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Anatomy & Physiology > Final Review > Flashcards

Final Review Flashcards

1
Q

Anatomy is the study

A

structure

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2
Q

Physiology is the study of

A

funtion

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3
Q

The sum of all chemical reactions that occur in the body is known as

A

Metabolism

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4
Q

The change a cell undergoes to develop from an unspecialized one to a specialized one is called

A

differentiation

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5
Q

What is a condition in which the body’s internal environment remains within certain physiological limits

A

homeostasis

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6
Q

INTERstitial fluid is located?

A

between the cells in a tissue

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7
Q

Homeostasis is regulated by the nervous system and the…?

A

endocrine system

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8
Q

What are the three observational techniques?

A

Palpation (feel surface of body- pulse, temp)
Auscultation (listening)
Percussion (tap on body and listen to echo)

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9
Q

Level of cellular organization from least to most complex

A

chemical, cellular, tissue, organ, organ system, organsim

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10
Q

ICF (ITRAcellular fluid)

A

located within the cells

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11
Q

ECT (EXTRAcellular fluid)

A

outside the cells

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12
Q

Components of a feedback system

A

receptor (monitors controlled condition)
control center (determines next action)
effector ( produces response)

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13
Q

Negative Feedback Loop

A

decreases change (most systems in body)

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14
Q

Positive Feedback Loop

A

increases change (ex. child birth)

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15
Q

Sagittal Plane

A

Right and left sides

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16
Q

Midsagittal

A

equal right and left halves

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17
Q

Parasagittal

A

unequal right and left halves

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18
Q

Frontal (Coronal) Plane

A

divides front and back

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19
Q

Transverse (Cross-Sectional)

A

divides into upper and lower halves

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20
Q

Dorsal Body Cavity

A

Cranial and Spinal cavities

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21
Q

Ventral Body Cavity

A

Thoracic and Abdominopelvic cavities

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22
Q

what structure divides the thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities

A

diaphragm

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23
Q

Mediastatinum contains all thoracic organs except

A

Lungs

- divides organs into two pleural

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24
Q

Visceral Membranes

A

Cover organ

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25
Q

Parietal Membranes

A

lines walls of cavity

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26
Q

Lining of abdominal cavity

A

peritoneum

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27
Q

Four basic tissue types

A

epithelium, muscle, nervous, connective

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28
Q

Matter

A
  • anything that occupies space
  • weight is a factor of gravity
  • mass of an object is constant, meaning it does not change
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29
Q

How many elements are found in the body?

What are the 4 main elements in the body

A

26

- carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen

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30
Q

The smallest unity of matter

A

atom

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31
Q

Atomic number of an atom is the…

A

number of proton in the nucleus

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32
Q

An unstable or reactive atom will have…

A

an unfilled energy shell.
Stable: 2,8,18
Unstable: 2,8,1

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33
Q

Ions
Cations
Anion

A
  • atoms that are charged
  • Cations- positively charged
  • Anions- negatively charged
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34
Q

3 subatomic particles

A

protons, neutrons, electrons

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35
Q

Nucleus contains

A

protons and neutrons

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36
Q

Chemical bonds

A

hold together atoms in molecules and compounds

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37
Q

Ionic Bond

A

Positively and negatively charged ions attract to form an ionic bond

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38
Q

Covalent Bond are atoms bonded by

A

sharing pairs of electrons

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39
Q

Polar Covalent Bonds are bonded by

A

unequal sharing of electrons (Ex. water)

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40
Q

Hydrogen Bonds

A

are polar covalent bonds between hydrogen and other atoms (ex. surface tension, boiling water, evaporation)
- are usually very weak

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41
Q

Anabolic reactions are

A

synthesis reactions- two or more atoms, ions, or molecules combine to form new and larger molecules (** usually endergonic)

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42
Q

In Exergonic reactions occurring in the body, energy is

A

released as bonds are broken and reformed

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43
Q

In Endergonic reactions

A

energy is absorbed

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44
Q

The energy needed to break bonds and begin a chemical reaction is?

A

activation energy

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45
Q

Catalysts…

A
  • speed up reactions by lowering activation energy
  • orient the colliding particles properly so that they touch at the spots that make the reaction happen
  • are unchanged and can be used repeatedly to speed up similar chemical reactions
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46
Q

Potential Energy

A

Stored energy

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47
Q

Kinetic Energy

A

energy of motion

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48
Q

Decomposition Reaction is

A

catabolism- larger molecules are split into smaller atoms, ion, or molecules (*usually exergonic)

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49
Q

Most abundant inorganic substance in the human body

A

water

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50
Q

Bases

A

dissociate into OH and have a high pH

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51
Q

Acids

A

dissociates into H and have a low pH

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52
Q

dissociation

A

breaking down into ions when dissolved into H20

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53
Q

Solutions

A

contain solutes dissolved in a solvent

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54
Q

colloid mixture

A

are large, therefore doesn’t appear clear

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55
Q

suspension mixture

A

settle out because of size

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56
Q

Water

A

is the medium of nearly all chemical reactions
-is a polar molecule because there is a partial negative charge near oxygen and a partial positive charge near the hydrogen atoms

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57
Q

Dehydration synthesis

A

when carbs are bonded together to form larger structures and results in water

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58
Q

hydrolysis

A

reaction breaking down water

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59
Q

where is glycogen stored

A

in liver and muscle tissue

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60
Q

monosaccaride

A

simple sugars

ex glucose, fructose, galactose

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61
Q

disaccharide-

A

formed by combining 2 monos via dehydration sysnthesis

ex. sucrose, maltose, lactose

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62
Q

What elements do Carbs, fats, and proteins contain

A

carbs- CHO
fats- CHO
proteins- CHON

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63
Q

triglycerides

A

3 fatty acides and 1 glycerol

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64
Q

What is the function of ATP

A

to store energy

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65
Q

All organic compounds contain the elements

A

carbon and hydrogen

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66
Q

which organic compounds are the main source of energy for ATP production

A

Carbohydrates

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67
Q

Carbohydrates are stored in the liver and muscles in the form of

A

glycogen

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68
Q

A saturated fat is saturated with

A

hydrogen

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69
Q

basic building blocks of proteins are

A

amino acids

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70
Q

phospholipids

A

polar head + 2 nonpolar fatty acid tails

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71
Q

hydophobic

A

lipid/non polar

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72
Q

hydrophillic

A

phosphate/polar

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73
Q

amphipathic

A

contains both hydrophobic and hydrophilic properties

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74
Q

how many amino acids are there

A

20

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75
Q

peptide bonds

A

formed by the union of 2 amino acids

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76
Q

Shape of a protein influences its ability to form bonds

a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
d. quaternary

A

a. primary- unique sequence of A.A (ex. ribosomes)
b. secondary- alphahelix or plated sheet folding (ex. RER)
c. Tertiary- 3d shape of polypeptide change (ex. golgi complex)
d. quaternary- multiple polypeptide chains

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77
Q

Denaturation

A

hostile environments such as heat, acid, or salts will change proteins 3D shape and destroy its ability to function

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78
Q

Enzymes

A

protein molecules that act as a catalyst

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79
Q

A nucleotide consists of

A

nitrogenous base
five carbon sugar (pentose)
phosphate

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80
Q

DNA codes for primary protein structures with …

A

3 base pair sections called codons

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81
Q

Errors in DNA base pair sequences can result in

A

mutations
nonfunctional enzymes
cancer

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82
Q

Genes:

A

are sections of DNA

Control the synthesis of a specific protein

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83
Q

Proteins (function)

A 
form structural framework of the body
function as hormones
shortens muscles for contraction
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84
Q

RNA

A

uses ribose sugar
uracil replaces thymine
is a single helix structure instead of double helix
carries genetic message out of nucleus to ribosome
3 types: messenger, ribosomal, and transfer

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85
Q

Organelles that contain enzymes that destroy materials engulfed by a cell are

A

lysosomes

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86
Q

3 structural areas of a cell

A

plasma membrane, nucleus, cytoplasm

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87
Q

cytology

A

study of cell structure

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88
Q

Plasma membrane

A

barrier that surrounds the cytoplasm of cell

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89
Q

what are the three lipids found within the plasma membrane

A

phospholipid, glycolipid, cholesterol

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90
Q

Endoplasmic reticulum is either smooth or rough depending on the presence of

A

ribosomes

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91
Q

cells that are active i the exocytosis would likely contain many..

A

mitochondria

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92
Q

which form of transport utilizes ATP

A

active transport

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93
Q

transport proteins within the cell membrane are required to transport a substance across a membrane via

A

facilitated diffusion

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94
Q

cytoplasm is mostly:

A

water

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95
Q

integral proteins

A

extend into or completely across a membrane

if they extend completely across= transmembrane

96
Q

peripheral proteins

A

attached to either inner or outer surface of cell membrane and are easily removed

97
Q

Functions of membrane proteins

a. channel
b. transporter
c. receptor
d. cell identity marker
e. linker
f. enzyme

A

a. passage to allow specific substance pass through
b. binds a specific substance; changes shape and moves across membrane
c. cellular recognition site- binds to substance (lock and key)
d. allows cell to recognize other similar substances
e. anchor protein in cell
f. catalyst

98
Q

Cell try to move NA ions from the cytoplasm to the outside of the cell, where the sodium concentration is 14 times greater than in the cytoplasm. This means sodium ions are moved out of cell by:

A

active transport

99
Q

pinocytosis

A

engulfment of liquid particles by cells by “cell drinking”

100
Q

Concentration gradients

A

moves from Hi to Low; increased by increased diffusion, temp, concentration, surface tension, etc)

101
Q

Mediated transport

A

moves with help of transporter protein (downhill- automatic)

102
Q

Passive transport

A

moves substance down their gradient with kinetic energy only

103
Q

vesicular transport

A

move substances in small vesicles (bubbles)

104
Q

Exocytosis

A

moving outside cell (ex. goblet cells)

105
Q

Endocytosis

A

moving inside cell (ex. phagocyte, pinocyte)

106
Q

Most lipids found in the human cell are

A

phospholipids

107
Q

Protein synthesis takes place in the

A

ribosomes

108
Q

fatty acids, phospholipids, and steroids are synthesized primarily in the

A

SER

109
Q

an organelle that contains DNA, makes ATP and can replicate is the:

A

mitochondria

110
Q

hairlike projections on a cell for moving the cell are

A

cilia

111
Q

a red blood cell placed in distilled water would…

A

swell and burst

112
Q

a plasma membrane (cell membrane) is

A

phospholipid bilayer surrounding the cell

113
Q

in order for the flagella and cilia to move cells, what is necessary

A

use of energy in form of ATP

114
Q

the process of copying the genetic blueprint of DNA onto a strand of mRNA is important in the process of …

A

protein synthesis

115
Q

a typical human cell has how many chromosomes

A

46

116
Q

this cell organelle directs all cell activities, reproduction,etc

A

nucleus

117
Q

the RER and Golgo apparatus work together to

A

make and process proteins for use outside the cell

118
Q

what is the model used for enzyme, neurotransmitter or hormone receptor specificity

A

lock and key

119
Q

RER

A

synthesizes, processes and packages proteins for export

120
Q

SER

A

has no attached ribosomes- synthesizes phospholipids, steroids, and fats

121
Q

transcription

A

DNA sense strand is template for creation of RNA

122
Q

translation

A

process where M, R, TRNA are used to form a specific protein

123
Q

Mitosis

A

somatic cell division

124
Q

meiosis

A

reproductive cell division (sperm and egg 2n->n)

125
Q

Which event occurring in the life cycle of a cell most directly involves the replication of DNA

A

the cell replicates its chromosome

126
Q

Events assiciated with normal cell dicision

A
  • replication of each chromosome
  • separation from centromeres
  • movement of single stranded chromosomes to opposite ends of spindle
  • nuclear membrane formation around each set on newly formed chromosomes
127
Q

Normal mitotic cell division results in each daughter cell having..

A

the same number and kinds of chromosomes as the parent cell

128
Q

Mitotic cell division

A

2n-n,n

129
Q

during normal meiotic division of diploid cell, the change in chromosome number that occurs is represented as

A

2n>n

130
Q

one primary sex cell undergoing the process of meiosis in a female typically results in the production of

A

1 egg and 3 polar bodies

131
Q

the fact that offspring may have characteristics somewhat different from their parents is primarily due to

A

meiosis

132
Q

compared to the number of chromosomes in normal human body cell, the number of chromosomes in a normal human sperm cell is

A

half as much

133
Q

in human, cells undergoing a change from a diploid number of chromosomes to a monoploid number of chromosomes would normally be found in the

A

ovaries and testes

134
Q

which statement best describes chromosomes that contain genes for the same characteristics

A

homologous

135
Q

What would be the most likely result if the ribosomes in a cell stopped working?

A

synthesis of enzymes would stop

136
Q

the function of the coded instructions contained in the DNA of body cells is to

A

direct the synthesis of proteins necessary for proper cell function

137
Q

overexposure of animals to X-rays is dangerous becuase X-rays are know to damage DNA. A direct result of this damage is cells with

A

changes in the chromosome structure

138
Q

Males have ___ pairs of autosomes and 1 pair of XY chromosomes

A

22

139
Q

A change that alters the base sequence of an organisms DNA is

A

mutation

140
Q

in all living cells, DNA controls cellular activies by

A

determining the order of amino acids in protein molecules

141
Q

occasionally during meiosis, the members of a single homologous chromosome pair will fail to separate. A human egg produced by such a nondisjunction will have a chromosome number of __

A

24

142
Q

what is the relationship between and organisms DNA and protein specificity

A

DNA determines the amino acid sequence of each protein

143
Q

Cell Junction types

A

tight, adherens, desmosomes, hemidesmosomes, gap junctions

144
Q

Tight Junctions

A

water tight seal between cells (GI and gall bladder)

145
Q

Adherens

A

holds epithelial cells together

146
Q

Desmosomes

A

resists cell separation and disruption

147
Q

hemidesmosomes

A

connect cells to extracellular material – basement membrane

148
Q

gap junctions

A

tiny space between plasma membranes of two cells

149
Q

The free upper surface of an epithelial cell is known as the

A

apical surface

150
Q

two components of epithelial tissue

A

basal lamina, reticular lamina

151
Q

Epithelial tissue (fx)

A

covers surface, forms glands, lines hollow organs

152
Q

Do epithelial cells have a good blood supply as well as good nerve supply

A

no

153
Q

the portion of the basement membrane secreted from the epithelial cells is the…

A

basal lamina

154
Q

Simple squamous epithelium lining blood vessels is known as….

A

endothelium

155
Q

unicellular glands producing and secreting mucus

A

goblet cells

156
Q

where is transitional epithelium found

A

urinary bladder

157
Q

which type of epithelium would provide the greatest protection form mechanical injury

A

stratified squamous

158
Q

Simple columnar epithelium

A

microvilli, lines GI tract

159
Q

pseudostratified columnar epithelium

A

ciliated, lines respiratory tract

160
Q

stratified squamous epithelium

A

skin, vagina, may be keratinized

161
Q

transitional epithelium

A

telescopes, lines bladder

162
Q

Blast cell

A

deposit tissues in growth, healing

163
Q

clast cell

A

remove tissue in remodeling

164
Q

cyte cells

A

mature, non-dividing cells

165
Q

adipocytes

A

fat cells

166
Q

mast cells

A

release histamine

167
Q

cartilage found on bone ends in joints

A

hyaline

168
Q

types of loose connective tissue

a. areolar
b. adipose
c. reticular

A

a. cell types= fibroblasts, plasma and few white blood cells
b. peripheral nuclei due to large fat storage
c. reticular- network of fibers and cells that produce framework of organ

169
Q

types of dense connective tissue

a. regular
b. irregular
c. elastic

A

a. regular- collagen fibers in parallel bundles with fibroblasts between bundles of collagen fibers (forms tendons)
b. irregular- collagen fibers are interwoven (ex. white of eyeball, dermis of skin)
c. elastic- branching elastic fibers and fibroblasts can stretch and still return to original shape (ex. lung tissue, vocal chords, ligaments between vertebrae)

170
Q

Tendons and ligaments are made of which type of connective tissue

A

dense regular

171
Q

friction reduction and shock absorption are functions of what part of a long bone

A

articular cartilage

172
Q

osteons are typical of the structure of…

A

dense compact bone

173
Q

what gives bone flexibility and resilience

A

collagen fibers

174
Q

smooth muscle

A

non-striated, in GI tract, lungs and arterioles

175
Q

cardiac muscle

A

striated, branches, involuntary

176
Q

skeletal muscle

A

striated, voluntary, straigh fibers

177
Q

what is the purpose of tight junctions and intercalary disks of cardiac muscle

A

connects the cells electrically, allows for coordination of contraction, gives muscles issue additional strength

178
Q

3 major cell types in blood- what is their fx

A

RBC- erythrocytes
WBC- leukocytes
platelets

fx- provides clotting, immune function, and carry O2 and CO2

179
Q

spongy bone

A

sponge like with spaces and trabeculae

180
Q

compact bone

A

solid, dense; basic unit of structure= osteon

181
Q

3 types of cartilage:

a. hyaline
b. fibrocartilage
c. elastic

A

a. hyaline- blueish, reduces friction at joins as articular cartilage
b. fibrocartilage- many collagen fibers- causes rigidity and stiffness; strongest type. ex. intervertebral discs
c. elastic- fibers maintain shape after deformations (ex ear, nose)

182
Q

Serous membranes

A

simple squamous cells overlying loose CT layer; lines body cavity that doesn’t open to outside

183
Q

the membrane that lines the thoracic cavity is the

A

pleura

184
Q

the appendix belongs to which abdominal quadrant

A

RLQ

185
Q

the function of microvillus found on certain columnar epithelia is

A

to increase surface area for absorption

186
Q

simple squamous epithelium allows for…

A

diffusion

187
Q

a needle would pierce the epidermal layers of the forearm in which order?

A

Corneum, granulosum, spinosum, basale

188
Q

langerhan cells

A

form bone marrow, provide immunity

189
Q

merkel cell

A

in deepest layer, form touch receptor with sensory neuron

190
Q

which muscles attached to the hair follicles cause goose bumps

A

arrector pili

191
Q

melanocytes

A

spidery shaped cells in protecting from UV radiation

192
Q

what is the function of the root hair plexus

A

allow the hair to assist in touch sensation

193
Q

the ___ gland is a modified sudoriferoius gland that secretes wax

A

ceruminous

194
Q

the dermis has two distinct layers

A 
papillary region (20%)- composed of Loose CT and elastic fibers
- reticular region- dense irregular CT
195
Q

the reason the hypodermis (subcutaneous tissue) acts as a shock absorber is that:

A

the major part of its makeup is adipose, which serves as an effective shock absorber

196
Q

the epidermis is responsible for protecting the body against invasion of bacteria and other foreign agents primarily because it is composed of:

A

4 different cell shapes found in five distinct layers, each cell shape with a special function

197
Q

which layer of the epidermis is responsible for cell division and replacement

A

stratum basale

198
Q

in addition to protection, the skin serves other functions

A

it activates vitamin D

199
Q

nourishment to the cells in the epidermis is provided by

A

blood vessels in the dermal papillae

200
Q

the function of keratin is to

A

make skin tough and waterproof

201
Q

sebaceous glands

A

– sebum- combo of cholesterol, proteins, fats, and salts; keeps skin soft and pliable

202
Q

sudoriferous glands

a. eccrine
b. apocrine

A

a. most areas of skin- regulates body temp w/ perspiration

b. apocrine- arm pit and pubic region secretions

203
Q

cyanotic

A

skin and mucous membranes have an abnormal bluish tine; reflects a lack of O2 circulation

204
Q

what does the skin excrete

A

salt, water, urea and ammonia

205
Q

how does skin contribute to regulation of body temp

A

releasing perspiration and altering blood flow to dermis which adjusts how much heat will radiate

206
Q

the function of the epiphyseal plate is to

A

allow means by which a bone can increase in length

207
Q

open epiphyses mean that

A

a patient is still growing, and additional osteochondral bone growth may occur

208
Q

tissues that hold joints together are known as___ and are made of ___

A

capsule;

ligaments, tendons, and periosteum

209
Q

the medullary cavity contains

A

bone marrow

210
Q

the shaft of a long bone is the

A

diaphysis

211
Q

the function of osteoblasts is to

A

produce collagen and matrix for bone matrix

212
Q

osteons are typical of the structure of

A

dense compact bone

213
Q

the tiny channels connecting osteocytes with the central canal of an osteon are called

A

canaliculi

214
Q

what gives a bone flexibility and resilience

A

collagen fibers

215
Q

hydroxyapatite is the…

A

combination of calcium compounds in the bone matrix

216
Q

the type of bone formation that makes flat bones is…

A

intramembranous bone formation

217
Q

the cell responsible for breaking down bone during remodeling

A

osteoclasts

218
Q

trabeculae are characteristic of

A

spongy bone

219
Q

what affects bone growth

A

nutrition, hormones, exercise

220
Q

which of the following defines a simple (closed) fracture

A

the bone doesn’t break through the skin

221
Q

hemopoiesis refers to

A

production of red blood cells in the red bone marrow

222
Q

which type of fracture is most likely to occur in immature bone

A

greenstick

223
Q

Order of fracture healing

A

hematoma formation, formation of fibrocartilage callus, calcification and ossification, remodeling

224
Q

in an intra-articular fracture what may result

A

destruction of joint surface, degeneration of joint leading to arthritis, pain and deformity

225
Q

potts fracture

A

fracture of the fibular with injury of tibial articulation

226
Q

colles fracture

A

fracture of radius in which distal fragment is displaced

227
Q

comminuted fracture

A

bone is splintered, crushed into pieces

228
Q

three types of muscle tissue

A

skeletal, cardiac, smooth

229
Q

fx of muscles

A

produce body movement, stabilize body movement, regulate organ volume, movement of substances within body, produce heat

230
Q

excitability

A

respond to chemical release

231
Q

conductivity

A

ability to propagate electrical signals

232
Q

contractility

A

shorten and generate force

233
Q

extensibilty

A

stretch without damage

234
Q

elasticity

A

return to original shape

235
Q

epimysium

A

surrounds whole muscle

236
Q

perimysium

A

surrounds bundles (fascicles)

237
Q

endomysium

A

separates individual muscle cells

Anatomy & Physiology (3 decks)

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