Final Review (Quizzes) Flashcards by Stepfanie Roberts

List three (3) functions of blood.

1) Transport nutrients throughout the body

2) Transport oxygen and hormones

3) Regulate body temperature

4) Protect against pathogens

5) Clot to prevent blood loss

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Which of the following proteins is necessary for blood clotting?

A) Albumin
B) Immunoglobulins
C) Fibrinogen
D) Hemoglobin

C) Fibrinogen

Explanation: Fibrinogen is a plasma protein that is converted into fibrin during the clotting process. Fibrin forms a mesh that traps blood cells to create a stable clot.

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Which of the following blood transfusions do you expect to be successful?

A) Type A blood is given to someone with Type B blood
B) Type AB blood is given to someone with Type A blood
C) Type B blood is given to someone with Type O blood
D) Type A blood is given to someone with Type AB blood

D) Type A blood is given to someone with Type AB blood

Explanation: Type AB individuals have no anti-A or anti-B antibodies, so they can receive A, B, AB, or O blood (universal recipients). Type A blood has A antigens, which won’t trigger an immune response in AB recipients.

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Which leukocyte is involved in inflammation responses and produces histamine and heparin?

A) Eosinophil
B) Basophil
C) Neutrophil
D) Lymphocyte
E) Monocyte

B) Basophil

Explanation: Basophils release histamine (promotes inflammation) and heparin (an anticoagulant), both of which are important in the allergic and inflammatory response.

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Which of the following statements is true?

A) The steps of hemostasis are vasoconstriction, agglutination, and formation of a platelet plug.
B) The goal of coagulation is to activate prothrombin so that an embolus can form.
C) Tissue thromboplastin (Factor III) is from tissue outside blood vessels, so it activates the extrinsic coagulation pathway

C) Tissue thromboplastin (Factor III) is from tissue outside blood vessels, so it activates the extrinsic coagulation pathway

Explanation: Tissue thromboplastin (Factor III) is released by damaged tissues outside blood vessels, initiating the extrinsic pathway of coagulation — one of the body’s two pathways for blood clotting.

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Where is hemoglobin found?

A) Inside platelets
B) Inside lymphocytes
C) Inside erythrocytes
D) Hemoglobin is not found in humans

C) Inside erythrocytes

Explanation: Hemoglobin is located within red blood cells (erythrocytes), where it binds to oxygen and facilitates its transport from the lungs to body tissues.

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If you begin bleeding excessively, you may have:

A) A Vitamin K deficiency
B) Excess fibrin formation
C) Too much Factor XII in your blood

A) A Vitamin K deficiency

Explanation: Vitamin K is essential for the synthesis of clotting factors, including prothrombin. A deficiency impairs clot formation, leading to excessive bleeding.

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If you develop a bacterial infection, the first leukocytes to respond are typically:

A) Basophils
B) Eosinophils
C) Neutrophils
D) Lymphocytes

C) Neutrophils

Explanation: Neutrophils are the most abundant white blood cells and are the first responders to bacterial infections. They perform phagocytosis to engulf and destroy pathogens.

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Put these structures of the heart in the order that blood moves through them, starting from the superior and inferior vena cava.

1) Right atrium
2) Right atrioventricular valve (tricuspid valve)
3) Right ventricle
4) Pulmonary semilunar valve
5) Pulmonary artery
6) Lungs
7) Left atrium
8) Left atrioventricular valve (bicuspid/mitral valve)
9) Left ventricle
10) Aortic semilunar valve
11) Aorta

Explanation: Blood flows through the heart in a specific path: deoxygenated blood enters through the vena cavae into the right atrium, goes through the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle, and is pumped to the lungs via the pulmonary valve and artery. Oxygenated blood returns to the left atrium, goes through the bicuspid valve into the left ventricle, and exits through the aortic valve into the aorta for systemic circulation.

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The pulmonary arteries carry oxygen-rich blood

True
False

False

Explanation: Pulmonary arteries are unique in that they carry oxygen-poor blood from the right ventricle to the lungs for oxygenation.

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Which of the following structures keeps heart muscle cells anchored together as the cells contract during a heartbeat?

A) Coronary sinus
B) Desmosomes
C) Great cardiac vein
D) Gap junctions

B) Desmosomes

Explanation: Desmosomes are anchoring junctions that hold cardiac muscle cells together and prevent them from pulling apart during contraction. Gap junctions, by contrast, facilitate electrical communication.

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What is the primary function of valves in the heart?

A) To filter and clean blood as it passes by
B) To initiate contraction and movement in heart muscle cells
C) To enable blood to flow in one direction only
D) To prevent blood clots from forming

C) To enable blood to flow in one direction only

Explanation: Heart valves ensure unidirectional flow of blood and prevent backflow during the cardiac cycle.

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If you exercise regularly, the stroke volume of your heart will generally increase. At a given heart rate, your cardiac output will ________ if your stroke volume increases.

A) Increase
B) Decrease
C) Stay the same

A) Increase

Explanation: Cardiac output = heart rate × stroke volume. If stroke volume increases and heart rate remains the same, cardiac output increases.

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Caffeine is a ______ chronotrope since it increases heart rate.

A) Positive
B) Negative
C) Neutral

A) Positive

Explanation: A positive chronotrope increases heart rate by affecting the sinoatrial node. Caffeine is a stimulant, so it qualifies.

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Number the following events of a cardiac cycle in the correct order:

1) The sinoatrial node initiates an electric signal
2) Blood is actively pushed from the atria to the ventricles
3) The first heart sound is heard
4) The aortic semilunar valves close

Explanation:
1) The SA node fires (pacemaker), triggering atrial contraction.
2) Blood is pushed into ventricles (atrial systole).
3) AV valves close, producing the first heart sound (“lub”).
4) Later in the cycle, semilunar valves close, producing the second sound (“dub”).

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Where does gas, nutrient, and waste exchange between blood and tissues outside the blood vessel happen?

A) Distributing arteries
B) Large veins
C) Capillaries
D) Conducting arteries

C) Capillaries

Explanation: Capillaries have thin walls (one cell layer) and allow for exchange of gases, nutrients, and wastes between blood and surrounding tissues. They are the primary site of exchange.

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The aorta has a very thin tunica media compared to the superior vena cava.

True
False

False

Explanation: The aorta has a very thick tunica media composed of smooth muscle and elastic fibers to withstand high pressure. The superior vena cava has a thinner wall, as it carries blood under low pressure.

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There are connections between arteries that create multiple routes for blood to reach brain tissue. These are called:

A) Pericytes
B) Vasa vasorum
C) Anastomoses
D) Varicose veins

C) Anastomoses

Explanation: Arterial anastomoses are connections between blood vessels that allow for alternate routes of blood flow, especially useful in the brain and heart. Pericytes are support cells on capillaries, not involved in routing.

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Angiotensin II triggers systemic vasoconstriction, which will:

A) Increase blood pressure
B) Decrease blood pressure
C) Have no effect on blood pressure

A) Increase blood pressure

Explanation: Angiotensin II causes vasoconstriction (narrowing of blood vessels), which increases resistance and thus raises blood pressure — a key part of the renin-angiotensin system.

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our blood pressure is 100/70 mmHg. What is your mean arterial pressure (MAP)?

A) 70
B) 80
C) 90
D) 100

B) 80

Explanation: MAP is roughly calculated as:
MAP = diastolic + 1/3(systolic - diastolic)
= 70 + 1/3(100-70) = 70 + 10 = 80 mmHg

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During exercise, what do you expect to happen in blood vessels that feed skeletal muscle?

A) Vasodilation increases blood flow and tissue perfusion
B) Vasoconstriction increases blood flow and tissue perfusion
C) Vasodilation decreases blood flow and tissue perfusion
D) Vasoconstriction decreases blood flow and tissue perfusion

A) Vasodilation increases blood flow and tissue perfusion

Explanation: To meet higher oxygen demands during exercise, vasodilation occurs in vessels supplying skeletal muscles, allowing more blood and oxygen to reach the tissues.

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On the arterial side of a capillary, (hydrostatic/colloid osmotic) ______ pressure dominates, pushing fluid (out of/into) the blood vessel.

Hydrostatic
Out of

Explanation: Hydrostatic pressure forces fluid out of the capillary on the arterial end. On the venous end, osmotic pressure pulls fluid back in.

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Where do T lymphocytes (T cells) mature?

A) Spleen
B) Bone marrow
C) Thymus
D) Tonsils

C) Thymus

Explanation: T cells mature in the thymus (that’s what the “T” stands for). They originate in the bone marrow but migrate to the thymus for development.

What is one possible cause of edema?

The lymphatic system not draining properly, leading to swelling.

Explanation: When the lymphatic system fails to drain excess interstitial fluid, it accumulates in tissues, causing edema (swelling).

What are 3 functions of the respiratory system?

1) Transport oxygen 2) Transport CO₂ to the lungs 3) Facilitate gas exchange between air and blood Explanation: The respiratory system is responsible for: 1) O₂ intake (oxygen transport into the bloodstream) 2) CO₂ removal (carbon dioxide transport out of the body) 3) Gas exchange (O₂ and CO₂ swap at the alveoli-capillary interface)

The alveoli are categorized into the: A) Upper respiratory system and conducting zone B) Lower respiratory system and conducting zone C) Upper respiratory system and respiratory zone D) Lower respiratory system and respiratory zone

D) Lower respiratory system and respiratory zone Explanation: Alveoli are in the lower respiratory system and are part of the respiratory zone, where actual gas exchange occurs. The conducting zone includes nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, and bronchi (no gas exchange happens there).

What are the major muscles that contract during quiet expiration? A) No muscles B) Diaphragm C) External intercostals D) Internal intercostals

D) Internal intercostals Explanation: Quiet expiration is passive and typically involves no muscle contraction — it’s driven by elastic recoil of the lungs. But when slightly active (like controlled exhalation), internal intercostals help pull the ribs down.

As you blow into a trumpet, the volume of your thoracic cavity will ____ and the pressure will ____: A) Decrease, increase B) Increase, decrease C) Decrease, decrease D) Increase, increase

A) Decrease, increase Explanation: Blowing out involves thoracic cavity volume decreasing and intrapulmonary pressure increasing, pushing air out of the lungs.

The basic rhythm pattern of quiet respiration is controlled by the ventral respiratory group. True False

True Explanation: The ventral respiratory group (VRG) in the medulla generates the rhythm for forced and quiet breathing, especially for controlling the motor neurons involved in respiration.

If you have been hypoventilating, your blood will have a (higher/lower) CO₂ concentration and a (higher/lower) pH. A) Higher, lower B) Lower, higher C) Higher, lower D) Lower, lower

C) Higher, lower Explanation: Hypoventilation causes CO₂ buildup (hypercapnia), which lowers blood pH (acidosis). More CO₂ = more carbonic acid.

Hemoglobin carries ________ bound to iron in heme groups and ________ bound to amino acids of hemoglobin (not the heme group)

O₂ CO₂ Explanation: Oxygen binds to iron in the heme portion. Carbon dioxide binds to the globin protein chains, not the iron.

An obstructive respiratory disorder is characterized by blockage of air entering and exiting the lungs. This could include: A) Pulmonary fibrosis B) Asthma

B) Asthma Explanation: Asthma is an obstructive disorder caused by narrowed airways and increased mucus, making it hard to breathe in and out. Pulmonary fibrosis is restrictive (stiff lungs, not blocked airways).

Name 3 structures of the urinary system.

Ureters Bladder Nephron

What is the order in which kidney filtrate or urine flows through these structures? ____. nephron loop ____. ureter ____. proximal convoluted tubule ____. major calyx

1) proximal convoluted tubule 2) nephron loop 3) major calyx 4) ureter

Which of the following is expected pass out of the blood in the glomerulus and into the capsular fluid? A) Large negatively charged proteins B) Neutrophils C) Sodium D) Red blood cells

C) Sodium

In response to low blood pressure, a systemic feedback mechanism signals for granular cells to A) contract, constricting the afferent arteriole more than the efferent arteriole. B) release adenosine, signaling mesangial cells to lyse. C) release renin, which will activate angiotensin II and trigger widespread vasoconstriction

C) release renin, which will activate angiotensin II and trigger widespread vasoconstriction

Your bladder is full, but you are in the middle of taking a quiz. You can choose to delay urination through voluntary control of your A) minor calyx B) external urethral sphincter C) baroreceptors D) granular cells

B) external urethral sphincter

From the cortical radiate arteries, blood enters a nephron through a(n) A) afferent arteriole B) renal artery C) efferent arteriole D) interlobar artery

A) afferent arteriole

As sodium ions flow from high concentration to low concentration into a cell they power the movement of an amino acid to enter the cell alongside sodium. If ATP was used to set up the initial sodium concentration gradient (but is not being used now), what type of transport is this? A) Primary active transport B) Secondary active transport C) Simple diffusion D) Facilitated diffusion

B) Secondary active transport

Which of the following compounds is most likely to be reabsorbed in the descending portion of the nephron loop? A) creatinine B) glucose C) water

C) water

You put a cracker in you mouth and start chewing. Describe what that cracker remnants looks like 1) right before you swallow, and 2) when they leave your stomach.

1) Right before you swallow, the cracker has been mechanically broken down by chewing and mixed with saliva to form a soft, moist mass called a bolus. 2) When the remnants leave the stomach, they are in the form of a partially digested, acidic, semi-liquid mixture called chyme. Explanation: Bolus is the term for food that has been chewed and mixed with saliva, ready to be swallowed. Chyme is what the bolus becomes after being mixed with gastric juices in the stomach. It's more acidic and has a soupy consistency.

Which of the following is an example of mechanical digestion? A) Amylase in the saliva breaking carbohydrates down into sugars. B) Pancreatic lipase breaking apart lipids. C) The three layers of stomach muscle mashing and churning the stomach contents. D) Pepsin chopping proteins into small pieces.

C) The three layers of stomach muscle mashing and churning the stomach contents.

Which of the following structures is lined with stratified squamous epithelium? A) teeth B) esophagus C) pylorus of the stomach

B) esophagus

Which cells make hydrochloric acid? A) Chief cells in gastric pits B) Enteroendocrine cells in gastric pits C) Acinus cells in salivary glands D) Parietal cells in gastric pits

D) Parietal cells in gastric pits

The stomach is lined with transitional epithelium. True False

False

Pepsin is a(n) enzyme that breaks down A) Carbohydrates B) Nucleic acids C) Proteins D) Lipids

C) Proteins

Put the stages of deglutition in order from start to finish. ____. Esophageal Phase ____. Oral Phase ____. Pharyngeal Phase

1) Oral Phase 2) Pharyngeal Phase 3) Esophageal Phase

What is one difference between a hormone and a neurotransmitter?

One key difference between a hormone and a neurotransmitter is how they travel and act within the body: Hormones are released by endocrine glands into the bloodstream, allowing them to travel throughout the body to reach distant target organs. Neurotransmitters are released by neurons into synaptic clefts, acting locally to transmit signals to nearby neurons, muscles, or glands.

Where are sperm produced? A) ductus deferens B) testes C) prostate D) bulbourethral glands

B) testes

Where are eggs produced? A) uterus B) ovaries C) vaginal canal D) uterine tubes

B) ovaries

Match the reproductive system hormone with the description that best fits. 1. Luteinizing hormone 2. Progesterone 3. Follicular stimulating hormone 4. Testosterone ____. Triggers ovulation and the formation of the corpus luteum in females. ____. Stimulates nurse cells to made androgen binding protein (ABP), which causes testosterone to accumulate in the seminiferous tubules in males. ____. Made by the corpus luteum and initiates the secretory phase of endometrial tissue in the uterus. ____. Stimulates development of spermatocytes into spermatids.

1. Luteinizing hormone 2. Progesterone 3. Follicular stimulating hormone 4. Testosterone 1) Triggers ovulation and the formation of the corpus luteum in females. 2) Made by the corpus luteum and initiates the secretory phase of endometrial tissue in the uterus. 3) Stimulates nurse cells to made androgen binding protein (ABP), which causes testosterone to accumulate in the seminiferous tubules in males. 4) Stimulates development of spermatocytes into spermatids.

Most of the cells in your body divide using meiosis. Only sperm and eggs are formed through mitosis. True False

False

Which of the following statements is TRUE? A) New oogonia are formed for each ovulatory cycle. B) A layer of uterine tissue dies and regrows on a monthly cycle. C) All of a man's sperm are produced before birth, and are then released a few at a time throughout his life. D) The bulbourethral gland releases the majority of the fluid that makes up semen.

B) A layer of uterine tissue dies and regrows on a monthly cycle.

If the hypothalamus produces thyrotropin-releasing hormone, then the anterior pituitary is signaled to make A) adrenocorticotropic hormone B) oxytocin C) epinephrine D) thyroid-stimulating hormone

D) thyroid-stimulating hormone

__________ triggers glucose to be moved from blood into cells. A) glucagon B) calcitonin C) insulin D) prolactin

C) insulin