Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Self > Finally > Flashcards

Finally Flashcards

1
Q

Most common nerve damaged in leg

A

Common Peroneal nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Femoral triangle base is formed by

A

Inguinal ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Medial compatment of thigh is supplied by

A

Obturator nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

First web space of foot is supplied by

A

Deep peroneal nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Neural crest cell migration is due to

A

Hyaluronic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Derivative of ultimobranchial body

A

Parafollicular C cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Tumor from rathkes pouch

A

Craniopharyngioma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Coracoid process of the scapula

A

Atavistic epiphysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Component of carpal tunnel

A

Flexor digitorum superficialis
Flexor digitorum profundus
Flexor pollicis longus
Median nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which structure passes through guyons canal?

A

Ulnar nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Cup and pencil appearance seen in

A

Psoriasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Triple bubble sign seen in

A

Jejunal atresia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Snow flake or snow storm cataract

A

Diabetes mellitus/down’s syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Muscle biceps brachii inserts into

A

Radial tuberosity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Length of collecting duct

A

20mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Cell of stomach - G cell secretes

A

Gastrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Largest protein in the body

A

Titin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Stave cells are seen in

A

Spleen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Pouch of Douglas - location

A

Between rectum and uterus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Vitamin having antioxidants property

A

Vitamin E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the rate limiting enzyme in urea cycle pathway?

A

CPS 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Other name for vit B12

A

Cyanocobalamin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Treatment of alopecia in Male

A

Minoxidil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Doc for motion sickness

A

Hyoscine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

DOC for malignant hyperthermia

A

Dantrolene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Drug for malignant prostrate carcinoma

A

Bicalutamide/flutamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Doc for hypertensive emergency

A

Nicardipine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Orange colour urine and flu like syndrome is due to the side effect of which drug

A

Rifampicin(antitubercular drug)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Largest gene

A

Dystrophin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Cat eye syndrome

A

Partial trisomy of chromosome 22

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Connective tissue metaplasia

A

Myosotis ossificans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Severe generalised edema

A

Anasarca

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

N-MYC

A

Neuroblastoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Short arm of chromosome 6

A

MHC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Common site of gastric carcinoma

A

Pylorus and antrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Common site of peptic ulcer

A

1st part of duodenum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Characteristics of diabetic neuropathy

A

Kimmelstiel Wilson lesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Fungal cell wall is made up of

A

Chitin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Culture media for nessieria gonorrhoea

A

Thayer Martin medium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Negri bodies

A

Rabies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Cellulitis is caused by

A

Streptococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Falling leaf motility

A

Giardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Bacteria which is kidney shape

A

Gonnococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Ig present in breast milk

A

IgA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Hara -Kiri is suicide by stabbing in

A

Abdomen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Sexual asphyxia is associated with

A

Masochism and transvestism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Which test in used in death due to drowning

A

Getters test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Study of footprint

A

Podogram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

8th day disease

A

Tetanus neonatorum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Q fever is caused by

A

Coxiella Burnetii

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

1994 epidemic in India

A

Plague

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Yaws is caused by

A

Treponema pertenue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Koplik spots are the diagnosis of

A

Measles (upper second molar)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Doc for lymphogranuloma venereum

A

Doxycycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Mc complaint of IUD Insertion

A

Bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Normal iq

A

70 and over

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Biomedical waste of colour code black/white translucent

A

Sharp waste,solid waste

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Category 3 - code green

A

Ambulatory / low minor injuries ;non life threating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Category 4 - black

A

Dead ; moridund ;least priority

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Underweight bmi

A

<18.5kg/meter square

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Strongest layer of GIT

A

Submucosal layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Most common causes of prosthetic valve endocarditis

A

CONS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Most common causes of Hemoptysis

A

Pulmonary TB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Most common causes of hematemesis

A

PUD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

RBC CAST is present in

A

Acute glomerulonephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Ebstein anomaly

A

Box shaped heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

TOF

A

Boot shaped heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Significance of P wave

A

Atrial depolarization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

DOC For herpes simplex encephalitis

A

Acyclovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

CNS bleed in boxers

A

Subdural haemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Partial pressure of oxygen in alveoli

A

103mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Thalassemia

A

Autosomal recessive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Most common causes of mitral stenosis

A

Rheumatic fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Pan systolic murmur

A

MR,VSD,TR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

CT finding in subdural hematoma

A

Concavo-convex bleed hyperdensity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Cushing syndrome

A

Increased cortisol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Nosocomial pneumonia

A

Staph aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

RBC cast seen in

A

Acute glomerulonephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Tumor marker of prostate cancer

A

Androgen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Tumor marker for lung cancer

A

Radon gas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Tumor marker for liver cancer (angiosarcoma)

A

Vinyl chloride

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What is MC organism ,Rx,IOC of masititis

A

Staph aureus,modified Hilton’s method,USG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Most common site for polamazia

A

Axilla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Saints triad

A

Gallstones,hiatus hernia,diverticulitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Lymph nodes involved in CA penis

A

Inguinal nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Wolff chaikoff effect

A

Iodine induced hypothyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Mc site of thyroglossal cyst

A

Sub hyoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Mc intracranial aneurysm

A

Berry aneurysm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Staging in medulloblastoma

A

Chang staging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Mc tumor of the brain

A

Metastatic/secondary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Mc spinal tumor

A

Metastatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Dumbell lesion describe

A

Neurofibroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Mc cause of erectile dysfunction

A

Vasogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Mc surgery performed on males

A

Circumsion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Most common tumor of appendix

A

Carcinoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Mcc of upper GI bleeding

A

Peptic ulcer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

MCC of ureteric obstruction

A

Stone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Strawberry gingivitis

A

Wegeners granulomatosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Mc childhood tumor

A

Leukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Mc injury to the thoracic cage in children

A

Rib fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Mc type of primary liver cancer

A

Hepatoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

7 months infant development

A

Palmar grasp ,stranger anxiety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Fulminant hepatitis in pregnancy Mcc by

A

HEV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Most imp muscle for pelvic floor

A

Levator ani

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

pH of vagina in adult women

A

4 -5.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

1st polar body releases at

A

Ovulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Footling breech with hyperextended neck

A

Stargazer baby

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Mc type of breech

A

Frank breech

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Mcc of 1 PPH

A

Uterine atony

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Mcc of 2*PPH

A

Retained placental tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Syntometrine

A

Oxytocin + methergine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Doc for eclampsia

A

Mgso4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Imp vessel and their rements -ductus venosus

A

Ligamentum venosum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

At 12 week -fundal height land mark

A

Pubic symphysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Ovarian tumor and their HPE finding -clear cell tumor

A

Hobnail cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Auricle is derived from which branchial arch

A

1 and 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Moderately severe hearing loss

A

56-70dB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Best treatment for polp

A

FESS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Flask shaped femora seen in

A

Thalassemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Cxr of TOF

A

Cor-en-sabot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Half life of phosphorus -32

A

14.3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Radiological sign - spider leg appearance

A

Polycystic kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Pencil tip or bird beak tapering

A

Achalasia cardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Most common type of VSD

A

Perimembraneous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

IOC for acute pancreatitis

A

CECT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Double duct sign is seen in

A

Periampulary carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Cotton wool skull seen in

A

Pagets disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Hot cross bun skull seen in

A

Congenital syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Celery stalk appearance

A

Congenital rubella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Bone most commonly involved in osteoarthritis

A

Patella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Golf hole ureter

A

TB bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Coffee bean sign

A

Sigmoid volvulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Thumb print sign

A

Ischemic colitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Golden s sign is seen in

A

Bronchogenic carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Water lily sign or camalote sign

A

Hydatid lung

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Most common side effect of lithium

A

Tremor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Doc for acute mania

A

Lithium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Most common EPS

A

Akathisia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Most common cause of impotency in Male

A

Psychogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Psychosis occur in

A

Pregnancy,postpartum,epilepsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Common organic disorder

A

Delirium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Treatment of choice for phobia

A

Behaviour therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Mc form of pica

A

Geophagia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Fear of death most commonly at age of

A

5 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Mc psychiatric illness

A

Anxiety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Which is nt seen in schizophrenia

A

Dementia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Drug not useful for induction in infants

A

Morphine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Diazepam causes

A

Retrograde amnesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Plane warts are seen in which disease

A

Verruca plana

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

What is seen in scarlet fever

A

Pistia line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Barbers itch

A

Syncosis barbae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Doc for donovanosis

A

Azithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Most commonly involved nerve in leprosy

A

Ulnar nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Half and half nail sign is seen in

A

Uremia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Koilonychia

A

Seen in iron deficiency anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Satellite lesions are seen in

A

BT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Mc presentation of contact dermatitis

A

Hand eczema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

Mc site of impetigo

A

Face

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

Mc type of warts

A

Verruca vulgaris/common warts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

Infection due to pox virus

A

Molluscum contagiousum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

Painful lesions seen in

A

Herpes infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

Mc cause of impetigo

A

Staph aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

Which skin inf has bad prognosis

A

P.vulgaris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

Useful in diagnosis of herpes lesion (HSV/VZV multinuceate giant cells)

A

Tzanck smear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

Normal skin turnover

A

4-5 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

Average weight of skin

A

App 4kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

Watery eye discharge

A

Viral conjunctivitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

Mc causes of red eye

A

Conjunctivitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

Mc etiology of visual loss in patients with diabetes mellitus

A

Macular edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

Mc cause of blindness in developed world

A

Proliferative diabetic retinopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

Instrument used to measure corneal thickness

A

Patchy meter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

Side effect of topical steroid

A

Glaucoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

Jack in a box is seen in

A

Aphakia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

Cricket ball injury to eye does not lead to

A

Hypopyon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

Interstitial keratitis is seen in

A

Syphillis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

Loss of eye lashes/eye brows

A

Madarosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

Eye sign seen in Wilson disease

A

Sunflower cataract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

Toc for paralytic squint

A

Surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

Corneal transparency is maintained by

A

Descendents membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

Horners syndrome

A

Triad of miosis,ipsilateral PTosis,anhydrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

Acuity for distant vision is tested by

A

Snellen chart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

Sign for superior oblique palsy

A

Bielschowsky sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

CRAO

A

cattle truck appearance of renal veins,cherry red spots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

Lens is developed from which embryonic structure

A

Surface ectoderm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

Normal cup-disc ratio

A

1:3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

Anterior lenticonus

A

Alport syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

Sun burst appearance

A

Osteosarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

Sailors gait

A

Occurs in bilateral CDH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

Trendelenburg gait

A

Occurs in unstable hip due to CDH,gluteus medius weakness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

Patchy calcification

A

Chondrosarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

Fracture of calcaneum

A

Bohlers angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

Radiological sign of Shentons hip

A

Hip X-ray

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

Important classification for fracture neck of the femur

A

Pauwels classification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

Test for AcL injury

A

Lachman test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

Signs of Common peroneal injury

A

Foot drop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

Test for testing the pantency of radial and ulnar arteries

A

Allen’s test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

Signs of ulnar nerve injury

A

Claw hand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

Test for tennis elbow

A

Cozens test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

Splint which is fracture femur (anywhere from neck to supracondylar region)

A

Bohler Braun splint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

Brachial plexus injury

A

Aeroplane splint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

Isolated fracture of iliac wing

A

Duverney fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
202
Q

Bimalleolar fracture of the ankle

A

Potts fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
203
Q

Nerve involved in ant.shoulder dislocation

A

Axillary nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
204
Q

Radial nerve palsy

A

Cock up splint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
205
Q

Scaphoid is treated by

A

Glass holding cast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
206
Q

K wire is used for

A

Cerclage and forearm bone fixation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
207
Q

Mc cause of stridor in infant is

A

Laryngomalacia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
208
Q

Most common Fungal infection of oral cavity

A

Moniliasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
209
Q

Mc benign lesion of ear

A

Actinic keratosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
210
Q

Mc tumor of paranasal sinuses

A

Osteoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
211
Q

Most common site of epistaxis

A

Little area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
212
Q

Most common sinusitis in children

A

Ethmoidal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
213
Q

Narrowest portion of larynx in adult

A

Glottis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
214
Q

Signs seen in glomus tumor(glomus jugulare)

A

Phelps sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
215
Q

3Ds of gradenigos syndrome

A

Diplopia
Deep pain
Discharge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
216
Q

Signs seen in carotid body tumor

A

Lyre sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
217
Q

Cauliflower ear

A

Hamartoma of auricle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
218
Q

Signs seen in menieres disease

A

Hennebert sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
219
Q

Mcc of sensorineural hearing loss

A

Presbycusis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
220
Q

Mc malignant germ cell tumor

A

Dysgerminoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
221
Q

Nerve supplying cornea

A

Trigeminal nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
222
Q

Weight of brain

A

Male : 1.4kg

Female : 1.27kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
223
Q

Most frequently fractured bone of body

A

Clavicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
224
Q

Labourer’s nerve/eye of the hand

A

Median nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
225
Q

Klumpke’s paralysis

A

Damage to C8 and T1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
226
Q

Most frequently dislocated carpal bone

A

Lunate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
227
Q

Nerve supply of deltoid

A

Axillary nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
228
Q

Police man tip hand / porters tip hand

A

Erbs paralysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
229
Q

Test which is done to check gluteus medius and minimus

A

Trendenlenburg test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
230
Q

Parotid gland duct

A

Stensen’s duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
231
Q

Submandibular gland duct

A

Wharton’s duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
232
Q

Muscle of horror

A

Plastysma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
233
Q

Muscle which is known as peripheral heart

A

Soleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
234
Q

Broca’s area located in

A

Inferior frontal gyrus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
235
Q

Dermatome of thumb

A

C6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
236
Q

Muscles that initiates adduction of arm

A

Supraspinatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
237
Q

Nerve injury with fracture of shaft of humerus

A

Radial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
238
Q

Magandie foramen drains CSF from

A

4th ventricle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
239
Q

Largest branch of brachial plexus

A

Radial nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
240
Q

Largest branches of lumbar plexus

A

Femoral nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
241
Q

Infection of CNS spreads in inner ear through

A

Cochlear aqueduct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
242
Q

Cephalic veins drain into

A

Axillary vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
243
Q

Triceps surae nerve is

A

Gastroc soleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
244
Q

Nerve root value of sciatic nerve

A

L4,5 and S1,2,3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
245
Q

Azygos lobe is a part of this organ

A

Lung

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
246
Q

Kochs triangle is a part of which node

A

AV node

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
247
Q

Cisterna chyli is situated in

A

Abdomen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
248
Q

Muscle of grinning

A

Risorius muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
249
Q

Smallest cranial nerve

A

Trochlear nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
250
Q

Right lung has how many loves

A

3 lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
251
Q

What attaches the cusps of valve to the papillary muscles in the heart?

A

Chordae tendineae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
252
Q

Kidney - weight

A

130 - 160 gram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
253
Q

Length of Fallopian tube

A

10-12cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
254
Q

Most frequently fractured carpal bone

A

Scaphoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
255
Q

Ligament which support the talus

A

Spring ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
256
Q

Gerlach tonsil also called

A

Tubal tonsil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
257
Q

Artery of embryonic foregut

A

Celiac artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
258
Q

Broad ligament of uterus is comprised of

A

1) mesosalpinx
2) mesovarium
3) mesometrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
259
Q

Muscle are innervated by the axillary nerve

A

Deltoid and teres minor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
260
Q

Ovarian artery is a branch of

A

Abdominal aorta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
261
Q

Base of the heart is formed by

A

Left atrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
262
Q

Inferior vena cava is at a level of

A

L5 level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
263
Q

Most common fracture of humerus

A

Supracondylar fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
264
Q

Longest intracranial course

A

Trochlear nerve CN 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
265
Q

Left adrenal gland is

A

cresentic /semilunar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
266
Q

Xiphoid process is at a level of

A

T9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
267
Q

Bifurcation of abdominal aorta

A

L4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
268
Q

Thyroid cartilage

A

C5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
269
Q

Floating ribs

A

11-12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
270
Q

Strongest,shortest and widest rib

A

1 rib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
271
Q

Nerves involved in biceps jerk

A

Musculocutaneous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
272
Q

Nerves involved in triceps reflex/jerk

A

Radial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
273
Q

Most common site of prostate cancer

A

Posterior lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
274
Q

4 types of mechanoreceptors

A

1) meissners corpuscles
2) merkels cell(slow adapting)
3) ruffini corpuscles(slow adapting)
4) pacinian corpuscles ( rapidly adapting )

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
275
Q

In cell and cell membrane protein lipid ratio

A

2:1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
276
Q

Which nociceptors are activated by skin temperature above 42 C or severe cold

A

Thermal nociceptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
277
Q

Order of cell cycle

A

G1–>S—>G2–>M—>G1—>G0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
278
Q

Amplitude is due to

A

Na

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
279
Q

RMP is due to

A

Potassium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
280
Q

Synthesis of protein occurs in

A

Rough endoplasmic reticulum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
281
Q

Equilibrium potential of ion is calculated by

A

Nernst equation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
282
Q

RBC membrane is especially having

A

Spectrin(maintains integrity) and glycoproteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
283
Q

Volatile acid in plasma is buffered by

A

Hemoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
284
Q

Surfactant is produced by

A

Type 2 cells (granular pneumocytes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
285
Q

Vitamin D form found in skin

A

7-dehydrocholestrol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
286
Q

Heart rate if purkinje fibers became the pacemaker of the heart

A

15-40bpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
287
Q

Mean systolic filling pressure

A

7mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
288
Q

Normal PH of blood

A

7.35 - 7.45

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
289
Q

Life span of normal RBC

A

120 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
290
Q

Normal GFR as adult value is reached at

A

2 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
291
Q

Structure with the slowest rate of conduction of the cardiac action potential

A

AV bundle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
292
Q

Neurotransmitter of purine

A

Adenosine

ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
293
Q

Radioiodine injection

A

Hyperthyroidism will show an increase uptake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
294
Q

Cells of stomach

A 
G Cell secretes
I Cell secretes
S cell secretes
D cell secretes 
Parietal cell secretes 
Chief cells secretes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
295
Q

S cell secretes

A

Secretin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
296
Q

Teeth grinding is seen in which stage of sleep

A

NREM 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
297
Q

Which fatty acid decrease transition temperature and increase fluidity

A

Unsaturated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
298
Q

Best test for sleep disorder

A

Polysomnography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
299
Q

Length of proximal convoluted tubule

A

15mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
300
Q

Alpha cells of pancreas secretes

A

Glucagon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
301
Q

Starch is hydrolyzed in mouth by

A

Ptylin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
302
Q

Drug of choice for cardiogenic shock

A

Dobutamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
303
Q

Doc for beta blocker poisoning

A

Glucagon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
304
Q

Which drug is contraindicated throughout pregnancy

A

Streptomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
305
Q

Longest acting beta blocker

A

Nadolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
306
Q

Most widely used beta blocker for congestive heart failure

A

Carvediol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
307
Q

Side effect of zonisamide

A

Renal stone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
308
Q

Anti muscarinic drugs

A

1) atropine
2) scopolamine
3) homatropine
4) cyclopentolate
5) tropicamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
309
Q

Duration of effect of atropine

A

7-10 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
310
Q

First line of drug for multiple myeloma

A

Melphalan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
311
Q

Doc for acute severe asthma

A

Salbutamol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
312
Q

Doc for morning sickness

A

Doxylamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
313
Q

Doc for anaphylactic shock

A

Adrenaline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
314
Q

Doc for hypertensive emergency in pregnancy

A

Labetalol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
315
Q

Oral doc for scabies

A

Ivermectin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
316
Q

Doc for alcohol withdrawal syndrome

A

Benzodiazepine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
317
Q

Doc for atrial fibrillation

A

Digitalis (digoxin , digitoxin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
318
Q

Side effect of anti tubercular drug isoniazid

A

Peripheral neuropathy(due to vit b6 deficiency )

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
319
Q

Trisomy 13

A

Patau syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
320
Q

Mc urinary bladder CA

A

Transitional cell CA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
321
Q

Von gierkes disease is due to

A

G-6-P deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
322
Q

Muscle phosphorylase deficiency

A

Mc ardles disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
323
Q

Beta glucocerebrosidase deficiency

A

Gaucher disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
324
Q

Most important apoprotien in HDL

A

Apo A-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
325
Q

Denovo synthesis of fatty acids occurs in the

A

Cystosol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
326
Q

Refsum disease is due to the deficiency of

A

Phytanic alpha oxidase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
327
Q

The metabolic disorder of purine metabolism

A

Gout

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
328
Q

Maximum cholestrol content

A

LDL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
329
Q

Net ATP produced in aerobic glycolysis

A

7ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
330
Q

Fluoroacetate inhibits a onu tase enzyme

A

Noncompetitive reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
331
Q

Menkes disease occurs due to

A

Deficiency of copper

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
332
Q

Hyperammonemia type 1 is due to deficiency of this enzyme

A

Ornithine transcarbamylase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
333
Q

Smallest and simplest amino acid

A

Glycine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
334
Q

Keshan disease is due to the deficiency of

A

Selenium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
335
Q

Precursor of all spingolipids

A

Ceramide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
336
Q

Which amino acid is a phenol

A

Tyrosine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
337
Q

Which test is used to determine whether a gene is expressed

A

Northern blotting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
338
Q

Gluconeogenesis is inhibited by

A

Insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
339
Q

Complete HGPRT deficiency causes

A

Lesch - nyhan syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
340
Q

DNA ligase and primase are used in

A

DNA replication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
341
Q

Alzheimer’s ,cystic fibrosis and prion diseases occurs due to

A

Protein misfolding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
342
Q

Enzyme required for demethylation

A

Phenylethanolamine N methyltransferase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
343
Q

Proline and glycine have the least tendency to form

A

Alpha helix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
344
Q

Simple globular protein are

A

Albumin and globulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
345
Q

Maple syrup urine disease is deficiency of branched chain

A

Alpha keto acid dehydrogenase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
346
Q

Which vit intoxication leads to demineralisation of bone,hypercalecemia,hyperostosis

A

Vit A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
347
Q

Niacin sparing amino acid

A

Tryptophan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
348
Q

Which bases are purine

A

Adenine and guanine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
349
Q

Which enzyme is def in severe combined immunodeficiency disease(SCID)?

A

Adenosine deaminase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
350
Q

Which type of collagen makes the basement membrane?

A

Type -4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
351
Q

Which enzyme is deficient in essential fructosuria

A

Fructokinase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
352
Q

Hunter syndrome

A

Iduronate 2 sulfatase deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
353
Q

Gaucher’s disease

A

Glucocerebrosidase deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
354
Q

Tay Sachs

A

Hexosaminodase A deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
355
Q

GLUT 3 receptor are located in which tissue and its function

A

Location : Brain ,kidney ,placenta

Function :glucose uptake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
356
Q

Other name for vit b6

A

Pyridoxine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
357
Q

Inborn error of metabolism (swimming pool)

A

Hawkinsinuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
358
Q

Mc type of porphyria

A

Porphyria cutanea tarda

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
359
Q

Mc acute porphyria

A

Acute intermittent porphyria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
360
Q

Physiological anatagonism of histamine

A

Adrenaline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
361
Q

Doc for diabetic diarrhea

A

Clonidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
362
Q

Clinical trial to assess safety and non toxicity

A

Phase 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
363
Q

Doc for atropine poisoning

A

Physostigmine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
364
Q

Organophosphate poisoning

A

Oximes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
365
Q

Treatment for narcolepsy

A

Modafinil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
366
Q

Earliest appearance adverse effect of digitalis

A

Nausea and vomiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
367
Q

Oral mannitol side effect

A

Osmotic diarrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
368
Q

Doc benign prostatic hypertrophy

A

Silodosin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
369
Q

MoA of hyoscine

A

M3 blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
370
Q

Recently approved myocardial calcium sensitizer

A

Levosimendan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
371
Q

Ranolazine is recently approved for

A

Angina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
372
Q

Gender specific side effect of valproate

A

PCOS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
373
Q

Long acting somatostatin

A

Octreotide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
374
Q

First line of drug for chronic myeloid leukemia

A

Imatinib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
375
Q

Renal stone and weight loss are the side effect of which drug

A

Topiramate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
376
Q

Side effects of 6 mercaptourine

A

Hepatotoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
377
Q

Doc for carcinoma pancreas

A

Gemcitabine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
378
Q

Doc choriocarcinoma

A

Methotrexate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
379
Q

Doc for glioma

A

Nitrosourea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
380
Q

Doc for liver fluke

A

Triclabendazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
381
Q

Doc for Chagas’ disease

A

Benznidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
382
Q

Doc for candida

A

Fluconazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
383
Q

Doc for supraventricular tachycardia

A

Verapamil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
384
Q

Doc for cerebral malaria

A

Artesunate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
385
Q

Doc for torsades de pointes

A

Mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
386
Q

Doc for Alzheimer’s disorder

A

Galantamine/rivastigmine/donepezil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
387
Q

Side effect of chloramphenicol (antimicrobial drug)

A

Bone marrow suppression and grey baby syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
388
Q

Sideeffect of clindamycin (antimicrobial drug)

A

Pseudomembranous colitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
389
Q

Side effect of erythromycin estolate (antimicrobial drug)

A

Cholestasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
390
Q

Side effect of cycloserine(antituberculin drug)

A

Psychotic symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
391
Q

Antiplatelet drugs for target of inhibition of TXA2 (thromboxane A2) release

A

Aspirin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
392
Q

Antiplatelet drugs which inhibits TXA2 receptor blocker

A

Teruteoban

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
393
Q

Antiplatelet drugs which inhibit thrombin

A

Atopaxar and vorapaxar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
394
Q

Which hypolipidmic drug inhibits HMG -CoA reductase inhibitor

A

Statins (simvastatin ,rosuvastatin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
395
Q

Which hypolipidemic drugs is used in mechanism of inhibition cholestrol absorption

A

Ezetimibe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
396
Q

Oral hypoglycaemic drugs

A

1) biguanides
2) alpha -glucosidase
3) dipeptidyl peptidase 4 inhibitors
4) insulin secreta gogues - sulfonylureas ,non sulfonylureas
5) SLGT2 inhibitors
6) Thiazolidinediones
7) GLP -1 agonists
8) amylin analogue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
397
Q

Mechanism of action of mipomersen

A

Apolipoprotien B 100 synthesis inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
398
Q

Most common mediastinal tumor

A

Thymoma(anterior mediastinum)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
399
Q

Most common source of brain metastasis

A

Lung

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
400
Q

India ink is used for diagnosing

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
401
Q

Trisomy 21

A

Down syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
402
Q

Pregnancy tumor of gums

A

Granuloma pyogenicum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
403
Q

HPE finding of type 4 lupus nephritis

A

Wire loop lesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
404
Q

Coast of California sign is seen in

A

Neurofibromas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
405
Q

Bear paw sign is seen in

A

Xanthogranulomatus pyelonephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
406
Q

Most common cell injury

A

Hypoxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
407
Q

Most common cause of hypoxia

A

Ischemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
408
Q

Cytochrome C plays an important role in

A

Apoptosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
409
Q

Barrett’s esophagus is an example of

A

Metaplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
410
Q

What type of Necrosis is used in TB

A

Caseous necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
411
Q

Most common site for metastatic calcification

A

Lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
412
Q

Hall mark of acute inflammation

A

Increased vascular permeability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
413
Q

Rolling of neutrophils done by

A

Selectins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
414
Q

Most imp chemical mediator of acute inflammation

A

Histamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
415
Q

Most common type of inflammation

A

Catarrhal inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
416
Q

Monocytes and macrophages are the primary leukocytes in

A

Chronic inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
417
Q

Virchow triad

A

Endothelial/vascular injury + alteration of blood flow(stasis or turbulence )+hypercoagulability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
418
Q

Most common inherited cause of hypercoagulability

A

Leiden mutation (factor 5 mutation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
419
Q

Most common site for DVT

A

Deep vein below the knees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
420
Q

Most common death in Marfan syndrome

A

Aortic dissection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
421
Q

Essential amino acid in PKU

A

Tyrosine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
422
Q

The chief cell responsible for scar contraction

A

Myofibroblast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
423
Q

Heart failure cells seen in

A

Lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
424
Q

Fibrin is Degraded by

A

Plasmin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
425
Q

Most common source of embolism

A

DVT (deep vein thrombosis )

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
426
Q

In inflammation Rubor is due to

A

Arteriolar dilatation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
427
Q

Which cells primarily involved in acute inflammation

A

Neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
428
Q

Cel mateix adhesion is mediated by

A

Integrins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
429
Q

Phagocytic cells in brain (CNS)

A

Microglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
430
Q

Which syndrome is a defect of phagocytosis and associated with mutation in lyst gene

A

Chediak -Higashi syndrome(AR syndrome)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
431
Q

Giant cells seen in measles are

A

Warthin finkeldey

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
432
Q

Reed stern berg cells seen in

A

Hodgkins lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
433
Q

Triplet repeat of CCG nucleotides are seen in

A

Fragile X syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
434
Q

Diagnosis of choice for fragile X syndrome

A

PCR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
435
Q

White spots on the iris known as brushfield spots seen in

A

Down syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
436
Q

Autosomal congenital disorder mostly mutation in genes on chromosome 12

A

Noonan syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
437
Q

Absent in normal males and turners syndrome Bt female has 1 Barr body

A

Barr bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
438
Q

Hallmark of malignant transformation

A

Anaplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
439
Q

Abnormal differentiation in normal site

A

Hamartoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
440
Q

The main mediator that propels that cell beyond prophase is

A

Cyclin B CDK1 complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
441
Q

Police man of abdominal cavity

A

Greater omentum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
442
Q

What is associated with conflict model in carcinogenesis

A

MYC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
443
Q

Benign tumor developing from all there germ layers

A

Teratoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
444
Q

H-RAS

A

Bladder and kidney Tumors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
445
Q

Which gene in present on chromosome 13q14

A

Rb gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
446
Q

The non mutated P53 Gene is also called

A

Wild type

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
447
Q

Which translocation is seen in 4% case of Down syndrome

A

Robertsonian transocation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
448
Q

Test used for screening of Down syndrome at 15-20 weeks of pregnancy

A

Triple test and quadruple screen test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
449
Q

Change in the class of the antibody produced by the plasma cell

A

Isotope switching

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
450
Q

Which molecule is present on all APCs (antigen presenting cells)

A

MHC 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
451
Q

Artery not involved in artherosclerosis

A

Pulmonary trunk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
452
Q

Most common cause of aortic aneurysm

A

Atherosclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
453
Q

Tree bark classification is seen in

A

Syphilitic aneurysm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
454
Q

Pulseless disease is

A

Takayasu arteritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
455
Q

Kaposis sarcoma is associated with

A

HHV -8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
456
Q

Most common cause of constructive pericarditis

A

TB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
457
Q

Gitter cells are

A

Microglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
458
Q

Characteristic pathological features of Parkinsonism

A

Lewy bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
459
Q

Most common causes of intracerebral (intraparenchymal )haemorrhage

A

Hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
460
Q

Most common cerebellar tumor in children and intramedullary tumor

A

Astroctyoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
461
Q

MEN 1

A

Werner’s syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
462
Q

MEN 2A

A

Sipples syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
463
Q

Most common thyroid carcinoma

A

Papillary carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
464
Q

Tadpole cells are seen in

A

Rhabdomyosarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
465
Q

Brown tumor of the bone is seen in

A

Hyperparathyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
466
Q

Trophus is the pathognomic for

A

Gout

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
467
Q

Bilateral breast cancer

A

Lobular carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
468
Q

Most common breast cancer

A

Invasive ductal carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
469
Q

Most common gene involved in breast cancer

A

P53

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
470
Q

Canals of herring are present in

A

Liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
471
Q

Onion skin fibrosis of bile duct is seen in

A

Primary sclerosing cholangitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
472
Q

Pipe stem appearance is seen in

A

Ulcerative colitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
473
Q

Most common site of GIST

A

Stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
474
Q

Most common cause of nephrotic syndrome

A

Membraneous GN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
475
Q

Tamm - Horsfall protein is produced by

A

Loop of henle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
476
Q

Potato nodes are seen in

A

Sarcoidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
477
Q

Most common lung carcinoma

A

Adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
478
Q

Carcinoid tumors arises from

A

Enterochromaffin cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
479
Q

Marker for squamous cell carcinoma of lung

A

Cytokeratin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
480
Q

Most common cause of nephrotic syndrome

A

RPGN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
481
Q

RPGN is characterised by

A

Crescent formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
482
Q

Mean incubation period of hep A

A

2 to 6 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
483
Q

Doubling of bacteria is seen in this phase

A

Exponential phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
484
Q

Attain temperature of 122c under 15lb/so inch pressure

A

Autoclaving

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
485
Q

Most common organism causing hospital acquired wound infections/surgical wounds

Most common organism implicated in osteomyelitis

A

Staph aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
486
Q

What is used in guthrie test

A

Bacillus subtilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
487
Q

Uses of slide agglutination test

A

Used for serotyping of salmonella VDRL for syphillis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
488
Q

Which gas is used for fumigation of OT/labs/rooms/woolen blanket

A

Formaldehyde

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
489
Q

Proteus strain are used as antigens for

A

Weil felix reactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
490
Q

Most imp opsonising complement

A

C3B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
491
Q

Most imp chemotactic

A

C5a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
492
Q

Triad of fever ,jaundice ,renal failure

A

Leptospirosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
493
Q

Pikes media is transport media for

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
494
Q

Fried egg colonies

A

Mycoplasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
495
Q

Darting motility shown by

A

Vibrio cholera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
496
Q

Swarming motility

A

Cl tetanus,proteus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
497
Q

Tumbling motility

A

Cl.tetani,proteus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
498
Q

Mcc travelers diarrhea

A

ETEC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
499
Q

Causative organism for trench fever

A

Bartonella quintana

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
500
Q

Hp bodies seen in

A

Molluscum contagiosum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
501
Q

Mcc of diarrhea in infants

A

Rotavirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
502
Q

Genital warts

A

Hpv6,11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
503
Q

Yeast like organism

A

Candida

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
504
Q

Septate hyphae is seen in

A

Aspergillus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
505
Q

Only rickettsia which can be cultured is

A

R.quintana

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
506
Q

Casonis tear is done in case of

A

Hydatid cyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
507
Q

Mega esophagus is seen in

A

Chagas’ disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
508
Q

Smallest tapeworm

A

Echinococcus granulosus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
509
Q

Not commonly seen in ascariasis

A

Anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
510
Q

Thayer Martin agar is for

A

N.meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
511
Q

IP of chicken pox

A

10-21 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
512
Q

Incubation period of diphtheria

A

2-5 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
513
Q

Food poisoning 2 hrs aft intake of food

A

Staph aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
514
Q

Club shape -name the bacteria

A

Cornyebacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
515
Q

Bacteria with half moon /lens

A

Meningococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
516
Q

Drumstick appearance will be seen in

A

Clostridium tetani

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
517
Q

The vector of endemic typhus

A

Louse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
518
Q

First antibody produced by newborn

A

IgM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
519
Q

Clostridium botulinum causes

A

Botulism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
520
Q

Blood stain specific test

A

Hemin test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
521
Q

Most common type of finger print

A

Loops

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
522
Q

IPC for marital rape

A

IPC 372A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
523
Q

Declaration of Malta

A

Hunger strikers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
524
Q

Best bone specimen for sex determination

A

Pelvis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
525
Q

Davidson body is sued to determine

A

Sex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
526
Q

Pearson formula is used for

A

Stature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
527
Q

Rugoscopy is study of

A

Palate print

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
528
Q

Locord system is

A

Poroscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
529
Q

Galton’s system is used for

A

Dactylography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
530
Q

Telefono is

A

Beating on ears

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
531
Q

Angel dust

A

Phencyclidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
532
Q

Mcewans sign is seen in

A

Alcoholic intoxication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
533
Q

Lee jones test is used for

A

Cyanide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
534
Q

Odor of cyanide

A

Bitter almond

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
535
Q

Rounded (horse shoe shaped)nasal openings ,orbits ,palate

A

Mongols

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
536
Q

Any fracture round the foramen magnum

A

Ring fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
537
Q

Electrical injury produced in muscle

A

Zenkers degeneration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
538
Q

Thing or facts speak for itself

A

Res Ipsa loquitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
539
Q

Body of offense

A

Corpus delicti

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
540
Q

The child does not resemble its parents Bt it’s grand parents

A

Atavism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
541
Q

Death in fresh water

A

4-5 mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
542
Q

Death in salt water

A

8-10minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
543
Q

Barberios test is used for identification of

A

Semen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
544
Q

What type of toxic is cobra and Krait

A

Neurotoxic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
545
Q

IPC section for hurt

A

Sec 319

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
546
Q

Dowry death investigation is done by

A

Magistrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
547
Q

Types of hair in animals

A

Ladder or lattice type and discontinuous type

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
548
Q

Antidote for phosphorus poisoning

A

Copper sulfate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
549
Q

Antidote for organophosphorus

A

Atropine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
550
Q

Antidote for copper

A

Potassium Ferro ferricyanide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
551
Q

Extermination of organism

A

Eradication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
552
Q

Forward looking / prospective study

A

Cohort study

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
553
Q

Which is cohort study

A

Framingham heart study

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
554
Q

Gap between primary case and secondary case is

A

Serial interval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
555
Q

Most effective sterilizing agent

A

Autoclaving

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
556
Q

What is marker for infectivity /viral replication

A

HBeAg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
557
Q

SARS is caused by

A

Coronary virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
558
Q

Slim disease is

A

AIDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
559
Q

Only communicable disease of man that is always fatal

A

Rabies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
560
Q

3 important MCH problem

A

Malnutrition
Infection
Unregulated fertility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
561
Q

Vitamin E

A

Tocopherols

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
562
Q

Richest source of vitamin C

A

Amla (Indian gooseberry )

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
563
Q

Paris green is a

A

Stomach poison

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
564
Q

World health day

A

7th April

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
565
Q

Doc cholera in pregnancy

A

Furazolidone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
566
Q

DOTS PLUS refers to

A

MDR TB treatment (cat 4)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
567
Q

Normal IQ

A

90 to 109

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
568
Q

In DOTS diagnosis is based on

A

Sputum smears

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
569
Q

Least priority color in triage

A

Black

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
570
Q

Ambulatory patient in triage

A

Cat 3(green)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
571
Q

Blood screening before transfusion

A

HIV /HBV /HCV /Malaria /syphillis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
572
Q

Doc for avian influenza

A

Oseltamivir 150mg BD * 5 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
573
Q

Normal distribution curve is

A

Bell shaped symmetric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
574
Q

Mc disorder to be screened in neonates

A

Neonatal hypothyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
575
Q

Mcc of blindness

A

Cataract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
576
Q

Reverse smoking causes

A

Carcinoma of hard palate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
577
Q

Mcc of MMR in India

A

Post partum hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
578
Q

Total amount of iron given during the pregnancy

A

1000mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
579
Q

Ebola virus is spread by

A

Through contact of body fluids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
580
Q

Refrigerated breast milk can be kept for

A

24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
581
Q

Toxin in epidemic dropsy is

A

Sanguinarine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
582
Q

Changes in occurance of a disease over a long period of time

A

Secular trend

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
583
Q

Prevention before emergence of risk factor

A

Primordial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
584
Q

Strain for yellow fever vaccine

A

17D strain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
585
Q

Strain for measles vaccine

A

Edmonston strain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
586
Q

Causative organism for mumps

A

RNA myxovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
587
Q

Incubation for mumps

A

14 to 21 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
588
Q

Respective year for national mental health programme

A

1987

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
589
Q

National leprosy control program

A

1955

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
590
Q

Severe MR range

A

21 -34

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
591
Q

Socioeconomic class -upper

A

26-29

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
592
Q

Red color indicates which biomedical waste

A

Micrological waste

Soiled waste and solid waste

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
593
Q

Bmi for healthy weight

A

18.5 - 24.9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
594
Q

Most common type of headache

A

Tension headache

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
595
Q

Most common type of headache in males

A

Cluster headache

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
596
Q

Most common benign brain tumor

A

Meningioma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
597
Q

Pink frothy sputum is seen in

A

Pulmonary edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
598
Q

Marker of eradication of H pylori

A

Urea breath test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
599
Q

Doc of IBD

A

Sulfasalazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
600
Q

Pseudo -lymphoma is seen in

A

Sjogren syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
601
Q

Total no of death or total number of case is called

A

Case fatality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
602
Q

Waist circumference of Europeans

A

Men - >94 cm (>37in)

Women ->80cm (>31.5 inch)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
603
Q

Most common type of seizures in adults

A

GTCS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
604
Q

Most common primary malignant brain tumor

A

Glioma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
605
Q

IOC for Addison’s disease

A

ACTH stimulation test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
606
Q

Most common causes of acute bacterial endocarditis

A

Staph aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
607
Q

Most common type of nephrotic syndrome in children

A

Minimal change disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
608
Q

Investigation of choice for SLE

A

Ds -DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
609
Q

Earliest clinical feature of scleroderma

A

Raynaud’s phenomenon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
610
Q

Bulging fissure in CXR is seen in

A

Klebsiella pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
611
Q

Antibody incriminated causing henoch schonlein purpura

A

IgA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
612
Q

Emphysema seen due to chronic smoking

A

Centriacinar emphysema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
613
Q

Doc for enteric fever

A

Ceftriaxone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
614
Q

Antibody in goodpasture syndrome

A

Anti -GBM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
615
Q

Canon A wave is seen in

A

Complete heart block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
616
Q

Clinical findings of severe mitral stenosis

A

Malar flush with pinched and blue facies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
617
Q

Cxr finding of egg on side appearance

A

Transposition of great arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
618
Q

Most malignancy in HIV positive individuals

A

Kaposi sarcoma (70%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
619
Q

Most common cause of blindness in hiv patient

A

CMV retinitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
620
Q

Most common eye lesion in hiv patient

A

Cotton wool spots ,Hiv keratitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
621
Q

T wave represents

A

Ventricular repolarization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
622
Q

ST segment

A

ISO electric segment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
623
Q

Late systolic murmur

A

MVP ,OCM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
624
Q

CT finding of extradural hemorrhage

A

Biconvex/flame shaped hyper-density

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
625
Q

CSF normal pressure

A

50-180 mmH2O

626
Q

CSF Protein Normal

A

15-45mg%

627
Q

Conns

A

Increased aldosterone

628
Q

Addisons

A

Decreased aldosterone

629
Q

Hiv associated pneumonia

A

P.jiroveci

630
Q

Decreased anion gap

A

BPH -M

1) bromide intoxication
2) plasma cell dyscrasia
3) hypoalbuminemia
4) monoclonal protein

631
Q

Brood granular casts

A

Seen in chronic renal failure

632
Q

Tumor marker for pheochromocytoma

A

Catecholamines

633
Q

Tumor marker for lung cancer

A

Chromium

634
Q

Tumor marker for cancer of endometrium ,liver,breast

A

Estrogen

635
Q

Tumor marker for liver cancer

A

Hepatitis B or C virus

636
Q

Polydactyly of limb is seen in

A

Laurence moon biedi

637
Q

Costochrondritis,Mc involves 2nd costal cartilage

A

Tietze disease

638
Q

b/l in breast and common in younger women

A

Fribrocystic duct

639
Q

Breast cyst Wat are IOC ,Rx

A

Well defined lump
USG guided FNAC
Rx - USG guided aspiration

640
Q

Most common tumor of the breast

A

Fibroadenoma

641
Q

Highly mobile - breast mouse

A

Fibroadenoma

642
Q

Bloody nipple discharge

A

Duct papilloma (MCC)

643
Q

Milky discharge

A

Galactorrhea (Mcc pathologically)

644
Q

IOC and Rx of duct papilloma

A

IOC - mammography

Rx - microdochectomy

645
Q

Simple or total mastectomy

A

Removal of breast tissue ,nipple areola complex and skin

646
Q

Maximum capacity gallbladder

A

50ml

647
Q

Concentration of bile

A

5-10 times

648
Q

Production of bile

A

40ml/hr

649
Q

IOC and Rx of acute cholecystitis

A

IOC - HIDA scan

Rx - conservative

650
Q

IOC and Rx of chronic cholecystitis

A

IOC -USG

Rx -laparoscopy cholecystectomy

651
Q

Riglers triad

A

1) Small bowel obstruction
2) Gas within gall bladder and or bile ducts
3) Ectopic gallstone

652
Q

Lymph node involved in CA bladder

A

Obturator nerve

653
Q

Lymph node of CA prostate

A

Obturator LN

654
Q

Toc for duodenal atresia and annular pancreas

A

Duodenoduodenostomy

655
Q

Classification of CA breast

A

Bloom -Richardson classification

656
Q

Scoring of CA prostate

A

Gleason score

657
Q

10% of gallstones

A

Radioopaque

658
Q

90% gallstones

A

Radiolucent

659
Q

Staging in colorectal CA

A

Duke staging

660
Q

Score in carcinoma of penis

A

Jackson score

661
Q

Iodine induced hyperthyroidism comes under the effect of

A

Jod-basedow effect

662
Q

End organ resistance to T4

A

Refetoff syndrome

663
Q

Which fistula is never congenital

A

Thyroglossal cyst

664
Q

Mc benign tumor of thyroid gland

A

Follicular adenoma

665
Q

Mc type of kidney stone (85%) is

A

Calcium oxalate

666
Q

Which stone are radio Lucent

A

Xanthine and Uric acid

667
Q

Soft tissue calcification found in the deep renal medulla

A

Randall’s plaque

668
Q

Which stones are common in females

A

Infectious stones

669
Q

Stone in the upper ureter

A

Pain referred to testis

670
Q

Acidic urine is seen in

A

Calcium oxalate,cystine ,uric acid

671
Q

If the stone is less than 2cm treatment is

A

EDWL

672
Q

If stone >2cm treatment is

A

PCNL

673
Q

Commonly used preparation of mannitol

A

20% solution ,0.25g/kg is given IV bolus

674
Q

Mc associated sign with retrosternal goiter

A

Pembertons sign

675
Q

Mc cause of ureteric colic in hematuria

A

Clot

676
Q

Pyonephrosis MCC is

A

Renal stone

677
Q

Most common gas produced in intestinal obstruction

A

N2

678
Q

Most common gas produced in clostridial infection

A

H2S

679
Q

Mcc of lower GI bleeding

A

Non specific ulcer

680
Q

Mc primary renal tumor of childhood is

A

Wilms tumor

681
Q

Mc site of aortic rupture

A

Ligamentum arteriosum

682
Q

Mc site of fasciotomy

A

Calf

683
Q

Mcc of leg ulcer

A

Venous ulcer

684
Q

Strawberry cervix

A

Trichomonas vaginalis

685
Q

Strawberry nasal mucosa

A

Sarcoidosis

686
Q

Strawberry tongue

A

Kawasaki disease

687
Q

Mc solid tumor of childhood

A

Brain tumor

688
Q

Mc abdominal tumor of child

A

Neuroblastoma

689
Q

Mc tumor of infancy

A

Neuroblastoma

690
Q

Mc childhood leukemia

A

ALL

691
Q

Strawberry gallbladder

A

Cholesterolosis

692
Q

Strawberry nasal mass

A

Rhinosporidiosis

693
Q

Mc type of RCC mainly sporadic is

A

Clear cell carcinoma

694
Q

Mc cause of acute prostatitis

A

E.coli

695
Q

Mc renal anomaly is

A

Horseshoe kidney

696
Q

Mc renal tumor is

A

Renal cell carcinoma

697
Q

Mc cause of surgical abdomen

A

Acute appendicitis

698
Q

Mc benign tumor of small bowel is

A

Leimyoma

699
Q

Mc small bowel malignancy of children

A

Lymphoma

700
Q

Mc anaerobe in the colon

A

Bacteroides fragilis

701
Q

Dermatome supplying the nipple

A

T4

702
Q

Dermatome supplying area of umbilicus

A

T10

703
Q

Longest extraocular muscle

A

Superior oblique (7.7 cm)

704
Q

Shortest extraocular muscle

A

Medial rectus (5.5 cm)

705
Q

Nutrient artery of the femur

A

Branch of femoral artery —> profunda femoris artery

706
Q

Artery which supplies the clavicle is called

A

Subscapular artery

707
Q

Nutrition supply of the tibia

A

Posterior tibial artery

708
Q

Weight of prostate gland is

A

15-20gram

709
Q

Length of BAG -bile duct ,gallbladder and appendix

A

8cm

710
Q

Sublingual gland has which duct

A

Bartholins and rivinus duct

711
Q

First bone to ossify is

A

Clavicle bone

712
Q

Ape thumb deformity

A

Median nerve (opponens pollicis muscle paralyzed)

713
Q

Strongest ligament of the body is

A

Illiofemoral ligament

714
Q

Longest muscle of the body

A

Sartorius (tailors muscle)

715
Q

What are all are at the level of T4

A

Bifurcation of the trachea
Sternal angle
Begining of arch of aorta

716
Q

Emergency tracheotomy at

A

Tracheal ring 2-3

717
Q

Muscle which is not attached to apex of the orbit

A

Inferior oblique

718
Q

DNA and centromere doubling seen in this phase

A

S phase

719
Q

Most sensitive phase of cell cycle for radiation injury

A

G2 -M phase

720
Q

Group of ribosomes in neurons which are utilised for protein synthesis

A

Nissel bodies

721
Q

Site of ATP synthesis is

A

Mitochondria

722
Q

Alveoli are mainly lined by

A

Type 1 cell (95% of the surface area)

723
Q

Vibration sense is carried by the

A

Pacinian corpuscles

724
Q

Best method for estimating creatinine assay

A

Enzyme assay

725
Q

Platelets are stored at the

A

Room temperature

726
Q

Evans dye is used to measure the

A

Plasma volume

727
Q

Total body water is how much percentage of body weight

A

60-70% of the body weight

728
Q

How much is ICF and ECF

A

2/3rd and 1/3rd

729
Q

RMP of Rods and cones

A

-40mv

730
Q

In blood brain barrier the protein content is

A

55%

731
Q

Cell of stomach - I cell secretes

A

Cck

732
Q

D cell secretes

A

Stomatostatin

733
Q

Chief cell secretes

A

Pepsin

734
Q

Location of macula dense is

A

DCT

735
Q

Night terror is seen in which stage of NREM

A

3 and 4

736
Q

Vitamin having only animal source

A

Vitamin B12

737
Q

Storage form of folate is

A

N -methyl folate

738
Q

Source of ATP in RBC cell

A

EMP pathway

739
Q

Net ATP produced in anaerobic glycolysis

A

2 ATP

740
Q

Cancer cell derived nutrition from

A

Glycolysis

741
Q

Foam cells and spingomyelinase deficiency is seen in

A

Niemann pick disease

742
Q

Which bases are pyrimidines

A

Cytosine
Uracil
Thymine

743
Q

The start code AUG codes for which amino acid

A

Methionine

744
Q

Rate limiting enzyme for pyramidine synthesis

A

Cps 2

745
Q

Other name for VitB1

A

Thymine

746
Q

Urine order of PKU (inborn error of metabolism)

A

Mousy and musty

747
Q

Urine odor MSUD (inborn error of metabolism)

A

Maple syrup

748
Q

Cps 1 defect in urea cycle causes which disease

A

Hyperammonemia 1

749
Q

Arginase defect in urea cycle causes which disease

A

Hyperarginimia

750
Q

Galactocerebrosidase deficiency causes

A

Krabbe disease

751
Q

Other name for vitB3

A

Niacin

752
Q

Funny current blocker is called

A

Ivabradine

753
Q

Only oral inotropic drugs

A

Digoxin

754
Q

Phase which is dealing with the microdosing

A

Phase 0

755
Q

Phase 5 clinical trial is

A

Pharmacoepidemiogy

756
Q

Fastest acting insulin

A

Insulin aspart

757
Q

Number of patients in phase 2 clinical trial

A

20-200

758
Q

What is the principle of neurotransmitter at neuromuscular junction as well as pre-ganglionic fibers

A

Ach

759
Q

G2b /3a blocker

A

Abciximab

760
Q

Most common adverse effect of beta 2 agonist

A

Tremors

761
Q

DOC for nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

A

Thiazides

762
Q

Doc for Dog tape worm/Echi granulosus

A

Albendazole

763
Q

Doc for strongyloides and onchocerca

A

Ivermectin

764
Q

Side effects of vancomycin

A

Red man syndrome

Nephrotoxic and ototoxic

765
Q

Acrocentric chromosomes are

A

13,14,15,21,22,Y

766
Q

Accordion sign seen in

A

Pseudomembraneous colitis

767
Q

Location of L-selectin is in the

A

Leukocyte
Monocytes
T cell
B cell

768
Q

Disease which is due to the decreased oxidative burst

A

Chronic granulomatous disease

769
Q

Location of E selection

A

Endothelium activated by cytokines

770
Q

Removal of abnormal RBC from blood by the spleen

A

Culling

771
Q

Removal of nuclei from old RBC’s by the spleen without destroying the cell,and the cell Send back plasma circulation

A

Pitting

772
Q

Modified CNS macrophages

A

GITTRE cells

773
Q

Repeated nucleotide of CTG

A

Myotonic dystrophy

774
Q

Not a cellular adaptation is

A

Necrosis

775
Q

H2O2 is produced as well as destroyed in

A

Peroxisome

776
Q

Major microcirculation involved in acute inflammation

A

Venules

777
Q

Major cells which is involved in chronic inflammation

A

Macrophages

778
Q

Bacterial cell wall is made up of

A

Peptiglycan

779
Q

Sporulation of bacteria is seen in which phase

A

Stationary phase

780
Q

Which pathway is activated by IgG,IgM,immune system

A

Classical pathway

781
Q

Daisy head appearance of the colonies on culture shown by

A

Cornybacterium diptheria

782
Q

Most common viruses implicated in enchephalitis

A

Echovirus

783
Q

Most common primary tumor of anterior mediastinum

A

Thymoma

784
Q

Anti - inflammatory cytokines that are present with dominance of humoral immunity

A

IL 4,5,6,10

785
Q

What causes SCID(severe combined immunodeficiency )

A

Due to lack of combined T cell ,Bcell ,NK cell

786
Q

All RNA viruses are single stranded except

A

Reovirus

787
Q

The largest virus and smallest virus

A

1) pox virus

2) parvo virus

788
Q

Prominent polysaccharide capsule is seen in

A

Crytococcus

789
Q

Ig present in oral cavity is

A

IgA

790
Q

Ig having the maximum molecular weight

A

IgM

791
Q

Outer covering of the diatom is

A

Silica

792
Q

Ponds fracture is commonly seen in which age group

A

Children

793
Q

Kennedy phenomenon is seen in

A

Gunshot injury

794
Q

Timing of floating of dead body in drowning in summer

A

24hrs

795
Q

Trousseau sign in seen in which poisoning

A

Oxalic acid poisoning

796
Q

White vitriol is

A

Zinc sulfate

797
Q

Bertillon system(anthrometry )is applicable after which age

A

Aft 21

798
Q

IPC for perjury

A

IPC 191

799
Q

Blood alcohol level while driving

A

30mg%

800
Q

Sea snake

A

Myotoxic

801
Q

Father of medicine /father of epidemiologist

A

Hippocrates

802
Q

Epidemiological triad

A

Agent ,host and environment

803
Q

Action taken prior to onset of disease

A

Primary prevention

804
Q

Early diagnosis and treatment

A

Secondary prevention

805
Q

Bleaching powder

A

33% of available chlorine

806
Q

DOTS

A

Directly observed treatment of short course chemotherapy

807
Q

DANISH 1331 strain for

A

BCG vaccine

808
Q

Mc causes of heart disease in 5-30years old is

A

Rheumatic fever

809
Q

Milk is poor in

A

Vit C and iron

810
Q

Wasted sharps biochemical waste category

A

Four

811
Q

Beds in CHC(community health centre)

A

40

812
Q

Small pox was declared eraticated on

A

8th May ,1980

813
Q

ORS (oral rehydration solution) should be used within

A

24 hours

814
Q

3 component score for upper middle class

A

16-25

815
Q

Modified Kuppuswamy scale

A

Include 3 components

1) education status of the head
2) occupation status of the head
3) income per capita

816
Q

National family planning programe

A

1951

817
Q

Most imp step aft disaster

A

Chlorination of water

818
Q

Amplifier host of Japanese encephalitis

A

Pigs

819
Q

Hepatitis B vaccine is type of

A

Killed vaccine

820
Q

Category 9 biomedical waste

A

Incineration ash

821
Q

Sufficiency of pasteurisation is tested by

A

Phosphatase test

822
Q

Carcinoma protected by OCPs

A

Ovarian carcinoma

823
Q

Prevalence of blindness in India

A

1.1%

824
Q

Strain for varicella vaccine

A

Oka strain

825
Q

Vitamin D richest source is

A

Fish liver oil

826
Q

Richest source of Vit A and D

A

Halibut liver oil

827
Q

Delay btw initiation and completion of process

A

Lead time

828
Q

Mc indirect cause of MMR

A

Anemia

829
Q

Mc direct cause of MMR

A

PPH

830
Q

BOAA toxin causes which disease

A

Lathyrism

831
Q

Best test for short term control of diabetes

A

Serum fructosamine

832
Q

Hepatitis B antigen appear in blood

A

HBsAg

833
Q

Hepatitis B antigen which never appear in blood

A

HbcAg

834
Q

Bmi for overweight is

A

25.0 to 29.9

835
Q

CXR finding of coartation of aorta

A

3 signs

836
Q

Wegners granulomatosis is diagnosed by

A

C-ANCA

837
Q

Mottling of lung is seen in

A

Silicosis

838
Q

Bmi of obesity 1

A

30-39.9

839
Q

Pacemaker of the GIT

A

Cells of cajal

840
Q

Most common causes of subacute bacterial endocarditis

A

Strep viridians

841
Q

Most common causes of seizure in neonate

A

Subtle seizure

842
Q

Obesity 2

A

35.0 -39.9

843
Q

Extreme obesity

A

> and equal to 40

844
Q

Most common type of nephrotic syndrome in adult

A

Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

845
Q

QRS

A

Ventricular depolarization

846
Q

Most common cause of fungal infection in HIV patient

A

Cryptococcus neoforman

847
Q

Rat tail appearance is seen in

A

Esophageal CA

848
Q

In barium enema findings - smooth irregular filling defects

A

Colonic polyps

849
Q

In barium enema findings -lead pipe appearance

Loss of haustration

A

Ulcerative colitis

850
Q

In barium enema findings -string sign

A

Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

851
Q

Cobra head sign

A

Ureterocele

852
Q

Flower vase appearance of ureters

A

Horseshoe kidney

853
Q

Soap bubble appearance

A

Hydronephrosis

854
Q

Half life of gold 198

A

2.7 days

855
Q

Iodine 131

A

8 days

856
Q

Hilar dance on fluroscopy

A

ASD

857
Q

Egg on side appearance seen in

A

TGA

858
Q

Figure of 8 appearance or snowman appearance seen in

A

TAPVC

859
Q

Half lyf of cobalt 60

A

5.26 years

860
Q

Earliest change in thalassemia

A

Widened of short bone of hand

861
Q

Best test avascular necrosis of bone

A

MRI

862
Q

IOC for posterior urethral valve

A

VCUG

863
Q

Corkscrew esophagus seen in

A

Diffuse esophageal spasm

864
Q

Carmanns meniscus seen in

A

Malignant ulcer

865
Q

Onion peel appearance seen in

A

Ewings sarcoma

866
Q

IOC for bronchiectasis

A

HRCT

867
Q

Signet ring sign is seen in

A

Bronchiectasis

868
Q

Bat wing appearance on Cxr is seen in

A

Pulmonary edema

869
Q

Cannon ball appearance is seen in

A

Lung metastasis

870
Q

Pop corn calcification is seen in

A

Pulmonary hamartoma

871
Q

IOC for aortic dissection

A

MRI

872
Q

Champhagne glass appearance

A

Achondroplasia

873
Q

Molten candle wax appearance seen in

A

Melorheostosis

874
Q

Pepper pot skull in

A

Hyperparathyroidism

875
Q

Thickness of lead jacket

A

0.5mm

876
Q

Sign of pulmonary infarct

A

V/Q mismatch

877
Q

Major part of the radiological hilar shadow

A

Pulmonary artery

878
Q

Loosers zones or pseudofractures in the hallmark feature of

A

Osteomalacia

879
Q

Money bag or leather bottle or flask shaped heart in

A

Pericardial effusion

880
Q

In anterior segment of upper lobe is uncommon in

A

Secondary TB

881
Q

Substance -phencyclidine (angel dust) -CF?

A

Dissociative anesthesia

882
Q

Substance - cocaine -CF?

A

Magnus symptoms (cocaine bugs or tactile hallucination)

883
Q

Substance - Alcohol -CF?

A

Mc-Evans sign

Morbid jealousy

884
Q

Substance -LSD -CF?

A

Bad trips

Flash backs

885
Q

Alcohol withdrawal appearance aft 12-24hrs

A

Alcoholic hallucinosis ; visual ,auditory or tactile hallucination

886
Q

Alcohol withdrawal aft 24-48 hrs symptoms

A

Withdrawal seizures : generalised tonic clonic seizures

887
Q

Site of subcortical dementia

A

Subcortical grey matter

888
Q

Antipsychotic drugs atypicals with least weight gain

A

Aripiprazole

889
Q

Antipsychotic drug -Atypicals with max weight gain

A

Clozapine

890
Q

Antipsychotic drugs- atypical with least risk of EPS

A

Aripiprazole

891
Q

Toxicity seen after

A

> 1.5mEq/L

892
Q

Therapeutic level of lithium

A

0.8 - 1.2 mEq/L

893
Q

Doc for prophylaxis of bipolar disorder

A

Lithium

894
Q

Most potent atypical antipsychotics

A

Risperidone

895
Q

Most common side effect of typical antipsychotic

A

Extrapyramidal symptoms

896
Q

Atypical antipsychotic causing corneal opacity

A

Chlorpromazine and thioridazine

897
Q

Most common substance abused in India and worldwide

A

Alcohol

898
Q

Mc complication of direct (modified )ECT

A

Fracture T4-T8 spine

899
Q

Mc complication of modified ECT :

A

Anterograde & Retro Grade amnesia more of retrograde type

900
Q

Characteristics of alcohol withdrawal

A

Visual hallucination

901
Q

Excessive sexual drive is called

A

Satyrism in men

Nymphomania in female

902
Q

Technique is used for T/t of impotency

A

Sensate focus

903
Q

Most important dependency producing derivatives are

A

Morphine and heroine

904
Q

Splitting is a defense mechanism against

A

BPD

905
Q

Immediate and remote memory is usually retained in

A

Korsakoffs psychosis

906
Q

Sun downing phenomenon is present in

A

Acute delirium

907
Q

Main symptom of korsakoff psychosis

A

Confabulation

908
Q

EPS are not seen with

A

Clozapine

909
Q

Treatment of choice Gilles de la Tourette’s syndrome

A

Clonidine /haloperidol

910
Q

Language is normal and no delay in cognitive development

A

Asperger’s syndrome

911
Q

Age of onset in Autism is and CF!?

A

<2 and half years ,there is marked impairment of language

912
Q

Mc mental disorders in children

A

Neurosis

913
Q

Concrete thinking stage

A

2-7 years

914
Q

Which syndrome is related to jealousy (infidelity )

A

Othello syndrome

915
Q

Delusion of gradiosity

A

Mania

916
Q

Which is not a feature of conversion disorder

A

Delusion

917
Q

Mc seen in organic disease

A

Visual hallucination

918
Q

What type of hallucination is seen in chronic amphetamine poisoning

A

Tactile hallucination

919
Q

Irresistible desire

A

Impulse

920
Q

Overall most common type of hallucination

A

Auditory hallucination

921
Q

Which is not a somatoform disorder

A

Fibromyalgia

922
Q

In depression CBT does not include

A

Interpretation

923
Q

Hypersomnia is seen in

A

Cocaine withdrawal

924
Q

Insomnia is seen in

A

Alcohol withdrawal

925
Q

OCD leads to

A

Secondary depression

926
Q

Doc for manic depressive disorder

A

Lithium

927
Q

Long term use of lithium can cause

A

Hypothyroidism

928
Q

Drug of choice of schizophrenia

A

Olanzapine

929
Q

Prevalence of schizophrenia

A

1%

930
Q

Squeeze technique is used for

A

Premature ejaculation

931
Q

OCD related neurotransmitter

A

Decreased serotonin

932
Q

Depression related neurotransmitter

A

Decreased serotonin,NA,dopamine

933
Q

Not seen in schizophrenia

A

Intellectual impairment

934
Q

Split personality seen in schizophrenia

A

Pseudo-community

935
Q

Mapleson circuits type A is also known as

A

Magills circuit

936
Q

Malignant hyperthermia is caused by

A

Ryanodine receptor

937
Q

Muscle relaxant of choice in renal failure

A

Atracurium

938
Q

Mc used method of brachial plexus block is

A

Supraclavicular block

939
Q

Regurgitation of gastric contents causes aspiration pneumonitis

A

Mendelson syndrome

940
Q

Longest acting NDMR

A

Pancuronium

941
Q

Fastest acting NDMR

A

Rocuronium

942
Q

Cyclopropane cylinder is

A

Orange

943
Q

O2 content of anesthetic mixture

A

33%

944
Q

Protein intake in ICU

A

1-1.5 g/kg/day

945
Q

Whitacre and sprotte procedure is used for

A

Spinal anesthesia

946
Q

Filiform wart

A

Verruca filiformis

947
Q

Condyloma lata

A

Treponema pallidum

948
Q

AMBU BAG stands for

A

Artificial maneuver breathing unit

949
Q

Postdural puncture headache presents

A

12-24hrs of spinal block

950
Q

Venereal warts

A

Condylomata accuminata

951
Q

Obstruction of eccrine sweat gland ducts

A

Miliaria

952
Q

Ectopic sebaceous glands

A

Fordice spot

953
Q

Mc age group of fox fordyce spot

A

13-35years (females are affected)

954
Q

Mc site of fox fordyce spot

A

Axilla

955
Q

Diagnostic of lapromatous leprosy

A

Virchow cell

956
Q

Primary systemic amyloidosis,EDS,scurvy

A

Pinch purpura

957
Q

Inverted saucer shaped ulcers are seen in

A

Borderline leprosy

958
Q

Mc route of transmission of syphillis is sexual and sometimes transmitted by

A

BT,transplacental

959
Q

Pediculosis is caused by

A

Pediculosis corporis

960
Q

Christmas tree/fir tree pattern seen in

A

Pityriasis rosea

961
Q

Hallmark of atopic dermatitis in India is allergic contact dermatitis in which dennie line and monks crawl are seen

A

Pruritis

962
Q

Bullous pemphigoid is also known as

A

Senile pemphigoid

963
Q

What is associated with HPV 16,11

A

Condyloma acuminate(veneral warts)

964
Q

Which preparation is used for diagnosis of tinea infection

A

KOH preparation

965
Q

Dermatomal involvement is Seen in

A

Herpes zoster

966
Q

Toc for anogenital warts in pregnancy

A

Cryotherapy /laser

967
Q

Mc bacterial skin infection in children is and Wat is seen

A

Impetigo ,honey coloured crusts

968
Q

Skin turnover period in case of psoriasis

A

4 days

969
Q

Dermis composed of

A

1) collagen
2) elastic fibers
3) sweat
4) sebaceous glands

970
Q

Epidermis is compared of 4 layers

A

1) stratum basale /germinatum
2) stratum spinosum
3) stratum granulosum
4) stratum corneum

971
Q

Used to differentiate viral lesions of skin from pemphigus

A

Tranck test

972
Q

For contact dermatitis (test is read aft 48hrs)

A

Patch test

973
Q

Color on the wood lamp light for squamous cell carcinoma

A

Red fluorescence

974
Q

Color on the wood lamp light for tinea vesicolor

A

Golden fluroscence

975
Q

Color on the wood lamp light for porphyria cutanea tarda

A

Pinkish red(urine)

976
Q

Color on the wood lamp light for vitiligo

A

Chalky white

977
Q

Color on the wood lamp light for tuberous sclerosis

A

Ash leaf spots(blue white)

978
Q

Unilateral optic nerve lesion causes

A

Unilateral blindness

979
Q

Homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing

A

Lesion in occipital cortex lesion

980
Q

Lesion at optic tract and optic radiation

A

Homonymous hemianopia

981
Q

Christmas tree cataract

A

Myotonic dystrophy

982
Q

Morgagnian cataract

A

Hypermature senile cataract

983
Q

Vossius ring /rosette shaped cataract

A

Blunt trauma

984
Q

Oil drop cataract / dust like lenticular opacity

A

Galactosemia

985
Q

Ropy discharge in

A

Allergic conjunctivitis

986
Q

Purulent or mucopurulent discharge

A

Bacterial conjunctivitis

987
Q

Mucopurulent discharge

A

Chlamydial conjunctivitis

988
Q

MCC of ocular venous occlusion

A

Glaucoma

989
Q

Mcc of proptosis in adults

A

Graves’ disease

990
Q

Mcc of proptosis in children is

A

Periocular infection

991
Q

Corneal curvature used instrument is

A

Keratometer

992
Q

Mc refractory surgery

A

Radial keratotomy

993
Q

Mc type of glaucoma is chronic open

A

Angle glaucoma

994
Q

Mc glaucoma related surgical procedure is

A

Trabeculectomy

995
Q

Side effects of oral steroids

A

Cataract

996
Q

Worth 4 dot test is done for

A

Binocular vision

997
Q

Mcc of sudden unilateral loss of vision

A

Optic neuritis

998
Q

Sjögren’s syndrome

A

Aqueous deficiency

999
Q

Mc ocular manifestation of measles

A

Vit A def

1000
Q

Mcc of blindness worldwide

A

Cataract

1001
Q

Mc cause of blindness in India

A

Cataract

1002
Q

Mcc of ocular morbidity and also for young

A

Refractive errors

1003
Q

Mcc of preventable blindness in children

A

Vit A deficiency

1004
Q

Tear production starts at

A

6months

1005
Q

Bluish discolouration of sclera

A

Osteotis deformans

1006
Q

Mcc of blindness in AIDS Patients

A

CMV retinitis

1007
Q

TOC for concomitant squint

A

Orthoptic exercises

1008
Q

Most common intraocular foreign bodies

A

Chips of iron and steel

1009
Q

Field defect in toxic amblyopia

A

Centro ceacal scotoma

1010
Q

Mc congenital color blindness

A

Green (deuteranopes)

1011
Q

Soft contact lenses are made up of

A

HEMA

1012
Q

Hard contact lenses and IOL lens are made up of

A

PMMA

1013
Q

Oil drop cataract

A

Seen in galactosemia

1014
Q

Thinnest at posterior pole

A

Lens capsule

1015
Q

Mc tumor of the eyelids

A

Basal cell carcinoma

1016
Q

Mc tumor of lacrimal gland

A

Benign mixed tumor

1017
Q

Mc tumor which metastasize to eye

A

Neuroblastoma

1018
Q

Mc intra orbital tumor

A

Cavernous hemangioma

1019
Q

Mc intraocular tumor

A

Malignant melanoma of choroid

1020
Q

Mc intraorbital tumor

A

Rhabdomyosarcoma

1021
Q

Most common intraocular tumor

A

Retinoblastoma

1022
Q

What is seen in Marfan syndrome

A

Supero temporal dislocation lens

1023
Q

Bread crumb appearance seen in

A

Complicated cataract

1024
Q

Most radioresistant structure in retina

A

Ganglion cell layer

1025
Q

Most common fungus infecting lids

A

Candida albicans

1026
Q

Absolutely contraindicated in keratoconus

A

LASIK

1027
Q

Leading preventable cause of blindness

A

Trachoma

1028
Q

Most common cause of viral conjunctivitis

A

Adenovirus

1029
Q

Produces high degree of hypermetropia

A

Aphakia

1030
Q

Which chart is used for colour blindness

A

Ishihara chart

1031
Q

IOT ranges from

A

10-20 mg

1032
Q

Used for the accurate determination of intraocular tension

A

Tonometry

1033
Q

Functional assessment of optic nerve is done by

A

Perimetry

1034
Q

Shows flower petal appearance of fundus

A

CME(cystoid macular edema)

1035
Q

Flame shaped hemorrhage found in

A

Hypertensive and arteriosclerosis retinopathy

1036
Q

Mutation in retinoblastoma seen in

A

13q14

1037
Q

Lower and lateral walls of orbit are derived from

A

Visceral mesoderm

1038
Q

Acuity for near vision is tested by

A

Jaeger type cards

1039
Q

Structure passing through optic foramen are

A

Optic nerve and ophthalmic artery

1040
Q

Sea saw nystagmus of maddox

A

Found in para chiasmal lesion

1041
Q

Maximum refractive index is

A

At centre of lens 1.40

1042
Q

Main route of metabolism of glucose in the lens

A

Glycolysis

1043
Q

It is ratio between light peak to dark trough normally it is 1.85

A

Arden index

1044
Q

Most common side effect radiation in head and neck

A

Xerostomia

1045
Q

Most radiosensitive layer of retina

A

Rods and cones

1046
Q

Most radioresistant layer of retina

A

Ganglion cell layer

1047
Q

Cornea can be harvested

A

Till 6 hours after death

1048
Q

Orbital floor is formed by

A

Maxillary bone and palatine bone

1049
Q

Definition of blindness according to WHO

A

<3/60

1050
Q

Vossius ring in eye is due to

A

Blunt trauma

1051
Q

Titmus fly test is for

A

Stereopsis

1052
Q

Posterior lenticonus

A

Lowe syndrome

1053
Q

IOC for indirect ophthalmology

A

Indirect optha

1054
Q

Length of eyeball

A

24mm

1055
Q

Volume of orbit

A

30ml

1056
Q

Weight of eyeball

A

7gram

1057
Q

Volume of eyeball

A

6ml

1058
Q

Upper and lower lid margin fusion

A

Ankyloblepharon

1059
Q

Mc complication aft lens extraction in PHPV

A

Vitrous hemorrhage

1060
Q

Nidu /seed in cortex wt type of bone tumor

A

Osteoid osteoma

1061
Q

Onion skin appearance wt type of bone tumor

A

Ewing’s sarcoma

1062
Q

Soap bubble appearance wt type of bone tumor

A

Giant cell tumor /osteoclastoma

1063
Q

Most common organism causing acute osteomyelitis

A

Staph aerus

1064
Q

High stepping gait

A

Occurs in foot drop

1065
Q

Scissoring gait

A

Occurs in cp

1066
Q

Circumduction gait

A

Occurs in hemiplegia

1067
Q

Kites angle

A

Angle in CTEv

1068
Q

Carrying angle

A

Elbow

1069
Q

Fracture neck of the femur

A

Pauwels angle

1070
Q

Neck shaft angle

A

Of the femoral neck

1071
Q

Gowers sign

A

For muscular dystrophy

1072
Q

Pivot shift test

A

For ACL INJURY

1073
Q

Thomas test

A

For hip flexion deformity

1074
Q

Barlows test

A

For CDH

1075
Q

Allis test for

A

For CDH

1076
Q

Mc Murray’s test

A

For meniscus injury

1077
Q

Gardens

A

For fractures neck of femur

1078
Q

Gustilo for which fracture

A

Open fracture

1079
Q

Nerve supplying humerus shaft

A

Radial nerve

1080
Q

Nerve supplying medial condyl humerus

A

Ulnar nerve

1081
Q

Trimalleolar ankle fracture

A

Cottons fracture

1082
Q

Frankels line and wimberger ring seen in

A

Scurvy

1083
Q

Bone within bone appearance is seen in

A

Osteoporosis

1084
Q

Codfish veretebrae is seen in

A

Osteoporosis

1085
Q

Mc bone to fracture on face is

A

Nasal bone

1086
Q

Mc etiology of neck mass in adults is

A

Neoplasm

1087
Q

Mc benign neoplasm of the parotid gland in children is

A

Hemangioma

1088
Q

Mc site of fracture of mandible is

A

Neck of condyle

1089
Q

Omega shaped glottis

A

Laryngomalacia

1090
Q

Turban epiglottis is seen in this case

A

Tb larynx

1091
Q

During the first 30 weeks the uterine pressure

A

20mmHg

1092
Q

For 24 weeks of gestational period fundal height

A

Umblicus

1093
Q

Remnants of the imp vessel ductus arteriosus

A

Ligamentum arteriousum

1094
Q

The 36 weeks of gestational age the fundal height will be at

A

Xiphoid process of the sternum

1095
Q

The remnants of the The imp vessels umbilical artery

A

Medial umbilical artery

1096
Q

Placental circulation is established by

A

21 days

1097
Q

Primary treatment of hirsutism in PCOD

A

Combined OCP

1098
Q

Mc non tubal site for ectopic

A

Ovary

1099
Q

Most consistent finding in ectopic pregnancy

A

Pain and tenderness

1100
Q

Doc for pre-eclampsia

A

Labetalol 100mg bd

1101
Q

IOC and Rx for the adherent placenta

A

MRI and hysterectomy

1102
Q

Most common germ cell ovarian tumor

A

Teratoma

1103
Q

MTP ACT

A

Year 1971

1104
Q

Umblical cord attached to the margin of placenta

A

Battledore placenta

1105
Q

Pagets classification used for

A

Abruptio placenta

1106
Q

Menstural blood stored in vagina

A

Hematocolpos

1107
Q

Recurrence of hydatiform mole accessed by

A

Beta-HCG level

1108
Q

In brow presentation ,head of the fetus

A

Partial extension

1109
Q

Management of abruptio placenta

A

Always the termination of pregnancy

1110
Q

Doc for lung maturity

A

Betamethasone 12mg,IM 2doses 24hrs apart

1111
Q

Pacemaker of uterine contraction is located at

A

Tubal Ostia

1112
Q

Mcc of uterine rupture

A

Previous CS

1113
Q

Placenta previa

A

Painless,causeless,bright -red ,non tender uterus ,normal FHS

1114
Q

Abruptio placenta

A

Painful,H/o trauma,dark altered blood,tender tense uterus,Dec FHS

1115
Q

Fold of Hoboken

A

Umblical artery

1116
Q

Mcc of breech

A

Prematurity /preterm

1117
Q

Grid iron feel

A

Transverse lie

1118
Q

Rx of transverse lie

A

LSCS

1119
Q

Mcc of face/brow presentation

A

Anencephaly

1120
Q

Living ligature

A

Middle layer of myometrium

1121
Q

Direct op position seen in

A

Anthropoid pelvis

1122
Q

Rx of brow

A

Cs,no role of VD(vaginal delivery)

1123
Q

Rx for obstructed labour

A

LSCS

1124
Q

Mc presentation,Mc presenting

A

Cephalic ,part vertex

1125
Q

Slow progress of labor

A

Dystocia

1126
Q

Mcc of unstable lie

A

Placenta previa

1127
Q

Mc type of pelvis in female

A

Gynecoid (50%)

1128
Q

Least common type of pelvis

A

Platypelloid (<5%)

1129
Q

1stage

A

Nullipara (12 hr)

Multipara (8 hr)

1130
Q

Mc female factor for infertility

A

PCOD,Psychogenic

1131
Q

Worst prognosis /max cord prolapse among breech

A

Footling breech

1132
Q

Best predictor for CDP

A

Trial of labor

1133
Q

Peri ovulatory uterus show

A

Trilaminar sign

1134
Q

Luteolysis of CL prevented by

A

Hcg

1135
Q

Pelvis is classified based on the

A

Inlet of the pelvis

1136
Q

Periovulatory follicle /follicle rupture at

A

18-20mm

1137
Q

Turner syndrome

A

Streak gonad,high FSH ,hypogonadotrophic,hypogonadism

1138
Q

Weight of pregnant term uterus

A

1kg

1139
Q

Wt of uterus immediately aft delivery

A

1kg

1140
Q

Endometrium of pregnancy is called

A

Decidua

1141
Q

Life span of CL

A

14 day

1142
Q

Mc cause of 1 degree amenorrhea

A

Gonadal dysgenesis(Turner syndrome )

1143
Q

Mc cause of 2 degree amenorrhea

A

Ovulatory dysfunction (PCOD )

1144
Q

Round ligament and ovarian ligament arise from

A

Gubernaculum

1145
Q

Water under bridge - ureter crossed by

A

Uterine artery

1146
Q

Imperforate hymen C/o

A

Amenorrhea,bluish bulging membrane in vagina

1147
Q

2nd polar body

A

Released after fertilisation

1148
Q

Ovarian cycle initiated by

A

FSH

1149
Q

Tip of iceberg sign on USG

A

Dermoid cyst of ovary

1150
Q

Karman cannula is used for

A

Endometrial aspiration

1151
Q

Tubal blockage is commonly seen with this infection

A

Chlamydia

1152
Q

ELBW

A

<1kg

1153
Q

VLBW

A

<1.5kg

1154
Q

A child can skip at the age of

A

5 years

1155
Q

Dry by day

A

2 yr baby

1156
Q

Dry by night

A

3 years

1157
Q

Monkey faces in case of

A

Marasmus

1158
Q

Flag sign

A

Kwashiorkor

1159
Q

Chipmunk faces in case of

A

Thalassemia

1160
Q

Mature breast milk by

A

Day 7

1161
Q

Most common congenital infection

A

CMV

1162
Q

Vit E has role in prevention of

A

PBD and ROP

1163
Q

Protein required in new born

A

100kcal/kg

1164
Q

Mature breast milk by

A

Day 7

1165
Q

Most common organism causing fetal malformation

A

Rubella

1166
Q

Triad of congenital syphilis

A

Deafness + interstitial keratitis + Hutchinson’s teeth

1167
Q

Triad of congenital rubella

A

Deafness + cataract + heart defect (PDA)

1168
Q

Triad of toxoplasmosis

A

Chorioretinitis + intracranial calcification + hydrocephalus

1169
Q

Largest organ of fetus

A

Fetal adrenal cortex

1170
Q

Sucking + swallowing

A

34 weeks

1171
Q

Hyperbiliruminemia in girl babies causes

A

Oxytocin induced to mother

1172
Q

Premature closure of ductus in preterm baby

A

Indomethacin

1173
Q

Most common complication during vaginal delivery in diabetic mother

A

Shoulder dystocia

1174
Q

First sign of sexual maturation

A

Enlargement of breast in female

Testes in Male

1175
Q

Infant usually doubles his birth length by

A

4 and half yrs of age

1176
Q

Insulin and insulin like growth factor

A

Stimulate fetal growth

1177
Q

Mc benign liver tumor is

A

Hemangioma

1178
Q

Mc cause of secondary hypersplenism is

A

Portal hypertension

1179
Q

Site of embolic occlusion is the

A

Femoral artery

1180
Q

Mc indication for splenectomy is

A

Splenic injury

1181
Q

Mc toe problem is

A

ingrown toe nails

1182
Q

Mcc of hypercalcemia

A

Hyperparathyroidism

1183
Q

Mc NSAID that decreases platelet function is

A

Aspirin

1184
Q

Mcc of hypovolemic shock

A

Hemorrhage

1185
Q

2nd MC benign tumor of parotid gland

A

Warthins tumor

1186
Q

Cause of renovascular hypertension in children is

A

Fibromuscular dysplasia

1187
Q

Mc indication for nasogastric tube placement is

A

Gastric compression

1188
Q

Mc motility disorder of the esophagus is

A

Achalasia cardia

1189
Q

Mc cause of colonic obstruction

A

Adenocarcinoma

1190
Q

Mc site of volvulus is the

A

Sigmoid colon

1191
Q

Mc site for metastasis from the colon is the

A

Liver

1192
Q

Mc location of colonic obstruction is the

A

Sigmoid colon

1193
Q

Mc surgical condition of the small bowel is

A

Obstruction secondary to adhesion

1194
Q

Mc site of bile duct carcinoma is the

A

Bifurcation of the common hepatic duct

1195
Q

What are all the staging in thymoma

A

Masaoka staging

1196
Q

What kind of staging in RCC

A

Robson staging

1197
Q

What kind of staging in CA gb

A

Nevin staging

1198
Q

Index on the basis of neuroblastoma

A

Shimada index

1199
Q

Mc postoperative complication after thyroidectomy

A

Hemorrhage

1200
Q

Alkaline urine is seen in

A

Calcium phosphate ,struvite

1201
Q

Most sensitive investigation for renal calculi

A

NCCT

1202
Q

Father of thyroid surgery

A

Theodor kocher

1203
Q

Toc for superior mesenteric artery syndrome

A

Duodenojejunostomy

1204
Q

Nigro regimen is used for

A

Anal canal CA

1205
Q

Mc primary spinal tumor

A

Nerve sheath tumor

1206
Q

Mc site of medulloblastoma

A

Vermis

1207
Q

Mc posterior fossa tumor in children

A

Astrocytoma

1208
Q

What classification is used in adenocarcinoma lung

A

Noguchis classification

1209
Q

Signs of gallstones

A

Mercedes benz sign,sea gull sign

1210
Q

Most common causes of seizures in HIV

A

Hiv encephalopathy > toxoplasmosis

1211
Q

PR interval

A

Spread of impulse from SAN to AVN

1212
Q

Most common CXR finding in TB with HIV

A

Miliary shadow

1213
Q

Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection

A

Figure of 8 or snowman heart

1214
Q

Most common site of bronchietasis

A

Left lower lobe

1215
Q

Most common clinical presentation of lung CA

A

Cough

1216
Q

LE cells are seen in

A

SLE

1217
Q

In Wilson disease,chelation is done by

A

ZINC

1218
Q

In hemochromatosis,all organs are affected except

A

CNS

1219
Q

Doc for listeria meningitis

A

Ampicillin

1220
Q

Most frequently due to influenza virus

A

Interstitial pneumonia

1221
Q

Most common cause of meningitis in neonate

A

Klebsiella > staph aureus

1222
Q

Libman sacks endocarditis is seen with

A

SLE

1223
Q

IOC of gerd

A

24 hr PH monitoring

1224
Q

What are seen in bronchial asthma

A

Curschmanns spiral

1225
Q

Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

A

21 alpha hydroxylase

1226
Q

IOC for Addison’s disease

A

ACTH STIMULATION TEST

1227
Q

Pseudochylous ascites is seen in

A

Malignant ascites

1228
Q

Most sensitive marker of SLE

A

ANA (anti nuclear antibody )

1229
Q

Category 2 : yellow /blue indicates

A

High possible resuscitation or life saving surgery (within 6 to 24hrs)

1230
Q

National AIDS control programme (NACP)

A

1987

1231
Q

Mild mental retardation

A

50 -69

1232
Q

Causative organism of chicken pox

A

Human herpes virus 3

1233
Q

Causative organism for influenza

A

Orthomyxovirus

1234
Q

Causative organism for measles (rubella)

A

RNA paramyxovirus

1235
Q

Strain used for rabies

A

Fixed viral strain

1236
Q

Mpw is located at

A

Subcenter level

1237
Q

Plasmodium discovered by

A

Laveran

1238
Q

Mortality is included in

A

NRR(net reproduction rate)

1239
Q

In ORS,Na+ absorption is due to

A

Glucose

1240
Q

Hepatitis A and E transmission is

A

Fecal oral route

1241
Q

Nerve supplying area between great toe and 2nd toe

A

Deep peroneal nerve

1242
Q

Retraction of scapula is done by

A

Middle fibers of trapezius muscle

1243
Q

Nutrient artery of the humerus

A

Profunda brachii artery

1244
Q

Nutrient artery of radius and ulna

A

Anterior interosseous artey

1245
Q

Nutrient artery of fibula

A

branch of posterior artery >peroneal artery

1246
Q

1st part of subclavian artery

A

VIT-CD
Vertebral artery
Internal mammary artery
Thyrocervical trunk

1247
Q

2nd part of branch of subclavian artery

A

Costocervical trunk

1248
Q

3rd part of the subclavian artery

A

Dorsal scapular artery

1249
Q

Weight of the pituitary

A

0.5-0.6 gram

1250
Q

Weight of the thyroid gland

A

20-40 gram

1251
Q

Weight of adrenal gland

A

5-6 gram

1252
Q

Only long bone which has no medullary cavity

A

Clavicle

1253
Q

All long bone ossify in cartilage except clavicle.it ossifies in membrane

A

Clavicle

1254
Q

Mc fractured carpal bone

A

Scaphoid (boat shaped)- 2nd MC site of avascular necrosis

1255
Q

Musicians nerve

A

Ulnar nerve (root value C8,T1)

1256
Q

Root value of radial nerve

A

C5 to T1(c5,C6,C7,C8,T1)

1257
Q

Winging of the scapula

A

Long thoracic nerve (serratus anterior muscle paralyzed)

1258
Q

Nerve supply of gluteus maximus

A

Inferior gluteal nerve (L5,S1,S2)

1259
Q

Nerve supply of gluteus medius and minimus

A

Superior gluteal N (L4,5 and S1)

1260
Q

Vessel used in coronary artery bypass graft (CABG)

A

Internal mammary artery

1261
Q

Locking of the knee by

A

Quadriceps femoris muscle (occurs at last stage of extension)

1262
Q

Unlocking of the knee by

A

Popliteus muscle (occurs at first stage of flexion)

1263
Q

Which bone does not contribute to medial wall of orbit

A

Zygoma

1264
Q

Which layer of scalp is vascular

A

Subcutaneous tissue

1265
Q

Posterior communicating artery is a branch of

A

Middle cerebral artery

1266
Q

The chorda tympani nerve arises from

A

Facial nerve

1267
Q

Claw hand is due to paralysis of which muscle group

A

Lumbricals

1268
Q

Spinal levels of axillary nerve

A

C5 and C6

1269
Q

Innervation to nail bed of middle finger

A

Median nerve

1270
Q

Innervation to nailbed of ring finger

A

Ulnar and median

1271
Q

Lower angle of scapula lies at

A

Level of T7

1272
Q

Most commonly torn tendon of rotator cuff

A

Supraspinatus

1273
Q

Nerve injury with the fracture of shaft of humerus

A

Radial

1274
Q

Erbs point anatomical location at junction of

A

C5,C6

1275
Q

Paralysis of this muscle can cause dropped shoulder

A

Trapezius

1276
Q

Power of grip of hand is mainly due to

A

Long flexors

1277
Q

This nerve injury can cause wasting of intrinsic muscles of hand

A

Ulnar nerve

1278
Q

Sprengels deformity is associated with this bone

A

Scapula(failure of normal scapular descent during development)

1279
Q

Motor nerve supply of diaphragm

A

Phrenic nerve

1280
Q

Nerve root value of pudendal nerve

A

S2,3,4

1281
Q

Main blood supply of the femoral head

A

Medial circumflex femoral artery

1282
Q

Strongest flexors of the hip

A

Psoas major and iliacus muscle (illiopsoas muscle)

1283
Q

Upper outer quadrant of breast is drained by this lymphatic

A

Anterior axillary

1284
Q

Nerve root of posterior cutaneous nerve of thigh

A

S1,2,3

1285
Q

Nerve root value of medial cutaneous nerve of thigh

A

L2,3

1286
Q

Blood supply of the kochs triangle

A

Right coronary artery

1287
Q

Blood supply of SA node

A

Right coronary artery

1288
Q

Valve guarding coronary sinus

A

Thebesian valve

1289
Q

Thoracic duct is also known as

A

Van home canal ,pecquet duct

1290
Q

Transtubercular plane lies at which level

A

L5

1291
Q

Length of inguinal canal

A

4cm

1292
Q

Labia majora is developed from

A

Genital swelling

1293
Q

Helicine artery is a branch of

A

Deep artery penis

1294
Q

Nerve supply of the perinuem is

A

Pudendal nerve

1295
Q

Anatomical support of prostate is

A

Pubococcygeus

1296
Q

Blood supply of liver

A

80% portal vein nd 20% hepatic artery

1297
Q

Most common congenital anomaly of pancreas

A

Pancreas divisum

1298
Q

Ligament which contains splenic artery

A

Splenorenal ligament

1299
Q

Angle of mandible is supplied by

A

Great auricular nerve

1300
Q

Tip of nose is supplied by

A

Ophthalmic nerve(external nasal branch)

1301
Q

Metopic suture

A

Separates 2 half of the frontal bone

1302
Q

Metopic suture closes at

A

6 years

1303
Q

Otic ganglion supplies this gland

A

Parotid gland

1304
Q

Left lung has how many lobes

A

Two

1305
Q

Portal triad comprised of

A

Common bile duct
Hepatic artery
Portal vein

1306
Q

Gillette space corresponds to

A

Retropharyngeal space

1307
Q

Wernickes area is located at

A

Superior temporal gyrus (area 22)

1308
Q

Organs devoid of lymphatics

A

Brain,choroid,internal ear,glottis

1309
Q

At what vertebral level is the hyoid bone found

A

C3

1310
Q

First branch off the abdominal artery

A

Inferior phrenic artery

1311
Q

The folds of the mucosa of the stomach are known as

A

Rugae

1312
Q

Artery of the anterior compartment of the leg

A

Anterior tibial artery

1313
Q

Pairs of spinal nerves exit from spinal cord

A

31 pairs

1314
Q

Left gonadal vein drains into

A

IVC

1315
Q

Arnold nerve is a branch of

A

Vagus nerve

1316
Q

Right adrenal gland shape

A

Pyramidal in shape

1317
Q

Content of anatomical snuff box

A

Radial artery

1318
Q

Fundus of stomach is supplied by

A

Splenic artery

1319
Q

Orgin of renal artery

A

L2

1320
Q

Formation of IVC

A

L5

1321
Q

Police man of the abdominal cavity

A

Greater omentum

1322
Q

Critical vascular zone of spinal cord

A

T4-T9

1323
Q

Collecting duct is derived from

A

Ureteric bud

1324
Q

Filum terminale is derived from

A

Pia mater

1325
Q

Rectouterine pouch is also known as

A

Pouch of Douglas

1326
Q

Which vein travels with the right coronary artery

A

Small cardiac vein

1327
Q

Most prominent spinous process in the spine

A

Vertebra prominens

1328
Q

Middle meningeal artery is a branch of

A

Maxillary artery (1st part of maxillary artery)

1329
Q

Anterior choroidal artery is a branch of

A

Internal carotid artery

1330
Q

Normal plasma protein ratio

A

1.7 : 1

1331
Q

Cell shape and motility are the function of

A

Microtubules

1332
Q

Chassaignac tubercle is

A

Carotid tubercle on the C6 vertebra

1333
Q

Opening of parotid(stensons duct ) in the oral cavity

A

Opposite of the second molar tooth

1334
Q

Frank starling law of the heart

A

Increase in venous return causes increased cardiac output

1335
Q

Part of intestine secreting enterpeptidase

A

Duodenum (activates trypsinogen)

1336
Q

Imp RMP of inner hair cells

A

-150mv

1337
Q

Membranes of BBB are generally

A

Asymmetrical

1338
Q

Energy for the urea cycle come from

A

Fat metabolism

1339
Q

Most common benign vascular tumor

A

Hemangioma

1340
Q

Characteristics of rheumatic carditis

A

Pancarditis

1341
Q

Most commonly involved valve in rheumatic fever

A

Mitral valve

1342
Q

Maximum decrease in CSF chloride

A

TB meningitis

1343
Q

Pan B cell

A

CD 19

1344
Q

Most common symptoms of bladder cancer

A

Painless hematuria

1345
Q

Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy with non - caseating granuloma

A

Sarcoidosis

1346
Q

Small pox will have

A

Guarnieri bodies

1347
Q

Enterotoxins are not produced by

A

Streptococcus

1348
Q

Ig with the maximum half life

A

IgG

1349
Q

Ig with minimum half life

A

IgE

1350
Q

Ig having maximum serum concentration

A

IgG

1351
Q

Ig having least serum concentration

A

IgE

1352
Q

For toxicology sampling ,best site for blood collection

A

Femoral vein

1353
Q

Test to distinguish human vs animal blood

A

Precipitin test

1354
Q

A child who is born to an unmarried women

A

Illegitimate child

1355
Q

Borax is

A

Gastrointestinal irritant

1356
Q

No plant source for vit

A

Vitb12 And vit D

1357
Q

Most common Callum patch in rheumatic heart disease is seen in

A

Left atrium

1358
Q

What can be present with hypokalemia and metabolic acidosis

A

Diarrhea

1359
Q

Source of renal neoplasm

A

Metastasis

1360
Q

Mc primary tumor of the small bowel

A

Adenocarcinoma

1361
Q

Ovarian artery and testicular artery is a branch of

A

Abdominal aorta

1362
Q

Muscle which opens Eustachian tube while yawing

A

Tensor veli palatini And levator veli palatini

1363
Q

Trigone of bladder develops from

A

Mesonephric duct(mesodermal in orgin )

1364
Q

Narrowest part of esophagus

A

Cricopharynx at the root of neck

1365
Q

Liver has how many segment

A

8 segment
Caudate lobe - segment 1
Quadrate lobe - segment 4

1366
Q

Implantation occurs

A

6th day after fertilization,complete on 10th day

1367
Q

Most common nerve paralyzed

A

Facial N (longest intraosseous course)

1368
Q

Nerve supply of upper eyelid and TIP of nose

A

V1(ophthalmic branch of trigeminal)

1369
Q

Nerve injured with fracture of medial humeral epicondyl

A

Ulnar

1370
Q

Intercostobrachial nerve is a branch of

A

2nd intercostal nerve

1371
Q

Which part of the lung that extends above the level of the first rib

A

The cupula

1372
Q

What is the only valve in the heart that has 2 cusps

A

Mitral valve(bicuspid valve)

1373
Q

Structure which separate the anatomic right and left lobes of the liver

A

Ligamentum teres And ligamentum venosum

1374
Q

Function of the arachnoid granulations in the brain

A

Reabsorb CSF into the blood

1375
Q

Only organ in the body supplied by preganglionic sympathetic fibers

A

Adrenal medulla

1376
Q

Location of seminal vesicle

A

On the posterior aspect of the urinary bladder

1377
Q

What two muscle are tested to see if CN XI is intact

A

Trapezius and sternocleidomastoid

1378
Q

What is the prominent bump on the lateral aspects of the knee

A

Head of fibula

1379
Q

Nerve supplying the lateral compartment of the leg

A

Superficial peroneal nerve

1380
Q

Foot drop is caused by damage to which nerve

A

Common peroneal nerve

1381
Q

Common carotid artery bifurcation at

A

C4 level (at upper border of thyroid cartilage)

1382
Q

Ligament of berry function

A

Connects thyroid lobe to cricoid lobe

1383
Q

Herring bodies are seen in

A

Posterior pituitary (ADH And oxytocin both stores here)

1384
Q

Passavants ridge is formed by

A

Palatopharyngeus and superior contrictor muscle

1385
Q

Broca’s area located at

A

Posterior end of superior temporal gyrus (area 44,45)

1386
Q

Direct branch of interior mesentric artery

A

Superior rectal artery

1387
Q

Nerve supplying serratus anterior muscle

A

Long thoracic nerve

1388
Q

Muller muscle supplied by which nerve

A

Sympathetic nerve

1389
Q

Efferent cremasteric reflex is carried by

A

Genitofemoral nerve

1390
Q

Disc are not found between

A

C1 and C2 ;sacrum -

coccyx

1391
Q

Ophthalmic artery is a branch of

A

Internal carotid artery

1392
Q

Where does the inferior mesentric vein drain

A

The splenic vein

1393
Q

Mucosal fold of small intestine starting 2nd part of duodenum

A

Valvulae conniventes also known as kerckring

1394
Q

Muscle comprise the erector spinae

A

Iliocostalis,longissimus,spinalis

1395
Q

Region where the manubrium and body of the sternum articulate

A

Sternal angle of Louis

1396
Q

Only muscle of the tongue not innervated by hypoglossal nerve

A

Palatoglossus

1397
Q

Ventral branches of abdominal aorta

A

Celiac trunk
Superior mesentric artery
Inferior mesenteric artery

1398
Q

Structures and level of piercing in diaphragm

A

I ate,10 eggs,At 12
IVC T8
Esophagus T10
Aorta T12

1399
Q

Muscle of the upper limb which cover both elbow and shoulder joint

A

Long head of triceps brachii

1400
Q

Supination and probation of upper limb is due to

A

Radio ulnar joint

1401
Q

Extension of artery of adamkiewicz is between

A

T9-T11

1402
Q

Mc site for BPH

A

Median lobe of prostate

1403
Q

Site for prostatic adenoma in elederly

A

Lateral 2 of the prostate gland

1404
Q

Longest rib

A

7th rib

1405
Q

Typical ribs

A

3rd to 9th

1406
Q

Atypical ribs

A

1st ,2nd ,10th,11th,12th

1407
Q

False ribs

A

8-12

1408
Q

True ribs and it’s other name

A

Vertebrosternal ribs (1-7th ribs)

1409
Q

Most oblique ribs

A

9th ribs

1410
Q

Largest cranial nerve

A

Trigeminal nerve (CN 5)

1411
Q

Smallest cranial nerve

A

Trochlear nerve (CN 4)

1412
Q

Respond to strong pressure from a sharp object

A

Mechanical nociceptors

1413
Q

Spinocerebellar tract function

A

Skilled movement

1414
Q

Responds to various chemical such as bradykinin,histamine,high acidity

A

Chemical nociceptors

1415
Q

Respond to combination of these stimuli

A

Polymodal nociceptors

1416
Q

Nephrons reaches to adult value at

A

36 weeks gestation

1417
Q

Used to differentiate iron deficiency anemia from beta thalassemia

A

Mentzer index

1418
Q

In newborn,renal tubular concentrating capacity reaches adult value

A

1 year

1419
Q

Below this age Bp of 120/80 is considered as hypertension

A

<12 years

1420
Q

Catabolism of H2O2 is a function of

A

Peroxisomes

1421
Q

Mechanoreceptors for texture and slow vibrations (5-40Hz)

A

Meissners corpuscles

1422
Q

Mechanoreceptors for sustained pressure and touch

A

Merkels cell(slow adapting)

1423
Q

Mechanoreceptors for sustained pressure

A

Ruffini corpuscles)slow adapting

1424
Q

Mechanoreceptors for deep pressure and fast vibrations(60 - 300Hz)

A

Pacinian corpuscles (rapidly adapting)

1425
Q

In nephron most of the reabsorption occurs at which portion

A

PCT (app 75%)

1426
Q

Sleep walking is seen in which stage of NREM

A

Stage 3 and 4

1427
Q

Parietal cell secretes

A

Intrinsic factor

1428
Q

This vitamin is an imp component of rhodopsin

A

Vitamin A

1429
Q

Only organ which produces ketone bodies(but never utilizes it)

A

Liver

1430
Q

Mutation in sickle cell disease

A

Base pair substitution

1431
Q

Type of bilirubin is found in neonatal jaundice

A

Indirect or unconjucated

1432
Q

Occurs in both cytoplasm and mitochondria

A

Gluconeogenesis

1433
Q

Doc for P.vivax

A

Chloroquine

1434
Q

Edward syndrome

A

Trisomy 18

1435
Q

Type of necrosis seen in brain pathology

A

Liquefactive necrosis

1436
Q

Noonan syndrome is similar to

A

Turner syndrome

1437
Q

Most sensitive cells and common in the body damaged due to hypoxia

A

Neurons

1438
Q

Eosinophils have major basic protein which is toxic to

A

Parasites

1439
Q

Leukocytes with giant granules in peripheral blood smear seen in

A

Chediak higashi syndrome

1440
Q

Most imp fibrogenic agent

A

TGF -beta

1441
Q

Hemosiderin laden macrophages (heart failure cells) found in

A

Lung

1442
Q

Chemotactic for neutrophils

A

IL -8

1443
Q

Virchows fifth sign of inflammation is

A

Loss of function

1444
Q

Leiden factor is

A

Mutated factor 5

1445
Q

Procoagulant Bt thrombin-thrombomodulin complex is anticoagulant

A

Thrombin

1446
Q

Maternal meiotic non-dysfunction is most common cause of

A

Down syndrome

1447
Q

Variety associated with Down syndrome

A

AML M7

1448
Q

Lesion with normal differentiation at abnormal site

A

Choristoma

1449
Q

Mc Callum plaque is seen in

A

Rheumatic cariditis (on left atrium )

1450
Q

CD45 is also called as the

A

leukocyte common antigen(LCA)

1451
Q

Orphan Annie eye nuclei is characteristic of

A

Papillary carcinoma

1452
Q

Weight of adrenal in Cushing syndrome

A

25-40gm

1453
Q

Most common gene involved in the familial breast cancer

A

BRCA -1

1454
Q

Definitive marker for the hepatoblastoma

A

AFP

1455
Q

Call -exner bodies are seen in

A

Granulosa theca cell tumor

1456
Q

Most specific marker of the GIST

A

C-kit (CD 117)

1457
Q

Most common complication of the peptic ulcer

A

GI bleeding (eg haematemesis)

1458
Q

Most common testicular tumor and testicular germ cell tumor

A

Seminoma

1459
Q

Cells which are unique as they are capable of direct cell lysis

A

Nk cells

1460
Q

Comet tail artefact with thickening of gallbladder wall

A

Adenomyomatosis

1461
Q

Infection causing atherosclerosis

A

Chlamydia pneumoniae , herpes virus

1462
Q

Foam cells are

A

Lipid laden macrophages

1463
Q

Molecule is present on all the nucleated cells and platelets

A

MHC 1

1464
Q

responsible for activation of classical pathway

A

IgM And IgG

1465
Q

Responsible for activation of alternate pathway

A

IgA,IgE,IgD

1466
Q

Most common site of intestinal amebiasis

A

Cecum and ascending colon

1467
Q

Nutmeg liver is seen in

A

Right sided heart failure (Chronic passive congestion)

1468
Q

Hyperplasia of pancreatic beta cells lead to

A

Nesidioblastoma

1469
Q

Most common mutation in Ewing’s sarcoma

A

Translocation t 11:22

1470
Q

HEV are lined by simple cuboidal cells as opposite to regular venules lined by

A

Endothelial cells

1471
Q

Which protein attached to surface of bacteria and phagocytized

A

Antibody

1472
Q

All immunoglobulin are heat stable except

A

IgE

1473
Q

Blanket consent is taken

A

While admission to any surgery

1474
Q

Instantaneous rigors is seen in

A

Cadaveric spasm

1475
Q

Widmarks formula helps in measurement of blood level of

A

Alcohol

1476
Q

What is most commonly done through the posterior approach

A

Autopsy of the spinal cord

1477
Q

First temporary teeth to appear and sec permanent teeth

A

Lower central incisor,1st molar

1478
Q

Punishment for perjury

A

IPC 193

1479
Q

Cause of death in judicial hanging is fracture of

A

C2-3 or 3-4 vertebrae

1480
Q

Sickness benefit under ESI act ,1948

A

91 days

1481
Q

Most common electrolyte abnormality

A

Hyponatremia ,SIADH

1482
Q

CSF glucose compared to blood glucose

A

60-70% of concentration of blood

1483
Q

Iron is absorbed from

A

Duodenum with fast clearance

1484
Q

In case of severe MS How much left atrial pressure required to maintain a normal cardiac output

A

App 25mmHg

1485
Q

Present normal in urine

A

Hyaline cast

1486
Q

Seen in intestinal nephritis and pyelonephritis

A

WBC CAST

1487
Q

IOC and Rx of duct ectasia

A

Mammography,hadfield’s operation

1488
Q

Mc cause of appendix obstruction in older patients is

A

Fecolith and foreign body

1489
Q

Mc renal inflammatory disorder

A

Pyelonephritis

1490
Q

Mc reason to get treatment for BPH is

A

Symptomatic relief

1491
Q

Mcc of acute pancreatitis are

A

Alcohol consumption and biliary calculi

1492
Q

Mc best diagnostic imaging technique for prostate CA is

A

Trus

1493
Q

Best treatment for subaponeurotic hematoma

A

I and D

1494
Q

Mc malignant tumor of the small bowel are

A

Adenocarcinoma,carcinoid,lymphoma

1495
Q

Mc location for prostate CA is in the

A

Peripheral zone of the prostate gland

1496
Q

Mc reason for recurrent post operative ulcer disease is

A

Inadequate vagotomy

1497
Q

Most common organism associated with sialadenitis

A

Staph aureus and strep viridans

1498
Q

Mcc of death in children and adults less than 35 years of age is

A

Trauma

1499
Q

Mc hernia in both sexes and all groups is

A

Bilateral inguinal hernia

1500
Q

Mcc of pre-sinusoidal portal hypertension is

A

Schistosomiasis

1501
Q

Most full term infants regain their birth weight by the age of

A

10 days

1502
Q

The circumference of head and chest are almost same by the age of

A

9 months to 1 year

1503
Q

What is the first to develop and second molar is last to develop in primary dentition

A

Central incisors

1504
Q

Recurrent abortion’s And IUGR are usually not seen in

A

Syphilis

1505
Q

Most of the new born pass urine by

A

12 hours of age and almost all of them do so by 48 hrs

1506
Q

Breast milk does not provide immunity against

A

Pertussis

1507
Q

Vitamin absent in breast milk

A

Vit C > vit D

1508
Q

Earliest fetal breathing movement

A

11-16 weeks

1509
Q

Most common cause of congenital hydrocephalus

A

Aqueductal stenosis

1510
Q

Lacta albumin in breast milk

A

Soft/golden yellow color stool

1511
Q

Social smile develops by

A

2 months

1512
Q

Head control develops by

A

3 months

1513
Q

Hand regard by

A

4 month

1514
Q

Ulnar grasp by

A

4 months

1515
Q

Low birth weight

A

<10th percentile (<2-5kg)

1516
Q

Early sign of puberty

A

In male - enlargement of testes

In female -thelarche

1517
Q

Anemia for an infant at hemoglobin less than

A

12gm%

1518
Q

In neonatal sepsis,acute phase reactant

A

CRP

1519
Q

Acyanotic congenital heart disease

A

ASD,VSD,PDA

1520
Q

Type of molar pregnancy in which fetal tissue is formed

A

Partial H mole

1521
Q

Parachute reflex develops during

A

9th month of life

1522
Q

Wave bye bye

A

9 months

1523
Q

Constipation in pregnancy is due to this hormone

A

Progesterone

1524
Q

Ovarian capsule is first involved in this stage of ovarian CA

A

Ic

1525
Q

Stage of cervix cancer reaching involving bladder and rectum

A

Stage 4a

1526
Q

Fruit juice which can prevent UTI

A

Cranberry juice(due to its anti adhesion property)

1527
Q

Main support of uterus is

A

Cardinal ligament (aka transverse cervical ligament)

1528
Q

Uterus shows both during pregnancy

A

Hypertrophy and hyperplasia

1529
Q

Steroidogenesis of CL prevented by

A

LH

1530
Q

Amenorrhea,absent uterus,normal sec sexual characters

A

Mullerian agenesis

1531
Q

Genital tubercle forms

A

In female -clitoris

In Male - penis

1532
Q

Genital swelling

A

Labia majora - female

Scrotum - Male

1533
Q

Minimum age for MTP(medical termination of pregnancy )consent

A

18 years

1534
Q

Time of cerclage operation

A

12-14 weeks

1535
Q

Mc tumor of ovarian tumor

A

Epithelial cell tumor

1536
Q

Mcc drug used for 2nd TM abortion

A

Prostaglandins

1537
Q

Most common malignant germ cell tumor

A

Dysgerminoma

1538
Q

Mechanism of action of combined OCP

A

Prevent the release of ovum from ovary

1539
Q

Regular and rhythmic uterine contraction

A

Palmers sign

1540
Q

Softened vaginal wall with copious mucoid discharge

A

Vaginal sign

1541
Q

Oxygenated blood from placenta goes to fetal heart via

A

Ductus venosus

1542
Q

Treatment of choice of acute hydramnios with fetal distress in pregnancy

A

Amniocentesis

1543
Q

Cardiac activity in fetus can be assessed via trans abdominal scan by

A

6 weeks

1544
Q

In a diabetic mother most common fetal complication will be

A

Congenital heart disease

1545
Q

Pathognomic of ectopic pregnancy

A

Decidul cast

1546
Q

Recurrent abortion with isolated rise APTT

A

Lupus anticoagulant

1547
Q

Rubin criteria is used for

A

Cervical ectopic

1548
Q

Follow up of a case of ectopic /molar pregnancy

A

Serial HCG level

1549
Q

IOC for placenta previa and abruptio placenta

A

USG

1550
Q

Mc benign tumor of ovary

A

Dermoid cyst

1551
Q

Most common ovarian tumor associated with pregnancy

A

Dermoid cyst

1552
Q

Ear ossicle which has no muscle attachment

A

Incus

1553
Q

Layer of tympanic membrane

A

3 layer

1554
Q

Acute otitis media most commonly caused by

A

streptococcus pneumonia

1555
Q

Furunculosis of external ear caused by

A

Staphylococcus

1556
Q

Bullous myringitis is most commonly caused by

A

Adenovirus

1557
Q

Pulsatile tinnitus is seen in

A

Glomus tumor

1558
Q

Most common sinusitis in adults

A

Maxillary

1559
Q

This illicit drug can cause septal perforation

A

Cocaine

1560
Q

Osteomeatal complex is an imp landmark during

A

FESS

Self (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions