Final study guide Flashcards

1
Q

What are DRIs? What references do DRIs include?

A

DRIs are new references for planning and assessing nutrient intakes, developed by scientific review committees. They include the EAR, RDA, AI, and UL.

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2
Q

What is the EAR? How is it determined? What is its purpose?

A

The Estimated Average Requirement (EAR) is the usual intake level that is estimated to meet the requirement of half (50%) of the healthy individuals in a life stage and gender group. The EAR is a suitable method for determining adequate intakes within groups. EARs are determined from a specific criterion of adequacy and are the foundation for setting the RDA.

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3
Q

What is the RDA? How is it determined? What is its purpose?

A

The Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) is determined from the addition of two standard deviations to the EAR, representing the intake level that is estimated to meet the requirement of 97.5% of the healthy individuals in a life stage and gender group. RDAs are intended to be met through average daily intake over a period of days (intakes are averaged). They are developed to prevent the occurrence of chronic diseases, maintain good health, and avoid deficiency. The RDA is a suitable method for determining adequate intake for an individual and is considered a REQUIREMENT.

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4
Q

What is the AI? How is it determined? What is its purpose?

A

The Adequate Intake (AI) is used instead of an RDA when an EAR cannot be calculated due to insufficient information and lack of evidence. Both the RDA and AI may be used as goals for individual intake. The AI is based on the observed nutrient intake by a group of healthy people that are assumed to be adequate. The AI is an INTAKE (NOT a requirement) likely to exceed the actual (but unknown) requirements of almost all healthy individuals.

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5
Q

What is the UL? How is it determined? What is its purpose?

A

The Tolerable Upper Intake Level (UL) is the highest average daily nutrient intake level likely to pose no risk of adverse health effects for almost all individuals in the general population. The UL is NOT intended to be a recommended intake, as there are no established benefits of intake above the RDA or AI. The UL refers to total intake from food, fortified food, nutritional supplements, and water intake (i.e. hard water). For certain nutrients, the UL solely refers to intake from supplements.

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6
Q

What is the overall structure of the standing committee for the DRIs?

A

The Standing Committee on the Scientific Evaluation of Dietary Reference Intakes oversees and coordinates the recommendations from the nutrient panels and the two subcommittees. The Nutrient Expert Panels develop a series of DRI reports, in conjunction with the two subcommittees. A total of 7 reports from 7 individual subcommittees are submitted, dealing with 7 areas of nutrient requirements. The Upper Reference Level Subcommittee derives the tolerable upper intake levels for all nutrients, while the DRIs Subcommittee helps the population interpret and apply the information they receive.

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7
Q

What are the factors taken into consideration to establish the DRIs?

A

DRIs focus on chronic disease prevention, but this has been taken further by incorporating:
Looking at the RDA values for micronutrients, as research has suggested their importance in the development of chronic diseases;
Recommendations are set for deficiency, disease prevention, and chronic disease prevention;
A UL is established due to the common use of food and nutritional supplements;
Non-essential food components, such as phytochemicals, are being considered for chronic disease prevention

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8
Q

What are conceptual similarities between DRIs and the former RDAs and RNIs?

A

They must account for:
Individual variability in a population (i.e. coefficient of variability of the population);
If the population’s requirement is highly variable, producing a flatter curve with a high standard deviation, the RDA would be much higher than the EAR.
Bioavailability;
Sex and age differences;
Physiological state (e.g. pregnancy and lactation).

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9
Q

What are conceptual differences between DRIs and the former RDAs and RNIs?

A

When possible, the reduction in the risk of chronic degenerative disease is included in the formulation of the RDA.
Concepts of probability and risk explicitly underpin the determination of the DRIs, and applications.
Upper levels of intake are established.
Food components that may not meet the traditional concept of a nutrient are considered.

The main criticism of the former RDAs and RNIs were that the indices of nutritional adequacies that were used were based on insufficient information, as there were no metabolic studies to estimate their recommendations. The mean intakes of the healthy population, lacking signs of deficiencies, were used as the standard for nutrient adequacies and recommendations, which may not reflect the actual requirement or a person or a group of people.

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10
Q

What are the four criteria of adequacy?

A

Biomarkers of exposure
Blood levels, balance studies, pool saturation (e.g. hemoglobin saturation)
Biomarkers of mechanisms or functional outcome
Enzyme saturation or enzyme activity (e.g. transketolase activity)
Biomarkers of effect
Analysis of the efficacy outcome, which indicates if there is an increased risk for a clinical outcome (e.g. bone mineral density, LDL levels)
Biomarkers of a clinical outcome
Symptomatic state (e.g. osteoporosis, dental caries)

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11
Q

What differentiates the current RDA from former RDAs and RNIs?

A

The RDA is determined QUANTITATIVELY through the EAR (by adding two standard deviations), rather than through a judgment-based safety factor, which differentiates it from the former RDAs and RNIs.

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12
Q

How does the determination of energy requirements differ from other nutrients? Why?

A

Energy requirements are estimated on an INDIVIDUAL basis using sex, age, height, weight, and the physical activity level to estimate total energy expenditure. RDAs are not used for energy, as setting higher intakes increases the risk of overconsumption of energy, and consequently, obesity.

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13
Q

What can you conclude if the intake is below the AI? What can you conclude if the AI is above the AI?

A

If the intake is below the AI, there is no quantitative (or qualitative) estimate that can be made of the probability of nutrient adequacy, as the point where risk increases cannot be determined; conclusions cannot be made concerning whether the intake is adequate.
If the intake is above the AI, then the diet is almost certainly adequate (low prevalence of inadequate intake). However, the proportion of deficient individuals consuming above the AI in a group cannot be determined.

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14
Q

How is the RDA determined from the EAR?

A

The EAR represents the intake to meet half the requirement of half of the population (50%). If the standard deviation of the EAR is available (normal distribution curve), the RDA is calculated as the EAR + 2 SDEAR, allowing 97.5% of the population to reach their requirement. If the SD of the EAR is not available, the coefficient of variation is assumed to be 10%, and the RDA is calculated as the EAR x 1.2. If there is insufficient evidence to support an EAR (and, thus, an RDA), then the AI is used instead.

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15
Q

What are dietary guidelines? How do dietary guidelines differ from RDAs?

A

Dietary guidelines refer to optimal proportions of energy-yielding macronutrients and are a consequence of RDAs. They do not usually describe nutrients, but food components or food groups (i.e. cereals and grains) by providing semi-quantitative advice on consumption (e.g. percentages of total energy). Dietary guidelines serve as an educational device. Dietary guidelines target the intake of every man, women, and child, as opposed to RDAs, which separates numbers for males and females of different age categories. Dietary guidelines primarily examine macronutrients, relying more on epidemiological and food consumption data than the RDA does.

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16
Q

What was the focus on Canada’s Food Guide’s previous revision?

A

Nutrient targets
Energy levels
Food groups
Serving sizes

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17
Q

What is the recommendation for dietary fat intake? What are the issues with planning intake recommendations for fat within a group setting?

A

Essential fatty acids are required nutrients (possessing an AI), while fat is not. Currently, the recommendation of dietary fat intake is within the range of the AMDR (20 to 35% of energy intake, with a midpoint of around 30%). If the group mean is at 30% of fat intake, then a substantial PROPORTION of the group is consuming a higher intake of fat than required, increasing their risks of chronic disease. However, if the population intake was below 30%, then a substantial PROPORTION of the population would be at risk for essential fatty acid deficiency. A low-fat diet also implies shifts in the types of foods consumed (little animal protein), which may decrease consumption and bioavailability of iron, zinc, and calcium, as well as decrease the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins.

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18
Q

Describe the major events of the reproductive timeline, and the risks of adverse outcomes associated with them.

A

Pre-Implantation (1 week)
Exposure to toxins may lead to no effect, slight decrease in growth, or lethality, as the fate of the cells has not yet been determined, providing them with great restorative capacity. There is a LOW susceptibility to teratogens.
Gastrulation (2-3 weeks)
Gastrulation is characterized by cell migration through the primitive streak, giving rise to the three germ layers. Gastrulation is VERY susceptible to teratogens, as the neural tube must close during gastrulation (by day 27-28), or else neural tube defects (NTDs) occur.
Organogenesis (3 to 8 weeks)
The organogenic period is a period of maximal cell division and differentiation, giving rise to the major organs (weeks 3 to 8). Organogenesis is VERY susceptible to teratogens, and there are periods of maximum susceptibility associated with each structure.
Fetal and Neonatal (8 weeks to Birth)
Tissue differentiation, growth, and physical maturation of the fetus occur. There is little differentiation of organs (apart from external genitalia), and, thus, toxic exposure impacts growth and functional maturation, rather than morphological defects.

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19
Q

Describe 4 reasons that explain why the developing fetus is more susceptible to alcohol than the mother.

A

The half-life of alcohol is increased (clearance of alcohol is decreased) in the fetus due to the decreased alcohol-metabolizing ability of the fetus, given its organ immaturity.
The nervous system is more susceptible to alcohol toxicity since it is undergoing rapid development.
Increased alcohol dose on a body-weight basis in the fetus, relative to the mother.
The fetus has depressed antioxidant capacity to detoxify free radicals induced by alcohol metabolism.

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20
Q

Describe the pathways of homocysteine metabolism, including the nutrients involved in the mechanisms.

A

Methionine is converted to SAM by methionine adenosyl transferase. The additional methyl group of SAM may be transferred to a substrate (DNA, RNA, protein), which may alter cellular function.
The transfer of a methyl group to a substrate converts SAM to SAH, which is then hydrolyzed to homocysteine.
Homocysteine is metabolized via two pathways:
Homocysteine is metabolized to regenerate methionine, utilizing methionine synthase, vitamin B12, and folate.
Homocysteine is converted to cysteine via a transsulfuration pathway, utilizing cystathionase and vitamin B6.

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21
Q

How may impairment in folate metabolism lead to neural tube defects?

A

Mothers with NTD infants have lower plasma folate and elevated homocysteine levels, indicating defects in the folate-dependent homocysteine pathway.

A deficiency in folate results in the inability of methionine synthase to convert homocysteine to methionine. The conversion of homocysteine to methionine requires a methyl group, donated by 5-methylene-tetrahydrofolate.
The inability to regenerate methionine from homocysteine leads to an accumulation of homocysteine, and a secondary accumulation in SAH.
A SAH accumulation leads to the inhibition of DNA methyltransferase reactions, DNA hypo-methylation, and altered gene expression. Limiting gene expression during fetal development may cause issues.
Oxidative stress, resulting from defects in the homocysteine pathway, may also affect development by damaging mitochondrial and nuclear DNA, protein structure and function, membrane lipids, and signal transduction pathways.

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22
Q

How would deficiencies or excesses in nutrients involved in homocysteine metabolism, apart from folate, cause impairments in folate metabolism?

A

A high intake of vitamin A suppresses 5-methylene tetrahydrofolate reductase, which is linked to the formation of NTDs, as there is a decreased capacity of re-generating methionine from homocysteine.
There is a decrease in the functional activity of methionine synthase by limiting the availability of vitamin B12 and by decreasing folate stores.
There is a decrease in the conversion of homocysteine to cysteine via the transsulfuration pathway and cystathionase, if there is a deficiency in vitamin B6.

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23
Q

What are the major roles of the placenta?

A
  1. Metabolism
    The placenta synthesizes compounds used by the fetus, such as glycogen, lactate, and cholesterol.
  2. Transport
    The placental membrane acts as a barrier, preventing the passage of large compounds.
    The placenta is highly permeable to a variety of substances, and thus offers limited protection against xenobiotics.
  3. Endocrine
    The placenta secretes hCG after implantation, allowing for the maintenance of the corpus luteum, which secretes estrogen and progesterone.
    Placental lactogen is produced by the placenta in late gestation, and influences carbohydrate and fat metabolism.
    At the 10th week of gestation, the placenta takes over the production of progesterone from the corpus luteum. Progesterone inhibits the secretion of LH and FSH (prevents ovulation), supports the endometrium, and suppresses contractility of uterine smooth muscle.
    The placenta secretes estrogen maximally towards the end of gestation, which antagonizes myometrial-suppression by progesterone, eventually allowing parturition to take place.
  4. Hormone catabolism
    Glucocorticoids, insulin, and thyroxin access to fetal tissues are largely controlled by the placenta.
  5. Protection against xenobiotics
  6. Nutrient storage
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24
Q

Differentiate sources of obligatory and non-obligatory weight gain occurring during pregnancy.

A

Fetal obligatory weight gain is characterized by the growing presence of the fetus, placenta, and amniotic fluid.
Maternal obligatory weight gain is characterized by the enlarged uterine and breast tissue, as well as the expanded blood volume.
Non-obligatory weight gain is characterized by a gain in adipose tissue, protein stores, and extracellular fluid.

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25
Q

What are the effects of maternal malnutrition on fetal growth retardation? What is the role of the placenta in assuring the proper growth of the fetus? Provide various examples as to how maternal malnutrition influences the placenta, and the fetus.

A

The fetal size is proportional to the placental size, as a superior circulation exists in a larger placenta, allowing for the optimal development of the fetus.
The placenta is responsible for carrying nutrients from the maternal circulatory system to the fetal circulatory system, assuring its growth. IUGR infants have microscopically less branching of the villi.
Maternal malnutrition (e.g. iron deficiency) may lead to a reduced blood volume expansion, which decreases cardiac output and placental blood flow, resulting in a decreased placental size, reduced nutrient transfer, and subsequently, fetal growth retardation.
Sodium, water, and protein are also vital to maintain an adequate blood volume during pregnancy.

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26
Q

Differentiate proportionate and disproportionate IUGR.

A

In proportionate IUGR, the length, weight, and head circumference of infants are proportional, occurring within the similar percentile (or, the head is small as compared to the body – microcephaly). Proportional IUGR is due to extreme fetal malnutrition, or decreased growth potential due to a congenital infection, genetic disorder, or environmental toxins.
In disproportionate IUGR, the weight is disproportionately small as compared to the length and head circumference. Disproportionate IUGR is due to uteroplacental insufficiency or maternal malnutrition.

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27
Q

Describe the physiological changes that occur during pregnancy, relating their impact on nutrient requirements.

kidney

A

An increase in GFR and decrease in tubular reabsorption capacity occurs, leading to an increased blood volume, to facilitate the increased excretion of fetal waste products.
This leads to an increase in renal losses of glucose, folate, iodine, and amino acids.

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28
Q

Describe the physiological changes that occur during pregnancy, relating their impact on nutrient requirements. - stomach

A

There is a depression of function due to a decreased secretion of pepsin and histamine, leading to an increased risk of heartburn due to the relaxation of the cardiac sphincter, causing a higher risk of regurgitation.

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29
Q

Describe the physiological changes that occur during pregnancy, relating their impact on nutrient requirements.- GI

A

There is a decrease in motility, mainly to slow down transit time, leading to an increased efficiency of absorption of certain nutrients, including vitamin B12, calcium, and iron.
However, the decrease in motility increases the risk of constipation, if it is combined with a lack of sufficient fluid intake.

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30
Q

Describe the physiological changes that occur during pregnancy, relating their impact on nutrient requirements.- heart

A

There is cardiac hypertrophy, which increases cardiac output to allow a larger blood volume to circulate, improving blood flow to the placenta and fetus.

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31
Q

Describe the physiological changes that occur during pregnancy, relating their impact on nutrient requirements.- lungs

A

There is increased ventilation to accommodate for increased oxygen demands by the fetus, placenta, and maternal tissues.
During pregnancy, BMR increases by 15 to 20% due to the increase in oxygen consumption. A week after the baby is born, the BMR returns to normal.

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32
Q

Describe the physiological changes that occur during pregnancy, relating their impact on nutrient requirements- altered plasma lipid profiles

A

Increased levels of plasma lipids (triacylglycerols, cholesterol), as the maternal system is preferentially using lipids to conserve glucose for the fetus.

33
Q

Describe the physiological changes that occur during pregnancy, relating their impact on nutrient requirements- altered plasma glucose profiles

A

In the third trimester, the fetus’ glucose demands are increased tremendously, which causes the maternal blood glucose levels to fall. However, the maternal tissues increase lipolysis and ketosis to compensate for the decrease in glucose.

34
Q

Describe the physiological changes that occur during pregnancy, relating their impact on nutrient requirements-Impaired hepatic gluconeogenesis

A

There is impaired hepatic gluconeogenesis due to a decreased availability of alanine.
The decreased availability of alanine is due to a decrease in muscle breakdown and an increase in placental uptake of alanine.

35
Q

Differentiate the anabolic and the catabolic phase of pregnancy. What occurs, and why?

A
Anabolic Phase (first half of pregnancy):
Enhanced insulin sensitivity after a meal that induces increased adipose tissue lipid synthesis and inhibition of lipolysis, which accounts for increased fat deposition. With this metabolic adaptation, the mother ensures that circulating glucose is actively taken up by adipose tissue and converted into triglycerides. In this way, the mother develops a net fat deposit in the first part of gestation to support the normal development of the fetus at late pregnancy.
Excess fat is converted into triglycerides for storage. 
There is an increase in maternal protein synthesis, particularly in the RBCs and the placenta.

Catabolic Phase (second half of pregnancy):
Fat is mobilized to conserve glucose for the fetus (preferred source of energy for the fetus), which results in an increase in ketones and blood cholesterol.
The action of insulin is blunted after meals by estrogen, progesterone, and placental lactogen, resulting in the catabolism of maternal fat, glycogen, and protein. A greater quantity of glucose is taken up by the placenta for fetal usage.
The maternal system is preferentially using lipids to conserve glucose for the fetus.

36
Q

How do EFAs contribute to fetal and placental function, growth, and development? What are the risks of disturbed essential fatty acid status during pregnancy?

A

EFAs are key for the function, growth, and development of both the placenta and fetus.
In the placenta, they contribute to integrity and optimal blood flow due to their effects on maintaining membrane stability and eicosanoid production, which is important for optimal blood flow and other placental functions.
Prostaglandins also play a role as growth promoters via stimulating cell division.
Long-chain EFAs are also important in fetal brain development.

37
Q

Which nutrients may be transferred from the mother to the fetus? Which nutrients are synthesized by the placenta?

A

Oxygen, carbon dioxide and fatty acids are transferred from the mother to the fetus via passive diffusion, while glucose is transferred via carrier-mediated transport.
Glycogen, lactate, and cholesterol are synthesized by the placenta for fetal use.

38
Q

Differentiate a small for gestational age infant, an IUGR infant, and a low-birth weight infant.

A

Low-birth weight infants have a birth weight below 2500 grams, which may be due to prematurity or because they are small for gestational age.
An IUGR infant has a rate of fetal growth that is less than normal for the growth potential of a specific infant as per race and gender. The estimated fetal weight is below the 10th percentile.
An SGA infant has a birth weight below the 10th percentile for that particular gestational age according to population growth charts.
SGA refers to birth WITHOUT consideration of in-utero growth.
The likely cause of SGA is IUGR, but an infant may be SGA without being IUGR. For example, a fetus can be constitutionally small, but not pathologically growth restricted.

39
Q

What are the three abnormal patterns of fetal growth that are linked to adult diseases. Which adult diseases are they linked to?

A

Symmetrical small babies of low-birth weight
Babies are thin at birth, but undergo catch-up later in infancy
Average birth weight but are abnormally small in proportion to their placental weight.

These abnormal patterns of fetal growth are linked to hypertension, type II diabetes, and cardiovascular diseases.

40
Q

Define the EER.

A

The Estimated Energy Requirement is the average dietary energy intake that will maintain energy balance in a healthy person of a given gender, age, weight, height, and physical activity level, consistent with good health.

41
Q

Define BMR

A

The Basal Metabolic Rate is the minimal rate of energy expenditure compatible with life, which is measured under standard conditions of rest, fasting, and immobility.

42
Q

Define TEE

A

The Total Energy Expenditure is the energy spent, on average, in a 24-hour period by an individual or a group of individuals. TEE = BMR x PAL.

43
Q

Define PAL

A

The Physical Activity Level is the ratio of TEE/BMR.

44
Q

Why is the Physical Activity Coefficient (PA) used in the EER equations, and not the Physical Activity Level (PAL)?

A

Depending on how much an individual’s physical activity varies from day to day, it can be very low or high, but it usually accounts for approximately 20% to 30% of energy expended. To account for this variability, the EER equations include a physical activity coefficient (PA). This coefficient considers the impact of the duration and intensity of the physical activity performed and the efficiency of performance.

45
Q

Why is the omega-6 to omega-3 ratio important?

A

Omega-6 and omega-3 fatty acids are precursors to synthesize longer chain amino acids, competing for the same desaturase enzymes used in the elongation and desaturation of these fatty acids.
An excess of linoleic acid exhausts the desaturase enzymes to the detriment of a-linolenic acid, resulting in a greater production of arachidonic acid than DHA, resulting in pro-inflammatory effects, as opposed to anti-inflammatory effects of DHA and EPA.

46
Q

What two factors explain the increased RDA for magnesium in older subjects (above 30 years old)?

A

The consumption of high-fiber diets increases with aging. Magnesium is poorly absorbed from foods that are high in fiber and phytic acid.
Renal function is critical in the maintenance of magnesium status, and renal function declines with age.

47
Q

What is the coefficient of variation of niacin? What may be the cause for this higher number?

A

The coefficient of variation is 15%. The coefficient of variation used to calculate the RDA from the EAR of niacin is higher than most other nutrients, which may be due to the individual variability in terms of the conversion efficacy of tryptophan to niacin.

48
Q

What are the equivalences of the food folate, folic acid, and supplements of folate taken on an empty stomach?

A

1 μg of DFE is equal to:
1 μg of food folate
0.6 μg of folic acid (fortified food or supplement with meals)
0.5 μg of supplement taken on an empty stomach

49
Q

What are the equivalencies of dietary provitamin A carotenoids?

A

1 μg of RAE, or 1 μg of retinol, is equal to the following quantities of dietary provitamin A carotenoids:
β-carotene RAE: 12 μg
α-carotene RAE: 24 μg
β-cryptoxanthin RAE: 24 μg

50
Q

How is the requirement for choline associated with lipid metabolism?

A

A deficiency in choline inhibits phosphatidylcholine synthesis, required for the assembly and transportation of VLDLs from the liver, causing lipids to accumulate within the liver, leading to non-alcoholic fatty liver disease.
The primary criterion used to estimate the AI of choline is the prevention of liver damage, as assessed by serum alanine aminotransferase levels.
Phosphatidylcholine (lecithin) is a component of LCAT, which plays a role in cholesterol metabolism by converting cholesterol into inactive cholesteryl esters.

51
Q

Name three reasons that cause an increase in metabolic rate during pregnancy.

A

The establishment of the placental-fetal unit
An increased maternal storage of fat EARLY in pregnancy
Energy to sustain the growth of the fetus during the last trimester

52
Q

What are the three carbohydrate adaptations that occur during pregnancy?

A

Decrease in fasting maternal blood glucose
Development of insulin resistance
Tendency to develop ketosis

53
Q

What are the three hormones that contribute to insulin resistance during pregnancy?

A

Placental lactogen, estrogen and progesterone

54
Q

What are the components used in the factorial method to determine iron requirement during pregnancy?

A
  • Basal iron losses
  • Iron deposited in the fetus and related tissues
  • Iron from the expansion of hemoglobin mass
55
Q

Name 4 effects associated with maternal iron deficiency anemia. What effect is related to high hemoglobin?

A
Maternal anemia is associated with perinatal maternal mortality, premature delivery, and low-birth weight infants.
Iron deficiency (1) limits the expansion of maternal RBC mass, and (2) decreases hemoglobin synthesis, which increases the workload of the maternal heart to supply the fetus with oxygen.
High hemoglobin may reflect a decreased plasma volume associated with maternal hypertension and pre-eclampsia.
56
Q

Name 3 factors that may affect biotin requirement.

A

The consumption of raw egg (avidin) increases biotin requirement.
A biotinidase deficiency decreases the function of the enzyme, which separates biotin from proteins and enzymes within food components, and, thus, increases biotin requirement.
Anticonvulsants induce biotin catabolism, increasing biotin requirement.

57
Q

What are the roles and effects of a high-choline diet during pregnancy? Name 3 roles and effects.

A

There is an increase in fetal demand for phosphatidylcholine during pregnancy.
An increase in maternal choline intake during the last trimester.
A decrease in the baby’s circulating cortisol by altering the methylation state and the expression pattern of genes that regulate cortisol production in the placenta.

58
Q

How may a deficiency in vitamin B12 or folate affect choline metabolism?

A

If there is a deficiency in vitamin B12 or folate, the system utilizes betaine (product of choline) to detoxify homocysteine to methionine.
Thus, a sub-optimal level of vitamin B12 and folate may negatively influence choline levels.

59
Q

How does the UL for vitamin A differ between non-pregnant, and pregnant women?

A

In non-pregnant women, the UL is based on liver abnormalities.
In pregnant women, the UL is based on teratogenicity.

60
Q

Name 3 conditions that may result in lower milk production.

A

An improper support system (i.e. unsupportive family of the mother’s decision to nurse) due to psychological inhibitions that decrease the flow of milk.
Certain conditions (e.g. PCOS) may result in a lower milk production.
Low-birth weight infants, or neurologically impaired infants, may not be able to suckle properly on the breast.

61
Q

Name 5 reasons why breastfeeding is nutritionally superior to formula or cow’s milk.

A

Non-protein nitrogen is contained in higher quantities in human breast milk and may be advantageous in terms of digestibility.
The whey-to-protein ratio is higher in breast milk (60:40) than in cow’s milk (40:60), allowing a soft curd to form in the stomach to promote absorption. Whey also contains a higher proportion of nucleotides, better balance of amino acids, and a decreased risk of causing allergic reactions.
Breast milk contains a high quantity of taurine, which is necessary as it acts as a putative neurotransmitter, is required for bile acid conjugation, and is a conditionally essential amino acid in the newborn.
Human milk contains a higher proportion of palmitate at the second position, forming a monoacylglycerol, as opposed to cow’s milk that contains a greater quantity of free palmitic acid. Free saturated fatty acids form non-soluble calcium soaps, decreasing their absorption. Monoacylglycerols are better absorbed.
The calcium to phosphorus ratio is higher in breast milk than cow’s milk. A greater quantity of phosphorus in cow’s milk increases calcium excretion within the GI.

62
Q

Why isn’t soy milk appropriate for infants?

A

If there is a cow’s milk allergy, there is a high chance that the infant may be allergic to soy milk.
Soy protein is associated with a lower bioavailability of minerals (zinc, calcium, iron), as phytic acid complexes with these minerals, which prevents their absorption.

63
Q

Name 5 reasons why breastfeeding is immunologically superior to formula or cow’s milk.

A

Most immune factors are not found in infant formula, and lower concentrations are found in cow’s milk.
B-lactoglobulin is responsible for most of the antigenicity of cow’s milk, and it is NOT contained in human milk. In fact, human milk may lower the risk of developing food allergies.
IgA is contained in abundant quantities in human breast milk (not in cow’s milk) and is protective against many pathogens.
IgG is contained in low quantities in human breast milk (high in cow’s milk) and is closely associated with the onset of infant colic.
The bifidus factor is a nitrogen-containing carbohydrate found in breast milk that promotes the growth of lactobacilli, which decreases the risk of diarrheal diseases by antagonizing enterobacteria.
Lactoferrin is contained within human breast milk (not in cow’s milk) and is a whey protein that inhibits siderophilic bacteria.

64
Q

What are the three sources of milk components?

A

Transferred from the maternal plasma
Synthesized from the maternal secretory (alveolar) cells form maternal plasma precursors
Synthesized from other mammary cells in situ

65
Q

What are the three phases of milk production? How does the composition of the milk differ between the phases?

A

Colostrum (5 to 7 days)
- Colostrum is high in protein and mineral (sodium, potassium, chloride) content
- Colostrum is lower in energy, fat, and lactose content
Transitional Milk (7 days to 3-4 weeks)
- The quantity of protein decreases.
- The quantity of lactose and fat increases.
Mature Milk
- Mature milk changes according to the changing infant’s needs (i.e. the time of day, age of the child).

66
Q

Differentiate foremilk and hindmilk in terms of their major role and composition.

A

Foremilk is released early in the morning and contains more water and lactose due to the increased hydration needs of the child.
Hindmilk is released afterwards and is higher in fat and calories. Hindmilk is preferred as it provides a greater quantity of fat to aid in brain development.

67
Q

Name 3 immunological properties of human breast milk.

A

Direct action against pathogens (antibodies, macrophages, neutrophils)
Modulate the immune response
Promote the growth and maturation of the GI tract

68
Q

How are whey proteins structurally different than caseins? How does that affect their digestion within the GI tract? Is whey or casein contained in greater quantity in breastmilk? What is the effect?

A

Whey proteins are resistant against proteolysis and acid denaturation because they contain anti-proteases, protecting their disulfide bonds, which allows them to bypass the stomach without being completely digested.
The whey-to-casein ratio is 60:40 in humans, and 40:60 in cow’s milk.
A greater quantity of whey forms a soft curd in the stomach, increasing their absorption within the underdeveloped infant GI tract.
Whey also contains a higher proportion of nucleotides, a better balance of essential amino acids, and a decreased risk of allergic reactions.

69
Q

What is the function of IgA as an anti-infectious agent in human breast milk?

A

IgA arises from B-cells of the maternal small intestine and respiratory tract.
- It is protective against many pathogens, as these B-cells originate from maternal sites where there is a high exposure to pathogens.
IgA within the GI tract is resistant to proteolysis, acting on the mucosal surfaces of the GI tract.

70
Q

What is the function of the bifidus factor as an anti-infectious agent in human breast milk?

A

The bifidus factor is a nitrogen-containing carbohydrate, which promotes the growth of lactobacilli, an important probiotic bacterium that may antagonize the survival of the enterobacteria.
Lactobacilli decrease the risk of diarrheal diseases in childhood.

71
Q

What is the function of lactoferrin as an anti-infectious agent in human breast milk?

A

Lactoferrin, a whey protein, is produced by milk lymphocytes and inhibits siderophilic bacteria, which are bacteria that require iron for survival.
The iron present in the environment of the GI tract are taken up by apo-lactoferrin to protect bacterial growth. Apo-lactoferrin forms 80% of the lactoferrin found in breast milk.
Holo-lactoferrin, containing iron, provides iron to the infant.

72
Q

Name 3 examples of growth factors that are present in breast milk.

A

Cortisol, thyroxine, and insulin stimulate the synthesis of intestinal enzymes and the maturation of the gut mucosa.
Prostaglandins stimulate mucus secretion and cell division, which is important as the mucosal barrier of the infant is extremely immature.
Polyamines (e.g. spermine and spermidine) are growth factors that increase cell replication.

73
Q

Provide 3 examples of how whey proteins supply minerals.

A

Lactalbumin binds calcium and zinc.
Xanthine oxidase supplies iron and molybdenum.
Glutathione peroxidase contains selenium.
Alkaline phosphatase supplies zinc and magnesium.
Lactoferrin provides iron.

74
Q

Provide 3 reasons why a high proportion of fat is important in breast milk.

A

Fat is more efficiently transformed into adipose tissue than carbohydrate and protein.
Fat is more energy-dense than carbohydrates and protein, providing more kilocalories per gram. It is a more efficient way of delivering energy to the infant (infants have a smaller stomach size).
Essential fatty acids are required for the proper development of the infant’s nervous system.

75
Q

How is breast milk advantageous over bovine milk in terms of fat absorption and composition?

A

Human milk contains a higher proportion of palmitate at the second carbon position of triacylglycerols (the fatty acid at the second position is not readily cleaved, which forms a monoacylglycerol with palmitate).
Monoacylglycerols containing palmitic acid are better absorbed than free palmitic acid.
Saturated free fatty acids, as found in cow’s milk, combine with calcium and create non-soluble calcium soaps, preventing the proper absorption of the fatty acid and calcium.
Human milk has better lipolytic activity, containing enzymes that aid in the digestion and absorption of breast milk.
The lipids contained in breast milk possess lower melting points, requiring less bile salts for emulsification, which increases their likelihood of absorption.

76
Q

How does pre-term milk differ from term milk?

A

Pre-term milk is higher in energy, protein, sodium and chloride.
Pre-term milk is lower in lactose.
There are insufficient amounts of calcium, phosphorus, magnesium, and vitamin D in pre-term milk.

77
Q

Provide 3 examples of major factors that influence breast milk composition.

A

Gestational age (e.g. whether the infant is pre-term or term)
Duration of lactation
As the duration of lactation increases, there is a decrease in total protein, immunoglobulins and fat-soluble vitamins, as well as an increase in lactose, fat, energy and water-soluble vitamins.
Time of day (e.g. foremilk vs. hindmilk)
A higher maternal body fat content increases the concentration of fat within breast milk.

78
Q

Name 5 disadvantages to breastfeeding.

A

Vitamin K, Vitamin D, and iron deficiencies
Breastfeeding may not be accomplished in infants with PKU or galactosemia
The milk produced by mothers of pre-mature infants is not nutritionally sufficient, as it is insufficient in calcium and phosphorus. Pre-term milk must be fortified.
Breast milk jaundice and eczema may occur in a certain portion of breastfed infants.
Prolonged breastfeeding without the introduction of solid foods beyond the age of 6 months results in a reduced growth rate and feeding aversions