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Anatomy and Physiology II - BelRea > FINAL STUDY GUIDE (PT) > Flashcards

FINAL STUDY GUIDE (PT) Flashcards

1
Q

(blank) is an example of a catecholamine neurotransmitter and (blank) is an example of a parasympathetic chemical.

A

Epinephrine, Acetylcholine

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2
Q

If an animal has lost the ability to swallow, they most likely have lost innervation from which cranial nerve?

A

IX

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3
Q

Bells Palsy (a loss of the muscles of facial expression) will result from a loss of which cranial nerve’s function?

A

VII

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4
Q

What are the effects of parasympathetic nervous system stimulation on the heart?

A

Decreased rate and decreased force of contraction

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5
Q

The two ions that are actively pumped into and out of cells that result in the polarization of the cells

A

Sodium and Potassium

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6
Q

Cerebrospinal fluid lies within the (blank)

A

Subarachnoid space

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7
Q

The space between the nerve end and the sarcolemma of the muscle is called (blank)

A

Synaptic cleft

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8
Q

What substance causes the breakdown of acetylcholine in the synaptic cleft?

A

Acetylcholinesterase

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9
Q

What is one example of a posterior pituitary hormone?

A

Oxytocin

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10
Q

The cranial nerves originate from the (blank)

A

Brainstem

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11
Q

The vagus nerve is which cranial nerve?

A

X

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12
Q

The cranial nerves are anatomically part of what system?

A

Peripheral nervous system

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13
Q

An imbalance of what minerals can affect nerve function?

A

Sodium and Potassium

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14
Q

When a stimulus is string enough to cause complete depolarization it has reached what?

A

Threshold

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15
Q

Sensory nerves are considered what?

A

Afferent nerves

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16
Q

Nerve fibers encased in a white sheath of fatty material are termed what?

A

Myelinated

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17
Q

What are the layers of the meninges?

A

Dura mater
Pia mater
Arachnoid

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18
Q

Dendrites

A

Branch like structures that conduct impulses toward the nerve cell body

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19
Q

How many pairs of cranial nerves do dogs have?

A

12

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20
Q

Outside of the brain and spinal cord, nerve cells bodies are usually found in clumps or aggregations called (blank)

A

Ganglia

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21
Q

The presence of a myelin sheath on an axon tends to what?

A

Accelerate all impulses

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22
Q

What cranial nerve carries impulses from the ear to the brain?

A

Acoustic (VIII)

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23
Q

Which cranial nerve provides parasympathetic innervation to the heart, lungs, stomach, and small intestine?

A

Vagus (X)

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24
Q

Which cranial nerve conducts motor impulses to the tongue?

A

Hypoglossal (XII)

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25
Q

The autonomic nervous system is directly responsible for innervation of (blank)

A

Visceral organs

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26
Q

Cauda equina

A

The terminal part of the spinal cord

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27
Q

Which equine neurological disease is transmitted by sporocysts in opossum feces?

A

Equine Protozoal myelitis

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28
Q

What nuclei is not a part of the brainstem?

A

Body temperature regulation center

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29
Q

Which neurotransmitter has an inhibitory effect in the brain?

A

GABA

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30
Q

In order to re-establish the resting membrane potential, which process must take place?

A

Primary active transport (Na/K pump)

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31
Q

What four pairs of cranial nerves have both motor and sensory functions in the body?

A

Vagus
Facial
Trigemenial
Glossopharyngeal

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32
Q

If an animal present to your clinic and is dx with a ruptured intervertebral disc, what tx would be considered acceptable?

A

Corticosteroids

Dorsal laminectomy

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33
Q

T/F: The Olfactory nerve (I) sends information to the neocortex of the brain involving memory.

A

True

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34
Q

T/F: The surgical treatment for a ruptured or herniated disk would be a dorsal laminectomy procedure.

A

True

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35
Q

T/F: If a patient is diagnosed as having a cerebral concussion, one potential drug of choice for the tx would be hydrocotisone.

A

True

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36
Q

Which cranial nerve has deglutition as it’s motor function?

A

Glossopharyngeal

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37
Q

Ingestion of high fat meats (uncooked) resulting in an increase in temperature and a painful abdomen will most likely result in which condition?

A

Acute panreatitis

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38
Q

Intussusception

A

A telescoping of the intestines

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39
Q

The digestive system of herbivores…

A

Contains an enlarged microbial fermentation vat

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40
Q

Abomasum

A

The true stomach of the ruminant

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41
Q

Reticulum

A

The ruminant forestomach that dehydrates and grinds feed

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42
Q

The process or structure in a newborn ruminant animal that allows milk to bypass the rumen and reticulum and go directly to the omasum

A

Esophageal groove

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43
Q

Villi are prominent in the lining of what structure?

A

Small intestine

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44
Q

Mastication

A

Chewing food

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45
Q

In which animal is microbial fermentation most important in the digestive process?

A

Horse

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46
Q

Eructation

A

The periodic elimination of excess gas from the ruminant forestomach

47
Q

Which cranial nerve mediates the sense of small?

A

Olfactory

48
Q

What nerve (one of the longest in the body) supplies parasympathetic nerve fibers to the heart and lungs and to nearly all of the abdominal viscera?

A

Vagus

49
Q

What is not a normal function of the liver in an adult animal?

A

Blood cell formation

50
Q

What is not secreted by gastric glands

A

Chyme

51
Q

Serosa

A

The outermost layer of the digestive tube

52
Q

Cecum

A

The blind-ended sac that is part of the large intestine

53
Q

The crown of the tooth is covered by (blank)

A

Enamel

54
Q

What is not a main function of the digestive system?

A

Secretion

55
Q

What structure divides the rostral part of the pharynx into the oropharynx and nasopharynx?

A

Soft palate

56
Q

The connecting peritoneum that suspends the intestinal tract from the abdominal wall and contains vessels, nerves, and lymphatics that supply their respective organs.

A

Mesentery

57
Q

What organ is located immediately behind the diaphragm in the carnivore?

A

Liver

58
Q

List the sections of the small intestine in order from anterior to posterior

A

Duodenum, jejunum, ileum

59
Q

The liver receives blood via what two different routes?

A

Hepatic artery and the portal veins

60
Q

The two gastric sphincters of the canine

A

Cardiac and pyloric

61
Q

Pylorus

A

The most distal portion of the monogastric stomach

62
Q

Normal dentition patter for an adult cat

A

I 3/3, C1/1, PM 3/2, M 1/1

63
Q

Yellow mucus membranes would suggest what?

A

Hepatic disease

64
Q

Diseased caused by a lack of insulin or the body’s inability to use insulin

A

Diabetes mellitus

65
Q

Bile acids are importnant in the digestion of (blank)

A

Fats

66
Q

A dog presents to your clinic with a tight, painful abdomen. They are diagnosed as having GDV. After getting the vital signs and collecting blood, what 3 things must you do in the first 15 minutes to stabilize the patient before taking the patient to surgery?

A

Radiographs
Trocharize
Pain medications

67
Q

Digestive order as the food travels through the ascending colon of the equine from the cecum to the transverse colon

A 
Colon
Right Ventral Colon
Sternal Flexure
Left Ventral Colon
Pelvic Flexure
Left Dorsal Colon
Diaphragmatic Flexure
Right Dorsal Colon
Transverse Colon
68
Q

4 pairs of salivary glands

A

Parotid
Sublingual
Mendibular
Zygomatic

69
Q

T/F: The omentum is the 3rd part of the ruminant forestomach and assists in transporting food to the abomasum

A

False

70
Q

T/F: Tooth #204 in the modified tridan numbering system is also known as the right lower canine

A

True

71
Q

T/F: The upper 1/3 of the esophagus is lined with skeletal muscle

A

True

72
Q

T/F: The Kupffer cells are responsible for the breakdown of old RBC’s in the liver

A

True

73
Q

T/F: One of the main proteins produced by the liver is albumin which functions in the production of antibodies

A

False

74
Q

Increased CO2 —> Increased H2CO3 —> (blank) pH —> (blank) K+ —> (blank) HR —> respiratory (blank)

A

Decreased, increased, increased, acidosis

75
Q

The common passageway for the respiratory and digestive systems is the (blank)

A

Pharynx

76
Q

The epithelium lining the upper respiratory tract is (blank)

A

Pseudostratified columnar

77
Q

Compared with blood entering the alveolar capillaries, air drawn into the alveoli of the lungs has (blank)

A

Lower pCO2 and higher pO2

78
Q

When the diaphragm contracts

A

It increases the size of the thoracic cavity

79
Q

The epithelium lining the alveoli is (blank)

A

Simple squamous

80
Q

The transfer of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the air and blood in the lungs is accomplished by (blank)

A

Diffusion

81
Q

What is not a function of the respiratory system?

A

Mastication

82
Q

The foramen ovale in the developing fetus allows blood to flow …

A

From the right atrium to the left atrium

83
Q

What are the effects of parasympathetic nervous system stimulation on the heart?

A

Decreased rate and decreased force of contraction

84
Q

The first cardiac chamber that blood enters after returning from the lungs is (blank)

A

Left atrium

85
Q

Blood that has returned to the heart through the cranial and caudal vena cavae first passes through what heart valve?

A

Tricuspid

86
Q

The ductus arteriosus in the fetus joins the (blank) and (blank)

A

Aorta and pulmonary artery

87
Q

Each cardiac cycle in a normal heart results from an impulse that is initiated in the (blank)

A

Sinoatrial node

88
Q

The bundle of His is located in what part of the heart?

A

Interventricular septum

89
Q

The circulatory system is lined by what kind of epithelium?

A

Simple squamous

90
Q

Blood vessels that are the site of the transfer of nutrients between blood and tissues are the (blank)

A

Capillaries

91
Q

The valve that prevents blood from flowing back into the left atrium during ventricular systole is the (blank)

A

Mitral

92
Q

The normal heart ECG, the QRS complex corresponds to what portion of the cardiac cycle?

A

Ventricular systole

93
Q

What artery carries deoxygenated blood?

A

Pulmonary

94
Q

Normal values for the following arterial blood pressure values:
Systolic
Diastolic
Mean

A

Systolic: 100-160 mmHg
Diastolic: 60-100 mmHg
Mean: 80-120 mmHg

95
Q

Cardiac Output = (blank) X (blank)

A

HR X Stroke Volume

96
Q

Trace a RBC through the heart from the Vena Cava to re-entering the systemic circulation to the body

A 
Cranial/Caudal Vena Cava
Right Atrium
Tricuspid Valve
Right Ventricle
Pulmonic Valve
Pulmonary Artery
Lungs
Pulmonary Veins
Left Atrium
Bicuspid Valve
Left Ventricle
Aortic Valve
Aorta
97
Q

Respiratory structures in the order through which air passes during exhalation

A

Bronchi, trachea, larynx, pharynx, nassal passages

98
Q

Where is the diaphragm located?

A

Between the thorax and the abdomen

99
Q

What structure is the pacemaker of the heart?

A

Sinoatrial node

100
Q

The function of the red blood cell is to …

A

Carry oxygen to the tissues

101
Q

Foramen ovale

A

A hole between the cardiac atria that closes at birth in the mammal

102
Q

Systole

A

Contraction of the atria and ventricles

103
Q

Apnea will cause

A

Respiratory acidosis

104
Q

In the healthy, awake cat the primary stimulus in the blood for respiration is …

A

Increased CO2

105
Q

The wave on an electrocardiogram that is associated with the atrial wall depolarization is the …

A

P wave

106
Q

In what order does the impulse for depolarization travel throughout the heart?

A

SA nose, AV node, bundle of His, Purkinjie fibers

107
Q

A common site to take a pulse in an equine patient is the …

A

Transverse facial artery

108
Q

What artery could be used to help diagnose laminitis in a horse?

A

Digital arteries

109
Q

T/F: A build up of fluid in the pericardial sac is known as pleural effusion

A

False

110
Q

T/F: A patent ductus arteriosus surgery is considered to be an open heart surgery

A

False

111
Q

(blank) is an example of a catecholamine neurotransmitter and (blank) is an example of a parasympathetic chemical

A

Epinephrine, Acetylcholine

112
Q

The two ions that are actively pumped into and out of cells that result in the polarization of the cells are …

A

Sodium and potassium

113
Q

What nuclei is not a part of the brainstem?

A

Body temperature regulation center

114
Q

What organ is located immediately behind the diaphragm in the carnivore?

A

Liver

Anatomy and Physiology II - BelRea (2 decks)

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