FINALE Flashcards

1
Q

How to dx asthma?

A

-chest x ray
-pulm function test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

S/Sx of asthma?

A
  • Wheezing and dry cough, prolonged expiration, restlessness, fatigue, tachypnea, cyanosis, marked respiratory distress
    -barrel chest from chronic asthma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Nursing care for asthma?

A
  • Assess resp status, administer humidified oxygen prn, monitor pulse ox
  • Maintain IV access,
    -avoid cold liquids to avoid bronchospasm
  • Position high-fowlers and cluster nursing care
  • Sudden cessation of wheezing and decreased breath sounds indicates WORSENING
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are important nursing considerations for cleft palate repair?

A

6 - 18 months; before 2 years of age
- Position on side or back after surgery
- Cool mist tent
- Blended diet
- Elbow restraints: 4 - 6 weeks
- No straws, pacifiers, spoons, or fingers in or around mouth for 7-10 days.
- No oral temps.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Dx of cystic fibrosis?

A
  • Sweat test
  • 72 hours fecal fat
  • Chest x-ray
  • Prenatal DNA of amniotic fluid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Tx of cystic fibrosis?

A
  • Antibiotics – treat pulmonary infection
  • Pancreatic enzymes – for fat absorption
    -Fat-soluble vitamins A,E,D,K
  • Mucolytics – to decrease viscosity of sputum
  • Bronchodilators – to improve lung function
    -high calorie, high protein foods
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

S/Sx of bronchiolitis?

A
  • Worsening of an upper respiratory tract infection with tachypnea, retractions, low-grade fever, anorexia, thick nasal secretions, and increasingly labored breathing
  • Older infants may have a frequent, dry cough
  • Lungs reveal wheezing or crackles
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Meds for bronchiolitis?

A
  • Bronchodilators (may not help)
  • Steroids
  • IV fluids
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Nursing care for bronchiolitis?

A
  • Complete respiratory assessment
  • Provide humidified oxygen
  • Pulse oximetry
  • Clear nasal passages with bulb syringe or deep nasal suctioning
  • Cluster nursing care
  • IV fluid, I & O, Weigh daily
  • Contact precautions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the primary causative factor for bronchiolitis?

A

RSV. most prominent in first 2 years of life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

post-op nursing care for tonsillectomy?

A
  • Provide patient with ice collar for inflammation and pain.
  • Assess for frequent swallowing or throat clearing as this may be a sign of bleeding.
  • Avoid red food/liquids, straw, coughing, or blowing nose forcefully.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What kind of precautions does pertussis require?

A

droplet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

S/Sx of pertussis?

A

Runny nose, cough that becomes more severe and spasms, flushing, cyanosis, vomiting,
Treatment: antibiotics, steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

S/Sx of celiac disease?

A
  • Abdominal distention, vomiting
  • Anorexia, muscle wasting
  • Diarrhea with a foul odor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are S/Sx of pyloric stenosis?

A

projectile vomiting, moveable olive-shaped mass in epigastrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Tx of pyloric stenosis?

A
  • Pyloromyotomy - laparotomy - relatively uncomplicated surgery
  • Feeding 4 - 6 hours postop, progressing from glucose or electrolyte fluid to formula within 24 hours of surgery
  • Discharge home 2nd postop day
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Tx of GERD?

A
  • Depends on severity
  • Avoid foods that intensify reflux (citrus, caffeine, etc.)
  • Weight control
  • Small frequent meals
  • Thickened feeds
  • Elevate HOB for 1 hour after feed
  • PPI’s-omeprazole, H2 receptor inhibitors-ranitidine
  • Surgical management-nissen fundoplication
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Early signs of increased ICP?

A

-Headaches
-Diplopia (blurred vision)
-Nausea & Vomiting
-Vertigo
-Seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Late Signs of increased ICP?

A

-Bradycardia
- LOC
-Decreased motor response
-Diminished response to pain
-Cushing reflex (slow pulse and increased BP, irregular respirations)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

S/Sx of Kawaski?

A

High fever
Red eyes
Ring around iris
Strawberry tongue
Rash (desquamates - skin flakes off)
Serious = MI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Signs of increased ICP in infants?

A

-wide sutures
-high pitched cry
-tense or bulging fontanels
-sun-setting signs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Rheumatic fever treatment?

A
  • Prevention of strep
  • cardiac damage prevention
  • recurrence prevention
  • Pen G
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Tx of Kawaski?

A

High dose IVIG and salicylate therapy

Grumpy kids, symptomatic, supportive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Increased pulm blood flow disorders?

A
  1. ASD
  2. VSD
  3. PDA
  4. AV Canal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What age is trust vs mistrust?

A

Birth to 12-18 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the goal in trust vs mistrust?

A

sense of trust and security

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What age is autonomy vs shame and doubt?

A

18 months-3 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the goal in autonomy vs shame and doubt?

A
  • Feelings of independence lead to belief in yourself and your abilities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What age is initiative vs guilt?

A

3 to 5 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the goal in initiative vs guilt?

A
  • Feelings of independence lead to belief in yourself and your abilities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What age is industry vs inferiority?

A

5 to 12 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the goal in industry vs inferiority?

A

feelings of pride and accomplishment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What age is identity vs confusion?

A

12 to 18 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the goal in identity vs confusion?

A

strong sense of identity, picture of future

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are some etiologies of anemia?

A

-Decreased blood O2-carrying ability: Cyanosis is not common in children
-Hemodilution: Heart murmur, Increased cardiac workload
-Slow growth
-Delayed sexual maturation
-Decreased RBC production
-Increased RBC loss
Increased RBC destruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Dx of anemia?

A

physical exam:
-fatigue
-decreased energy
-pallor
CBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Dx of sickle cell anemia?

A

-Newborn screening
-Sickledex heel/finger stick
-Hemoglobin electrophoresis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Tx for sickle cell?

A

-Hydroxyurea
-Penicillin
-Oxygen- only when hypoxic!
-Rest
-Pain medication
-Hydration
-Electrolytes
-Blood transfusion
-ABX
-Splenectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Blood flow through heart?

A

Body → IVC or Head → SVC → RA → TV → RV →Pulmonary valve → PA → Lungs → Pulmonary veins → LA → MV → LV → AV → aorta → body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Dx of spina bifida?

A

-Maternal AFP

-Ultrasound, CT, MRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

S/sx of hydrocephalus?

A

Sunset sign
Increased head circumference
High-pitched cry
Poor feeding if ICP too high

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is kyphosis?

A

CONVEX back curvature “hunch back”
Treated with with exercise and bracing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is lordosis?

A

cervical or lumbar curvature beyond physiological limits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is scoliosis?

A

lateral curvature of spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What age is NIPS used?

A

0-2 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What age is FLACC used?

A

2 months to 7 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What age is FACES used?

A

used in children 3 years and older

48
Q

What are altered LOC reflexes?

A
  • Absent corneal reflex & presence of tonic neck reflex associated with severe brain damage

-Neuro “health” in young infants: presence of Moro, tonic neck, and withdrawal reflexes

  • Babinski: dorsiflexion of big toe and fanning of toes – should be absent after 1 yr or locomotion
49
Q

What is the HUS triad?

A
  1. Anemia (low Hgb and Hct)
  2. thrombocytopenia (low platelet)
  3. renal failure
50
Q

S/sx of hypothyroidism?

A
  • Tachycardia
  • Widened pulse pressure
  • Dyspnea on exertion
  • Exophthalmos (protruding eyeballs)
  • Wide-eyed, staring expression with eyelid lag Tremor
  • Goiter (hypertrophy and hyperplasia)
  • Warm, moist skin
  • Accelerated linear growth
  • Heat intolerance (may be severe)
  • Hair fine and unable to hold a curl
  • Systolic murmurs
51
Q

What are the labs of hypothyroidism?

A

low tsh, high t3 and 4

52
Q

Cms of OI?

A

fragile bones, deformity, fractures, blue sclerae, hearing loss, hypoplastic discolored teeth

53
Q

What is HUS associated with?

A

e. coli, unpasteurized milk or fruit juice, lettuce, sprouts, salami, or drinking or swimming in sewage or contaminated water

54
Q

CMs of Wilms tumor?

A

Associated with aniridia (no iris), hemihypertrophy (1 side of body larger). Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome (overgrowth syndrome)

55
Q

How to diagnose Wilms?

A

Dx with radiographic studies, abd ultrasound, hematologic & biochemical studies, urinalysis

56
Q

Nursing care for Wilms?

A

Surgery asap removing tumor
DO NOT PALPATE
Post op at risk for bowel obstruction
Family and child support

57
Q

What is a renal diet?

A

-Low in protein, potassium, sodium, phosphorous
-High in carbohydrates
-Unrestricted amount of fat
-Limit fresh fruit and veggies
-High in calcium

58
Q

Cms of nephrotic syndrome?

A

Weight gain
Edema around eyes, scrotum, labia, ankles-especially in the morning
Ascites
Poor appetite
Elevated blood pressure
Tired
Urine is frothy and decreased in volume

59
Q

Tx for nephrotic syndrome?

A

Low salt diet
Severe cases fluid restriction
Edema=diuretics
25% albumin
Corticosteriods

60
Q

Labs for dehydration?

A

High urine specific gravity
Increased BUN
Increased hematocrit
Increased Sodium (Na)
Variable serum electrolytes
Increased serum osmolarity

61
Q

Oral intake for dehydration?

A

Oral Rehydration Therapy- (First)
Use Pedialyte (1/2 str Gatorade)
Not clear liquids / no caffeine
Not BRAT diet
No juice – high osmolarity
NPO – spray mouth
Intraosseous Infusion (Emergent)
Central Venous Lines – - apply pressure

62
Q

Dehydration S/sx?

A

Weight loss **
Increased heart rate
Thirst, No tears
Variable temperature
Depressed fontanel in infant
Dry skin and mucous membranes
Poor skin turgor and skin perfusion
Fatigue, lethargy
Diminished urinary output
Altered level of consciousness

63
Q

What is hemophilia a?

A

factor 8 deficiency

64
Q

What is hemophilia b?

A

factor 9 deficiency

65
Q

What are labs for hemophilia?

A

Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT)
Factor assays
Genetic testing

66
Q

Tx for hemophilia?

A

Factor VIII concentrates
Desmopressin (DDAVP)
Corticosteroids
Amicar
Physical therapy
Home infusion
High dose of factor for active bleeding

67
Q

Most common s/sx of hemophilia?

A

-nosebleed
-mouth bleeds
-heavy bleeding from minor injury
-easy bruising
-joint pain and swelling
-muscle bleeds
-coughing or vomiting blood
-blood or stool in urine
-brain bleed

68
Q

What is the most common site for fracture in children?

A

growth plate

69
Q

5 Ps of ischemia?

A

pain
pallor
pulselessness
parasthesia
paralysis

70
Q

What are signs/ symptoms of infection?

A

-increased WBC
-fever
-tachy
-decreased BP
-clammy skin
-positive blood culture
-persistent crying
-sleeping more than usual
-lethargy
-refusing to take bottle or breastfeed
-breathlessness
-extreme thirst
-unconsciousness
-pallor

71
Q

What is the total mL of water needed for 1-10 kg child?

A

100 mL/kg

72
Q

What is the total mL of water needed for 11-20 kg child?

A

1000 mL plus 50 mL/kg for each kg over 10

73
Q

What is the total mL of water needed for 20+ kg child?

A

1500 ml plus 20 ml/kg for each kg > 20kg

74
Q

What are causes of dehydration?

A

Fever
Vomiting / diarrhea
Diabetes
Burn
Shock
High output kidney failure
Phototherapy
Environmental heat

75
Q

What are common findings for child with neuro injury?

A

Altered LOC
Jittery
Clonus
Pupillary changes
Bulging fontanels

76
Q

Labs for nephrotic syndrome?

A

-proteinuria
-hypoalbuminemia
-hyperlipidemia

77
Q

Dx of bronchiolitis?

A

-nasopharyngeal swab
-chest xray

78
Q

What is the cardinal sign coarcation of the aorta?

A

Markedly higher blood pressures and pulses in the upper extremities compared to lower extremities

79
Q

What happens if coarcation of aorta is left untreated?

A

recurrent epistaxis episodes and leg pain and cramping esp with activity

80
Q

What are the decreaed pulm blood flow disorders?

A

tetralogy of fallot and tricuspid atresia

81
Q

Components of ToF?

A

A = Pulmonic Stenosis
B = Overriding Aorta
C = VSD
D = Right Ventricular Hypertrophy

82
Q

S/sx of ToF?

A
  • TET spells, child becomes cyanotic especially when crying and while eating (infancy), and during play (older children)
  • Polycythemia, greater than normal number of circulating red blood cells
  • Clubbing of the fingers may develop due to chronic hypoxia
83
Q

What are the increased pulm blood flow disorders?

A
  1. ASD
  2. VSD
  3. PDA
  4. AV Canal
84
Q

What is the medication to medically close defects in PDA and ASD?

A

indomethacin (indocin)

85
Q

Age appropriate toys for first year of life?

A
  • Rattles
  • Mobiles
  • Teething toys
  • Nesting toys
  • Playing with balls
  • Reading books
86
Q

When does separation anxiety begin, peak and usually end?

A

9 months, 18 months, 3 years

87
Q

When do the anterior fontanels close?

A

12-18 months

88
Q

when do posterior fontanels close?

A

2-3 months

89
Q

Biological changes in first 6 months of life?

A
  1. Birth weight doubles (on quiz)
  2. Grows 1’’ per month in length
  3. Head circumference increases by 1/2’’ per month
  4. Grasps as reflex, more with eyes, palmar grasp
  5. between 4-6 months head control established
  6. Tooth eruption begins
  7. Turns from abdomen to back at 6 months.
90
Q

What are biological changes between 7-12 months?

A
  1. Birth weight triples by end of 1st year
  2. Grows 1/2” per month in length (mostly in trunk)
  3. Manipulates items: pulls to mouth, pincer grasp
  4. Head control > straightening of back > then sitting
  5. Sit alone by 7 months & sit>explore from sitting at 8 mos
91
Q

What are gluten free diet safe foods?

A

rice, corn, egg, quinoa, fruit, popsicles, water, chicken, beef, gluten free bread
Avoid: gluten, wheat, barley, rye, oats, beer

92
Q

Priority interventions for seizures?

A

: Turn on side, nothing in mouth time it, airway-O2-suction (when seizure is over), rectal diazepam (status epilepticus), don’t stick anything in mouth when seizing, thermoregulation.

93
Q

S/sx of CF?

A

cough, sputum, dyspnea, decreased SaO2, crackles or wheezing in lungs, cyanosis, digital clubbing, steatorrhea, meconium ileus

94
Q

S/Sx of aplastic anemia?

A

-overwhelming infection
-pallor and patchy brown or yellow skin
-weakness, fever, dyspnea
-uncontrolled bleeding or ecchymosis

95
Q

S/sx of vaso-occlusive crisis?

A

-pain
-priapism
-acute chest sydrome
-stroke

96
Q

Why use traction?

A

-resist response of muscle
-immobilization
-alignment
-prevent contracture

97
Q

What is the gold standard treatment for scoliosis?

A

bracing

98
Q

Tx for HUS?

A

-hemodialysis or peritoneal dialysis
-FFP and plasmaphoresis, fresh/washed packed cells
-emergency support for family and child

99
Q

What are the signs that indicate bacterial meningitis?

A

Kernigs, Brudzinski, tonic nuchal rigidity

100
Q

What is Brudzinski’s sign?

A

reflexive flexion of the knees and hips following passive neck flexion.

101
Q

What is Kernig’s sign?

A

stiffness in hamstrings that prevents ability to straighten the leg

102
Q

What is nuchal rigidity?

A

Major stiffness in neck that causes flexing in hips & knees when neck is flexed

103
Q

What are the most common signs of bleeding?

A

-low hgb
-low hct
-high pt
-high ptt
-pain @ injured site
-swollen, tight abdomen
-N/V
-pale, clammy, sweaty skin
-breathlessness
-extreme thirst
-unconsciousness

104
Q

Risk factors that may cause vaso-occlusive crisis?

A

-infection
-changes in altitude
-cold climate

105
Q

What is the most common congenital heart defect?

A

VSD

106
Q

What is the sign associated with muscular dystrophy?

A

gowers

107
Q

What is gowers sign?

A

The child assumes the hands-and-knees position and then climbs to a stand by “walking” his hands progressively up his shins, knees, and thighs

108
Q

Tx for hyperthyroidism?

A

-antithyroid drugs
-thyroidectomy
-radioiodine ablation

109
Q

What is a bend (plastic deformation)?

A

ulna and fibula when there is a fracture in the radius and tibia

110
Q

What is a buckle (torus fracture)?

A

protrusion at the fracture site-usually by the epiphysis

111
Q

What is a Greenstick fracture?

A

compressed side bend and makes the opposite side split-incomplete fracture

112
Q

What is a complete fracture?

A

bone is completely broken but may be held together with periosteal hinge

113
Q

What are treatments for iron-deficiency anemia?

A

-iron oral supplements (do not take with vitamin c, do not take w milk products)
-parenteral or IM iron
-packed rbcs
-oxygen PRN

114
Q

What is beta thalassemia?

A

non-responsive to iron supplementation associated with people of mediterranean origin

115
Q

What is aplastic anemia?

A

rare and life-threatening bone marrow failure

116
Q

Where is bone marrow biopsy done?

A

posterior superior illiac spine prominence

117
Q

What is sickle cell disease?

A

hereditary disorder where the rbcs are sickle or crescent-shaped due to the presence of hemoglobin S