Final review Flashcards

1
Q

A governing system in which public decision making is delegated to representatives of the people chosen by popular vote in free, open, and periodic elections is a(n)

a. direct democracy
b. representative democracy
c. autocratic democracy
d. bureaucratic democracy

A

b. representative democracy

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2
Q

Which of the following is an essential purpose of any government:

a. resolution of conflicts among citizens
b. providing public services
c. providing for national defence
d. all of the above
e. none of the above

A

d. all of the above

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3
Q

Political culture refers to

a. ways of organizing politically
b. factors that influence the way informal social organizations makes decisions
c. shared values, beliefs and attitudes about how the government should function
d. ways that artists, musicians, filmmakers, and cultural critics usse their message to influence political decision making

A

c. shared values, beliefs and attitudes about how the government should function

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4
Q

Government can best be defined as

a. the set of political principles and values that guide political life
b. the institutions and procedures by which a territory and its people are ruled
c. the institution which controls the receipt of tax revenues and disbursement of expenditures
d. all of the above
e. none of the above

A

b. the institutions and procedures by which a territory and its people are ruled

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5
Q

Conflicts among the generally accepted political ideals in america occur because

a. the ideals are general principles, not precise rules.
b. the ideals can tend to be somewhat at odds with one another.
c. both of the above
d. none of the above

A

c. both of the above

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6
Q

The American political culture includes all of the following core values except

a. liberty
b. equality
c. collectivism
d. democracy

A

c. collectivism

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7
Q

Which of the following is a potential consequence of a prolonged deterioration of public trust in government?

a. The government is unable to attract good workers into the public sector.
b. People are less willing to pay the taxes necessary for public services and activities
c. Distrust weakens government’s ability to help people in the time of crisis.
d. all of the above
e. none of the above

A

d. all of the above

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8
Q

Who said that the best government is the government that “governs least”?

a. Franklin Roosevelt
b. Abraham Lincoln
c. Thomas Jefferson
d. Lyndon Johnson

A

c. Thomas Jefferson

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9
Q

Examples of direct democracy procedures available at the federal level include

a. the initiative process
b. the referendum process
c. the recall process
d. all of the above
e. none of the above

A

e. none of the above

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10
Q

The statement, “We hold these truths to be self-evident, that all men are created equal,” can be found in

a. the Declaration of Independence
b. the U.S. Constitution
c. the Federalist Papers
d. the Civil Rights Act of 1964

A

a. the Declaration of Independence

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11
Q

The free exercise of religion clause allows government restrictions on the practice of religion

a. In any case where the government has a colorable interest
b. Only in cases where there is a compelling interest in protecting the health and safety of citizens
c. Only on prior approval by federal court
d. Only on a 2/3 vote of the legislature

A

b. Only in cases where there is a compelling interest in protecting the health and safety of citizens

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12
Q

The power of the government to take private property for public use is known as the right of

a. Eminent Domain
b. Stare decisis
c. Res ipsa loquitor
d. de facto ratification

A

a. Eminent Domain

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13
Q

The ___ has been interpreted quite strictly to create a virtual wall of separation between church and state.

a. free exercise clause
b. due process clause
c. establishment clause
d. full faith and credit clause

A

c. establishment clause

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14
Q

Miranda rights involve

a. the right to confront adverse witness
b. the right to subpoena witnesses
c. the right to a grand jury indictment in felones
d. the right against self-incrimination

A

d. the right against self-incrimination

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15
Q

citizens have a right to bear arms under the 2nd Amendment, and the exercise of this right

a. cannot be regulated by the government
b. may be regulated but not prohibited by federal and state governments
c. may be regulated only by the National Rifle Association

A

b. may be regulated but not prohibited by federal and state governments

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16
Q

The doctrine of ___ prevents government from advance censoring the publication of any speech or printed publication.

a. National security
b. Equal protection
c. no prior restraint
d. The right of rebuttal

A

d. The right of rebuttal

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17
Q

The constitutional right to an appointed attorney for an indigent in a criminal case

a. applies in any case where confinement is a possible sentence
b. includes the appointment of professional assistants to assist counsel
c. requires that the attorney be competent under prevailing standards
d. all of the above
e. none of the above

A

d. all of the above

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18
Q

A law that declares an action to be illegal after it has already been committed is

a. an ex post facto law
b. a bill of attainder
c. a writ of habeas corpus
d. a post hoc ergo propter hoc law

A

a. an ex post facto law

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19
Q

In what case was a right of privacy first found in the Constitution?

a. Griswold v. Connecticut
b. Roe v. Wade
c. Baker v. Carr
d. Planned Parenthood v. Casey

A

a. Griswold v. Connecticut

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20
Q

the exclusionary rule

a. prohibits the admission in criminal trials of evidence obtained in violation of the constitution
b. prohibits convicted felons from voting
c. was a device used by Southern states to avoid the constitutional amendment guaranteeing the right to vote to blacks
d. the practice of prohibiting non-believers from attending religious ceremonies

A

a. prohibits the admission in criminal trials of evidence obtained in violation of the constitution

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21
Q

The process by which the Supreme Court has ruled that specific parts of the Bill of Rights protect citizens against actions by state and local government as well as the federal government is known as

a. the takings clause
b. federal encroachment
c. selective incorporation
d. res ipsa loquitor

A

c. selective incorporation

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22
Q

Since being first found to be constitutionally protected by the Supreme Court in Roe v. Wade, the right to an abortion has been

a. unchanged
b. overturned
c. upheld and expanded
d. upheld but narrowed in scope

A

d. upheld but narrowed in scope

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23
Q

an act that declares a person to be guilty of a crime without a trial is called

a. an ex post facto law
b. a bill of attainder
c. a letter marquee
d. a writ of habeas corpus

A

b. a bill of attainder

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24
Q

The writ of habeas corpus

a. can be suspended for any reason by a majority vote of Congress
b. cannot be suspended under any circumstances
c. can be suspended only in cases of invasion or rebellion

A

c. can be suspended only in cases of invasion or rebellion

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25
Q

Pursuant to the Fourth Amendment, a valid search warrant can be issued

a. only upon sworn application
b. only based upon facts sufficient to establish probable cause
c. only to search for items specifically identified
d. all of the above
e. none of the above

A

d. all of the above

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26
Q

Which of the following is an example of checks and balances?

a. the veto
b. approval of treaties
c. judicial review
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

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27
Q

The writers of the Constitution devised the Electoral College as the method of choosing presidents because

a. the founders had a great deal of faith in the wisdom of the masses
b. the method would shield executive power from uninformed popular majorities
c. the method guaranteed a majority winner
d. the method would give weight to the preferences of ordinary people

A

b. the method would shield executive power from uninformed popular majorities

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28
Q

The constitution specifically grants Congress the power to do all of the following EXCEPT

a. borrow money
b. lay and collect taxes
c. declare war
d. charter a national bank

A

c. declare war

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29
Q

Judicial review is the power of the federal courts to

a. declare a law unconstitutional
b. suspend the writ of habeas corpus
c. impeach the president
d. give advisory opinions to Congress

A

a. declare a law unconstitutional

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30
Q

Shays’ rebellion

a. was a successful revolt
b. convinced many political leaders that the national government was too powerful
c. convinced many political leaders that the national government was too weak
d. reinforced public support for the articles of Confederation

A

c. convinced many political leaders that the national government was too weak

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31
Q

The “three-fifths compromise” was an effort to deal with one aspect of

a. the institution of slavery
b. the concerns of small states
c. apportionment of the U.S. Senate
d. the Electoral College

A

a. the institution of slavery

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32
Q

The Great Compromise produced

a. checks and balances
b. the abolition of slavery
c. a bicameral Congress
d. separation of powers

A

c. a bicameral Congress

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33
Q

Presidential appointments and treaties must be approved by

a. the State Department
b. only the president
c. the Senate
d. the Supreme Court

A

c. the Senate

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34
Q

Regarding the commerce power, which statement is incorrect?

a. The states may regulate interstate commerce
b. The national government may not regulate interstate commerce
c. commerce is to be unregulated by government
d. None of the above is correct
e. All of the above is correct

A

e. All of the above is correct

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35
Q

The expressed powers in Article I of the Constitution were intended to

a. limited the powers of state governments
b. ensure that neither small nor large states would be at a disadvantage
c. ensure that neither northern nor southern states would be at a disadvantage
d. define the lawful powers of the national government

A

d. define the lawful powers of the national government

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36
Q

The source of implied powers under the Constitution is the ___ clause

a. full faith and credit
b. necessary and proper clause
c. supremacy clause
d. the presentment clause

A

b. necessary and proper clause

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37
Q

The Tenth Amendment addressed the concerns of Antifederalist about

a. the meaning of the commerce clause
b. popular representation in Congress
c. preserving the powers of state governments
d. the Electoral College

A

c. preserving the powers of state governments

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38
Q

The allocation of powers and functions to the national and state governments under the United States Constitution is known as

a. confederation
b. intergovernmental relations
c. separations of powers
d. federalism

A

d. federalism

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39
Q

Implied powers under the necessary and proper clause allows

a. state governments to nullify federal laws
b. the national government to interpret its expressed powers broadly
c. for judicial review of acts for Congress
d. state governments to adopt inconsistent laws on police powers

A

b. the national government to interpret its expressed powers broadly

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40
Q

The federal government’s power to tax, regulate commerce among the states, and to declare war are all examples of ___ powers.

a. reserved
b. expressed
c. implied
d. concurrent

A

b. expressed

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41
Q

in key decisions early in the New Deal Era, the Supreme Court

a. invalidated key pieces of FDR’s “court-packing” proposal
b. upheld FDR’s “court-packing” proposal
c. ruled that segregation violated the Fourteenth Amendment
d. ruled that public accommodations were part of interstate commerce

A

a. invalidated key pieces of FDR’s “court-packing” proposal

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42
Q

Under the Articles of Confederation

a. the president was more powerful than Congress
b. the senate was more powerful than the house of representatives
c. the Supreme Court was the most powerful institution of all
d. all of the above
e. none of the above

A

e. none of the above

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43
Q

At the Constitutional convention, the Virginia Plan proposed that the legislative body be composed

a. based solely on the geographical size of the state
b. of states with an equal number of votes
c. based solely on the population of the state
d. of two chambers, one based on population, the other on state equality

A

c. based solely on the population of the state

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44
Q

The constitutional principle of bicameralism refers to

a. the separation of powers between a legislative and an executive branch
b. the division of responsibility between the president and vice president
c. the creation of a Congress consisting of two chambers which must agree on any proposed laws
d. the division of the federal court system into a supreme court and inferior courts

A

c. the creation of a Congress consisting of two chambers which must agree on any proposed laws

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45
Q

An amendment to the constitution requires a vote of two thirds of the house and senate and

a. signature by the president and confirmation by the Supreme Court
b. ratification by the Constitutional Revision Commission
c. ratification by a majority vote of the voters in the ratification election
d. ratification by the legislatures of three fourths of the states

A

d. ratification by the legislatures of three fourths of the states

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46
Q

True or False

A presidential veto of a proposed constitutional amendment can be overridden by a two thirds vote of both chambers of Congress

A

False

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47
Q

True or False

The full faith and credit clause of the constitution requires that the federal government maintain a balanced budget

A

False

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48
Q

True or False

The federal and state governments share the power to levy and collect taxes

A

True

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49
Q

True or False

The three fifths compromise at the constitutional convention required that no more than three fifths of the states would be allowed to authorize slavery

A

False

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50
Q

True or False

Under the Articles of Confederation,the execution of any laws passed by Congress was left up to the discretion of the individual states

A

True

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51
Q

True or False

The United States Constitution creates a unitary form of government

A

False

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52
Q

True or False

Under the Constitution as originally adopted, the only federal officials who were not elected directly by the people were federal judges

A

False

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53
Q

True or False

Only the president is empowered to declare that a state of war exists between the United States and another country

A

False

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54
Q

True or False

Ratification of an amendment to the constitution requires an affirmative vote by three fourths of the members of the legislature of two thirds of the states

A

False

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55
Q

True or False

The Constitution limits federal judges to appointments for a term of ten years

A

False

56
Q

True or False

Trust in the government has steadily improved since the attacks on the World Trade Center and the Pentagon on September 11, 2001

A

False

57
Q

True or False

The Bill of Rights constitutes an important check on the power of the majority

A

True

58
Q

True or False

In a constitutional government, formal and effective limits are placed on the power of the governmnet

A

True

59
Q

True or False

Surveys reflect substantial recent improvements in the overall state of political knowledge of American citizens

A

False

60
Q

True or False

The concept of limited government was first introduced into American political culture by Ronald Reagan

A

False

61
Q

True or False

Citizens have a right to an appointed attorney in any criminal case

A

False

62
Q

True or False

The right of a citizen to peacefully protest cannot be restricted by the government in any way

A

False

63
Q

True or False

The provisions of the Fifth amendment regarding taking private property for public use without just compensation do not apply to state and local governments

A

False

64
Q

True or False

The constitutional right to privacy is not specifically included in any provision of the constitution

A

True

65
Q

True or False

Under the 4th Amendment any search conducted without a warrant is unconstitutional

A

False

66
Q

True or False

Divided government at the national level has been a relative rarity since the 1950’s

A

False

67
Q

True or False

The corporate takeover of news departments of television networks has meant that the news departments have become more concerned with ratings and advertising revenues

A

True

68
Q

True or False

The National Committee of each major party is responsible for nominating all of the party’s candidates in all federal and state wide elections

A

False

69
Q

True or False

When one political party dominates the political processes of a state voter interest and participation is tended to be decreased

A

True

70
Q

True or False

States and localities often choose to hold key office elections in non-presidential election years to insulate their election races from the possible effects of the presidential campaign

A

True

71
Q

True or False

Under the provisions of the Constitution, if no candidate for president receives a majority of the votes in the electoral college the election is decided by the House of Representatives

A

True

72
Q

True or False

One of the key factors in determining whether an opinion poll is accurate is that the sample group was randomly selected

A

True

73
Q

True or False

A person’s political views are set at a fairly young age and do not tend to be affected by increasing levels of education

A

False

74
Q

True or False

Under the United States’ political system, public policy will always coincide with the state of public opinion

A

False

75
Q

True or False

Most regulation and control of television and radio content is based at the local and state government levels

A

False

76
Q

True or False

Article III of the Constitution requires that the Supreme Court consist of nine justices

A

False

77
Q

True or False

A common tactic for interest groups to gain easier access to those in government is to employ former government officials as lobbyists

A

True

78
Q

True or False

The term federal question jurisdiction refers to the Supreme Court procedures for answering hypothetical questions from executive branch agencies

A

False

79
Q

True or False

No president has ever been removed from office as a result of conviction on impeachment charges

A

True

80
Q

True or False

The Constitution gives Congress the power to determine the line of succession to the presidency after the president and vice president

A

True

81
Q

True or False

Since the 1930s Congress has delegated far less authority to the president than in previous years

A

False

82
Q

True or False

The constitution designates the vice president as the presiding officer of the Senate

A

True

83
Q

True or False

The number of civilian employees of the federal government has roughly doubled in the last fifteen years

A

False

84
Q

True or False

The termination of numerous federal agencies has resulted in a 28% decrease in the number of federal regulatory agencies since 1980

A

False

85
Q

True or False

The distinguishing feature which has led Congress to create government corporations for some federal agencies is the ability of the agency to charge consumers directly for the services provided by that agency

A

True

86
Q

The greatest reduction in the strength of “insiders” in the major political parties was

a. the national convention
b. the emergence of the primary election process to nominate candidates
c. the emergence of PACs
d. greater ease of voter registration

A

b. the emergence of the primary election process to nominate candidates

87
Q

If a minor party begins to attract a significant following, it is almost certain that

a. the major parties will join together to attack the minority party
b. Congress will enact legislation to make it difficult for the minority party to get on
c. party in-fighting will tear it apart
d. the majority party will try to capture its supporters

A

d. the majority party will try to capture its supporters

88
Q
Organizationally, the U.S. major parties are
  a. decentralized
  b. centralized
  c. 
  d.
A

a. decentralized

89
Q

The Democratic party coalition today includes all of the following groups except

a. women
b. African Americans
c. Latino Americans
d. the Christian coalition

A

d. the Christian coalition

90
Q

A political party is different from other interest groups in that a political party

a. seeks to control the entire government by electing its members to office and thereby controlling the government’s personnel
b. seeks to control only limited, very specific, functions of government
c. is entirely nonprofit
d. has a much smaller membership

A

a. seeks to control the entire government by electing its members to office and thereby controlling the government’s personnel

91
Q

What is the difference between an open and a closed primary?

a. you must pay a poll tax to vote in a closed primary
b. open primaries allow voters to split the ticket
c. in closed primaries, only registered members of a political party may vote to select that party’s candidates
d. there are no differences

A

c. in closed primaries, only registered members of a political party may vote to select that party’s candidates

92
Q

In the United States today, which of the following statements regarding political party identification is true?

a. A much higher percentage of the population today identifies themselves as Democrats than in the 1950s
b. A much lower percentage of the population today identifies themselves as Republicans than in the 1950s
c. The relative percentages of the population identifying themselves as Republican or Democrat has not changed significantly since the 1950s
d. A higher percentage of voters today describe themselves as independents than in the 1950s

A

d. A higher percentage of voters today describe themselves as independents than in the 1950s

93
Q

Throughout its history, at any given time American politics has been dominated by

a. one major political party
b. two major political parties
c. three or more major political parties
d. None of the above

A

b. two major political parties

94
Q

Which of the following statements concerning third parties is false?

a. Third parties are usually short lived
b. Third parties which achieve any success usually have their programs adopted by one of the major parties
c. Third parties are guaranteed access to the ballot by the equal protection clause of the Constitution
d. Third parties usually arise when some significant groups does not feel that its interests are adequately represented by the existing parties

A

c. Third parties are guaranteed access to the ballot by the equal protection clause of the Constitution

95
Q

A party’s ___ contains its philosophy, principles and policy proposals.

a. caucus
b. convention
c. executive committee
d. platform

A

d. platform

96
Q

The powerful and often corrupt urban party organizations in the nineteenth and early twentieth century were called

a. political caucuses
b. political machines
c. political action committees
d. political conventions

A

b. political machines

97
Q

Most presidential campaign money during the general election is spent on

a. maintaining a campaign staff
b. advertising on television
c. mass mailing of campaign literature
d. staging of personal appearances

A

b. advertising on television

98
Q

If the winner of an election is whoever received the most votes, regardless of percentages, the candidates are competing under a

a. proportional representation system
b. plurality system
c. majority system
d. unitary system

A

b. plurality system

99
Q

When a voter votes for only one political party, the voter is said to be engaged in ___ voting.

a. straight ticket
b. split ticket
c. single ticket
d. closed ticket

A

a. straight ticket

100
Q

A cohesive set of beliefs that forms a general philosophy about the role of government is called

a. conservatism
b. liberalism
c. libertarianism
d. an ideology

A

d. an ideology

101
Q

An important reason that public policy and public opinion may not coincide in the United States is that

a. the American system of government includes arrangements such as an appointed judiciary that can produce policy decisions that may run contrary to prevailing popular sentiment
b. the American system of government was not designed to account for public opinion
c. the American system of government was designed to account for the needs and demands only of the elite
d. the American system of government does not regard public opinion as important

A

a. the American system of government includes arrangements such as an appointed judiciary that can produce policy decisions that may run contrary to prevailing popular sentiment

102
Q

Which of the following agents of socialization provide most people with their initial orientation to politics?

a. peers
b. church
c. family
d. school

A

c. family

103
Q

If a poll has a margin of error plus or minus 3%, and the poll indicates Candidate X has the support of 51% of the persons surveyed, then the survey expects that Candidate X will actually receive

a. between 51 and 54% of the vote
b. between 49 and 51% of the vote
c. between 48 and 54% of the vote
d. None of the above

A

c. between 48 and 54% of the vote

104
Q

When a politician who uses polling data believes an issue is more important to people than it actually is, he or she has fallen victim to the

a. “bounce” effect
b. illusion of central tendency
c. illusion of saliency
d. bandwagon effect

A

c. illusion of saliency

105
Q

The practice of using fake poll as a means of attempting to convey false information about a candidate is known as

a. random digit dialing
b. push polling
c. the illusion of saliency
d. the bandwagon effect

A

b. push polling

106
Q

an electoral system in which seats in a legislative body are awarded to political parties based on the percentages of the total vote which the party received is known as

a. a plurality system
b. proportional representation
c. party identification
d. divided government

A

b. proportional representation

107
Q

Which of the following best describes the relationship between government and the media in the United States today?

a. The government controls most of the media content through regulations and tightly controlled press briefings
b. The government owns, but does not control, the major sources of media
c. The government does not own but does regulate the ownership of broadcast media
d. Broadcast media are not regulated in the United States

A

c. The government does not own but does regulate the ownership of broadcast media

108
Q

The FCC’s equal time requirement

a. includes the print media
b. prohibits broadcasters from selling advertising time to political candidates and denying it to their opponents on an equivalent basis
c. requires broadcasters to give free air time to the two major political parties
d. requires broadcasters to give time free to third party candidates equal to the time spent on Democrats and Republicans in the news programming

A

b. prohibits broadcasters from selling advertising time to political candidates and denying it to their opponents on an equivalent basis

109
Q

The principal source of news and information about government for most Americans today is

a. television
b. newspapers
c. magazines
d. radio talk shows

A

a. television

110
Q

When television networks and stations select stories to cover, the overriding bias is toward

a. stories involving the most important policy issues of the day
b. international and foreign policy issues
c. stories with biographical details about political figures
d. stories that will draw the largest audience and the highest ratings

A

d. stories that will draw the largest audience and the highest ratings

111
Q

The process of allocating congressional seats among the fifty states after a census is called

a. redistricting
b. gerrymandering
c. redlining
d. reapportionment

A

d. reapportionment

112
Q

Conference committees are

a. permanent and involve members from both the House and the Senate
b. permanent and have the power to write and propose a variety of legislation
c. temporary and are created to consider an issue that falls between the jurisdiction of the existing committees or to investigate a particular problem
d. temporary and are created to reach a compromise on differences in legislation passed regarding the same subject by the Senate and the House

A

d. temporary and are created to reach a compromise on differences in legislation passed regarding the same subject by the Senate and the House

113
Q

In the United States Senate, there is no general time limit on debate nor any limit on the time any individual Senator may speak on a bill unless

a. the majority leader imposes limits
b. a majority of the Senators agree to impose limits
c. at least sixty of the Senators vote to impose limits
d. none of the above

A

c. at least sixty of the Senators vote to impose limits

114
Q

In the House of Representatives, the ___ Committee allots the time for house debate and decides to what extent amendments can be proposed from the floor

a. ways and means
b. rules
c. appropriations
d. administrative procedures

A

b. rules

115
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the sociological representation concept is correct?

a. The demographic makeup of the House is closely parallel to the population as a whole
b. The demographic makeup of the Senate is closely parallel to the population as a whole
c. Both of the above
d. none of the above

A

d. none of the above

116
Q

Members of the House of Representatives serve a term of __ years and members of the Senate serve a term of __ years

a. 2;4
b. 4;6
c. 2;6
d. 4;4

A

c. 2;6

117
Q

When compared to Senators, the frequency with which they must seek re-election makes members of the house

a. less responsive to the needs of the elites and local interest groups in the states they represent
b. more responsive to the needs of local interest groups in the districts they represent
c. equally responsive to the needs of local interest groups in the districts they represent

A

b. more responsive to the needs of local interest groups in the districts they represent

118
Q

The president has the power to appoint all of the following, with the approval of the Senate, EXCEPT

a. The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
b. The Speaker of the House of Representatives
c. The Secretary of State
d. The Ambassador to France

A

b. The Speaker of the House of Representatives

119
Q

Which of the following was overturned by the Supreme Court as an unconstitutional delegation of legislative powers?

a. veto
b. pocket veto
c. adjournment veto
d. line-item veto

A

d. line-item veto

120
Q

The goal of the War Powers Resolution was to

a. compel a congressional declaration of war for every large scale military operation
b. end the Vietnam war
c. limit the power of the president to commit american forces to prolonged military action
d. cut off funding for all military actions undertaken without express Congressional authorization

A

c. limit the power of the president to commit american forces to prolonged military action

121
Q

If the president wants to formalize foreign policy arrangements with a foreign country without the necessity of obtaining Senate ratification of a treaty, he or she would most likely

a. invoke executive privilege
b. make a secret treaty and not inform Congress
c. invoke the treaty powers of the War Powers Resolution
d. make an executive agreement with the head of the foreign nation

A

d. make an executive agreement with the head of the foreign nation

122
Q

The president’s power of clemency under the constitution

a. must be based on a recommendation by the U.S. Department of justice
b. is subject to review by the Presidential Pardon and Commutation commission
c. can be overturned by a two thirds vote of both chambers of Congress
d. all of the above
e. none of the above

A

e. none of the above

123
Q

Executive orders by the president

a. may be issued to interpret unclear areas in legislation passed by Congress
b. are limited to matters which will be completed in less than six months
c. may be used to reverse legislative enactments with which the president disagrees
d. can be used only in matters involving foreign policy

A

a. may be issued to interpret unclear areas in legislation passed by Congress

124
Q

What is the origin of most federal bureaucracies?

a. Congress passes a law creating the agency
b. The cabinet secretary issues an order creating the bureau
c. The president issues an executive order
d. Most federal bureaucracies are created equal by article IV of the Constitution

A

a. Congress passes a law creating the agency

125
Q

Before the Civil service Act of 1883, how were governmental jobs filled?

a. Positions were filled on the basis of merit
b. Positions were filled on the basis of seniority
c. Positions were filled by giving them to political supporters as a part of a spoiler system
d. Positions were filled by a personnel agency

A

c. Positions were filled by giving them to political supporters as a part of a spoiler system

126
Q

Which of the following is a governmental corporation?

a. The Department of Defense
b. The Department of Agriculture
c. The Federal Bureau of Investigation
d. The U.S. Postal Service

A

d. The U.S. Postal Service

127
Q

A bureau charged with putting restrictions and obligations on individuals or corporations in the private sector is called a ___ agency.

a. regulatory
b. fiscal
c. police
d. administrative

A

a. regulatory

128
Q

The concept of devolution as a means of reducing the size and complexity of the federal bureaucracies involves

a. Reorganizing the federal bureaucracies and transferring personnel within the agencies
b. Hiring private consultants to advise the various agencies on methods for improving efficiency
c. Transferring responsibility for administration of programs from the federal level to state and local governments
d. Creating a Department of Personnel Management to oversee hiring and firing in all federal agencies

A

c. Transferring responsibility for administration of programs from the federal level to state and local governments

129
Q

A benefit that is sought by an interest group and that, once achieved, cannot be denied to nonmembers is called a

a. collective good
b. right
c. entitlement
d. award

A

a. collective good

130
Q

The monetary contributions of certain nonprofit organizations to political campaigns and political action committees which can be made without revealing the identities or exact contributions is known as

a. fraud
b. gravy
c. dark money
d. pork

A

c. dark money

131
Q

What is the most important variable in determining the likelihood of an individual being a member of an interest group?

a. political ideology
b. income
c. region of the country
d. religion

A

b. income

132
Q

According to federal lobbyist disclosure laws, which of the following are professional lobbyists requires to disclose?

a. the names of all government officials lobbied
b. the names of all parties on whose behalf the lobbyists have contacted governmental officials
c. the types of contacts and amounts expended in each contact with government officials
d. all of the above
e. none of the above

A

d. all of the above

133
Q

The practice of working in government and then working in lobbying shortly thereafter is known as

a. the free rider problem
b. the revolving door
c. an iron triangle
d. the swinging pendulum

A

b. the revolving door

134
Q

The situation where individuals will get the benefits of successful action by an interest group on behalf of a cause even if they do not participate or contribute is called

a. the disincentive factor
b. the free - rider problem
c. the special interest paradox
d. the uncertainty factor

A

b. the free - rider problem

135
Q

Among the constitutional requirements for becoming a federal judge are

a. a valid license to practice law
b. actual legal or judicial experience of at least five years
c. being at least 25 years of age
d. all of the above
e. none of the above

A

e. none of the above