain

Answer 21

a) Aβ – Touch, Aδ – Fast pain, C - slow pain

Question 22

What are the opiate receptors in the brain?
a) α,δ,γ
b) γ,μ,α
c) α,δ,κ
d) μ,δ,κ
e) β,μ,α

Answer 22

d) μ,δ,κ

Question 23

Which factors regualte the gate control theroy of pain?

Answer 23

1. Amount of activity in pain fibres
2. Amount of activity in other peripheral fibers
3. Messages descending on the brain

Question 24

Tell me about PAG and RVM linking to opioids

Answer 24

Periaqueductal gray matter (PAG; in brain):
Lots of opioid receptors and enkephalins.
Has pathway that descends to modulate pain, so activating PAG neurons causes analgesia.
(neurons synapse to serotoninergic neurons in medulla)

RVM (rostro ventromedial medulla):
important for nociceptive processing, bidirectional.

Question 25

Where do most neurons involved in pain signals terminate?
a) Laminae 1 and 2 at the top, or dorsal end of spinal cord
b) Laminae 4 and 5 at dorsal end of spinal cord
c) Laminae 2 and 3 at ventral end of spinal cord
d) In white matter of spinal cord, laminae 2 and 3 In the medulla oblongata

Answer 25

a) Laminae 1 and 2 at the top or dorsal end of spinal cord

Question 26

199) Which of these best describes unlearning an association from classical conditioning?
a) Removal
b) Reduction
c) Inactivation
d) Unlearning
e) Extinction

Answer 26

e) extinction

Question 27

Who was/were the founder/s of modern pathology?
a) Emile Durkheim
b) Rudolf Virchow
c) Karl Marx
d) All of the above
e) None of the above

Answer 27

b) Rudolf Virchow

Question 28

There are factors that impact clinical practice. What are they?

Answer 28

Patient behaviours: meaning of illness to people
Professional behaviours: explaining abuse
* Organisational and political factors

Question 29

Study of typhus outbreak in Upper Silesia 1847.

What did it reflect?

Answer 29

Epidemic reflected social problems: typhus appeared when people were crowded or hungry

Question 30

Different thoughts, behaviours and emotions are controlled by different parts of the brain. Abnormal function of a certain part of the brain can cause disruptions to those traits which it controls. What is the role of the hippocampus?
a) Planning and organising behaviour based upon the use of working memory
b) Organising memory storage and retrieving memories stored in the cortex
c) Control of emotions, feeding and drinking
d) Trigger hormonal secretions from the pituitary
e) Receives information about possible events or threats and assesses danger

Answer 30

b

Question 31

Pick he function that isn’t mediated by the sympathetic branch of the autonomic system: a) Increased gastric secretions
b) Increase in heart rate
c) Increase in blood pressure
d) Decrease in gut motility e) Release of cortisol

Answer 31

a

Question 32

The adrenal medulla secretes which hormone?
a) Cortisol
b) Adrenaline
c) ADH
d) FSH
e) Noradrenaline

Answer 32

b

Question 33

Which of the following correctly describes baseline levels of the hormone cortisol in the bloodstream (not under stress conditions)?
a) No cortisol present in the bloodstream

b) A large concentration of cortisol present in certain tissues, but low concentration in the
bloodstream

c) A small concentration of cortisol continuously present in bloodstream, maintained by enzymes in the blood.

d) A large concentration of cortisol continuously present in bloodstream, maintained by enzymes in the blood.

e) A small concentration of cortisol continuously present in the bloodstream, maintained by increased stimulation of amygdala.

Answer 33

c

Question 34

What percentage of adults between ages 16-64 years meet diagnostic criteria for at least 1 emotional disorder?
a) 13.2%
b) 62%
c) 1.2% d) 16.2% e) 29

Answer 34

d

Question 35

Which of these is both a social and psychological aspect that contributes towards mental health?
a) Physical health
b) Family relationships
c) Disability
d) IQ
e) Self-esteem

Answer 35

b

Question 36

For what type of depression is cognitive psychotherapy a treatment for?
a) Severe depression
b) Very severe depression
c) Mild depression
d) Prolonged depression
e) Newly diagnosed depression

Answer 36

c

Question 37

Observations have shown that antidepressants have what impact on neuronal turnover in a rodent’s hippocampus?
a) They decrease neuronal turnover
b) They increase neuronal turnover
c) They stop neuronal turnover
d) They cause interruptions in neuronal turnover
e) They cause neuronal turnover to fluctuate depending on antidepressant levels

Answer 37

b

Question 38

Which of the following can lead to stress causing anxiety, depression as well as stress being relieved?
a) Feeling disengaged, discouraged or deprived
b) Reacting aggressively
c) Being aware of acute problems
d) Reacting creatively
e) Denying the problem/denying responsibility

Answer 38

e

Question 39

What are the key features distinguishing between attention, recognition and emotions, respectively?
a) Selection of information vs acknowledgement of the stimulus vs sensation.
b) Selection of information vs assignment of categories vs perception.
c) Choosing importance of information vs acknowledgement of the stimulus vs sensation.
d) Choosing importance of information vs assignment of categories vs perception.
e) Categorising information vs acknowledgement of the stimulus vs sensation.

Answer 39

b

Question 40

Which of the following best fits in with the skill of reflection in motivational interviewing?
a) Encourages the patient to elaborate further
b) Confirms your understanding
c) Praising the strengths of the patient
d) Structures the patients’ thoughts and concerns
e) Allows you to elicit patient perspective fully and identify their capability and motivation

Answer 40

a

Question 41

Which skill of motivational interviewing would best be described as allowing you to check-in with the patient that you have a correct understanding of their situation?

Answer 41

Summarise

Question 42

The more a person defends their behaviour the more committed they are to keeping it the same. This is an example of?
a) Motivational insight
b) Sustain talk
c) Change talk
d) Affirmation
e) Resistance

Answer 42

Sustain Talk

Question 43

What of the following is not a BCT recommended by NICE?
a) ‘If-then’ planning
b) Feedback and monitoring
c) Goal setting and planning
d) Affirmation
e) Social support

Answer 43

d

Question 44

What should you not do when utilising the technique of reflective listening?
a) ask lots of questions
b) address a patient’s feelings based on inference from body language
c) summarise their feelings in a statement
d) paraphrase what a patient has said back to them
e) encourage them to elaborate

Answer 44

a

Question 45

Which of the following is not part of the main purpose of summarising in a consultation?
a) confirms your understanding of patient
b) diagnose patient
c) structures patient’s concerns
d) structures patient’s thoughts
e) structures consultation to move from engagement to focusing

Answer 45

b